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Camilla Lectures Flashcards

Learing models

1
Q

Model for two-sided networks/markets, (Platform business models), Launchworks, 2022:
Basic-Level Question
Q: What is the first stage in the Rocket Model for two-sided networks?

A

A: The first stage is “Attract,” where platforms develop compelling value propositions to draw a critical mass of producers and consumers.

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2
Q

Model for two-sided networks/markets, (Platform business models), Launchworks, 2022
Intermediate-Level Question
Q: How does the “Match” stage of the Rocket Model contribute to platform success?

A

A: The “Match” stage involves efficiently pairing participants by filtering and presenting optimal choices, enabling successful interactions.

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3
Q

Model for two-sided networks/markets, (Platform business models), Launchworks, 2022
Advanced-Level Question
Q: Why is the “Connect” stage crucial in the Rocket Model for certain platform interactions?

A

A: The “Connect” stage builds trust and reduces information asymmetry by facilitating pre-transaction communication between participants, which is particularly important for complex exchanges requiring additional verification.

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4
Q

Model for two-sided networks/markets, (Platform business models), Launchworks, 2022
Expert-Level Question
Q: How can a platform achieve “escape velocity” according to the Rocket Model?

A

A: A platform achieves escape velocity when it systematically implements the Rocket Model stages—Attract, Match, Connect, Transact, and Optimize—while leveraging network effects to sustain growth with minimal additional effort.

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5
Q

Cross and same side network effects (Part of network effects):
Basic-Level Question
Q: What is a same-side network effect?

A

A: A same-side network effect occurs within a single group of users, where the value for a user changes as the number of users on the same side increases.

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6
Q

Cross and same side network effects (Part of network effects):
Intermediate-Level Question
Q: What distinguishes positive from negative same-side network effects? Provide an example of each.

A

A: Positive same-side network effects occur when additional users increase value, such as more players on a gaming console improving matchmaking opportunities. Negative same-side network effects arise when more users reduce value, such as too many sellers on eBay increasing competition and reducing profitability.

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7
Q

Cross and same side network effects (Part of network effects):
Advanced-Level Question
Q: Explain the concept of cross-side network effects and give an example.

A

A: Cross-side network effects occur between two distinct groups of users on a platform. The value for one group increases as the size of the other group grows. For example, more riders on Uber attract more drivers, and vice versa.

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8
Q

Cross and same side network effects (Part of network effects):
Expert-Level Question
Q: How can platforms balance the interplay between same-side and cross-side network effects to sustain growth?

A

A: Platforms must amplify positive cross-side effects, like attracting more users to one group to benefit the other, while mitigating negative same-side effects, such as limiting low-quality participants or congestion through curation or exclusion strategies. For instance, Airbnb curates listings to ensure quality for users on both sides.

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9
Q

Pricing platforms:
Basic-Level Question
Q: What are the two main sides in platform pricing, and how are they defined?

A

A: The two sides are the subsidy side and the money side. The subsidy side consists of users who are more price-sensitive and whose participation drives value to the other side. The money side consists of users willing to pay to access the subsidy side.

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10
Q

Pricing platforms:
Intermediate-Level Question
Q: What factors determine which side of a platform should be subsidized?

A

A: Factors include cross-side network effects (which side’s growth drives the other), user price sensitivity (subsidize the more price-sensitive side), and quality sensitivity (subsidize users who demand higher quality from suppliers).

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11
Q

Pricing platforms:
Advanced-Level Question
Q: How does dynamic pricing evolve across the lifecycle of a platform?

A

A: In the early stage, platforms heavily subsidize the critical side to achieve network effects. In the growth stage, pricing is adjusted to balance value and profitability. In the maturity stage, platforms monetize their user base, often introducing premium or subscription models.

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12
Q

Pricing platforms:
Expert-Level Question
Q: How do multi-homing costs influence platform pricing strategies?

A

A: Multi-homing costs refer to the ease with which users can participate in multiple platforms. High multi-homing costs justify higher prices on the money side, as users are less likely to switch platforms. Conversely, low multi-homing costs may require aggressive subsidies to retain users.

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13
Q

Cornerstone model / Building blocks, Ross et al,.
Basic-Level Question
Q: What is the Operational Backbone in the Cornerstone Model?

A

A: The Operational Backbone is a standardized and integrated layer of systems, processes, and data designed to support core business operations, focusing on efficiency and reliability.

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14
Q

Cornerstone model / Building blocks, Ross et al,.
Intermediate-Level Question
Q: How does the Digital Platform differ from the Operational Backbone in the Cornerstone Model?

A

A: While the Operational Backbone supports core operations with stability, the Digital Platform is modular and flexible, enabling rapid innovation and the deployment of customer-facing digital offerings.

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15
Q

Cornerstone model / Building blocks, Ross et al,.
Advanced-Level Question
Q: Explain the role of Shared Customer Insights in the Cornerstone Model.

A

A: Shared Customer Insights centralize organizational learning about customer needs and behaviors, enabling continuous improvement and innovation in value propositions through analytics and experimentation.

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16
Q

Cornerstone model / Building blocks, Ross et al,.
Expert-Level Question
Q: How does the Accountability Framework balance autonomy and alignment within an organization?

A

A: The Accountability Framework defines clear roles, responsibilities, and decision-making processes. It promotes agility by empowering teams to innovate autonomously while ensuring their efforts align with strategic objectives.

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17
Q

Cornerstone model / Building blocks, Ross et al,.
Q: What is the purpose of the External Developer Platform in the Cornerstone Model?

A

A: The External Developer Platform provides APIs and digital components for external developers and partners, fostering innovation and scaling the ecosystem through collaborative efforts.

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18
Q

Cornerstone model / Building blocks, Ross et al,.
Advanced-Level Question (Additional)
Q: How can the Cornerstone Model guide an organization through a digital transformation?

A

A: The model suggests starting with the Operational Backbone for stability, then building a Digital Platform for innovation, integrating Shared Customer Insights for continuous learning, and establishing an Accountability Framework to coordinate teams and foster alignment.

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19
Q

Model of the Platform challenges, Eisenmann et al. 2006:
Basic-Level Question
Q: What is the “subsidy side” in a platform business model?

A

A: The subsidy side consists of users who are attracted to the platform with lower or no costs because their participation is crucial to creating value for the other user group.

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20
Q

Model of the Platform challenges, Eisenmann et al. 2006:
Intermediate-Level Question
Q: How do “winner-takes-it-all” dynamics affect platform markets?

A

A: Winner-takes-it-all dynamics occur when network effects and economies of scale lead to a single dominant platform, leaving little room for competitors, as seen with platforms like Windows or eBay.

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21
Q

Model of the Platform challenges, Eisenmann et al. 2006:
Advanced-Level Question
Q: What is “envelopment” in the context of platform challenges, and how does it pose a threat?

A

A: Envelopment refers to a situation where a platform from an adjacent market bundles its services to compete against or absorb another platform, leveraging overlapping user bases or functionalities (e.g., Google integrating Maps with Search to compete with standalone GPS apps).

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22
Q

Model of the Platform challenges, Eisenmann et al. 2006:
Expert-Level Question
Q: What strategies can platforms use to manage the risk of multi-homing by users?

A

A: Platforms can reduce multi-homing by increasing switching costs, offering exclusive features, or incentivizing user loyalty through rewards programs or partnerships that make it less attractive to use competing platforms.

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23
Q

Sensing, seizing, transforming, Teece & Linden, 2017:
Basic-Level Question
Q: What does “sensing” refer to in Teece & Linden’s model?

A

A: Sensing involves identifying opportunities and threats in the environment by gathering and interpreting information about market changes, technological advancements, and customer needs.

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24
Q

Sensing, seizing, transforming, Teece & Linden, 2017:
Intermediate-Level Question
Q: What organizational capabilities are critical for “sensing” opportunities?

A

A: Critical capabilities include environmental scanning, investment in R&D, customer engagement for feedback, and leveraging ecosystem partnerships to detect emerging trends and innovations.

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25
Q

Sensing, seizing, transforming, Teece & Linden, 2017:
Advanced-Level Question
Q: What is the “seizing” phase, and how does it differ from sensing?

A

A: Seizing focuses on acting upon the opportunities identified during sensing by allocating resources, designing business models, and implementing strategies to capture value. It requires commitment to investments and operational scaling.

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26
Q

Sensing, seizing, transforming, Teece & Linden, 2017:
Q: How does the “transforming” phase ensure long-term competitiveness for a firm?

A

A: Transforming ensures the organization remains agile and adaptable by continuously reconfiguring resources, structures, and processes to address shifts in the competitive landscape and maintain relevance in dynamic environments.

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27
Q

PFI (Profit from innovation) model: Teece 1996
Basic-Level Question
Q: What is the main focus of the PFI Model by Teece (1996)?

A

A: The PFI Model focuses on how firms can capture value from innovation by leveraging complementary assets, intellectual property, and appropriability mechanisms.

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28
Q

PFI (Profit from innovation) model: Teece 1996
Intermediate-Level Question
Q: What are complementary assets, and why are they critical in the PFI Model?

A

A: Complementary assets are resources such as distribution channels, manufacturing capabilities, or brand reputation that help firms commercialize innovations and achieve competitive advantage.

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29
Q

PFI (Profit from innovation) model: Teece 1996
Advanced-Level Question
Q: What role do appropriability regimes play in the PFI Model?

A

A: Appropriability regimes determine the effectiveness of mechanisms like patents, trade

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30
Q

PFI (Profit from innovation) model: Teece 1996
Expert-Level Question
Q: How does the PFI Model explain the importance of timing in innovation?

A

A: Timing affects whether a firm can establish a dominant design or standard, secure market leadership, and capitalize on first-mover advantages. Poor timing can lead to failure to capture value despite a successful innovation.

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31
Q

PFI (Profit from innovation) model: Teece 1996
Intermediate-Level Question (Additional)
Q: What is the difference between specialized and generic complementary assets, and how does this impact innovation strategy?

A

A: Specialized complementary assets are tailored to the innovation (e.g., unique machinery), while generic assets are widely available (e.g., standard logistics). Specialized assets often provide a competitive edge, while generic assets require strategic partnerships.

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32
Q

PFI (Profit from innovation) model: Teece 1996
Advanced-Level Question (Additional)
Q: Explain the relationship between innovation appropriability and complementary assets in determining profitability.

A

A: High appropriability allows innovators to profit directly from their work, while low appropriability requires strong complementary assets to capture value indirectly, such as through partnerships or integration into larger value chains.

33
Q

DevOps, Kim et al. (DevOps Handbook)
Basic-Level Question
Q: What is the primary goal of the DevOps model?

A

A: The primary goal of DevOps is to enable faster, more reliable, and efficient delivery of software through collaboration between development and operations teams.

34
Q

DevOps, Kim et al. (DevOps Handbook)
Intermediate-Level Question
Q: What are the “Three Ways” foundational principles of DevOps?

A

A: The “Three Ways” are:
Flow: Ensuring smooth workflow from development to operations to delivery.
Feedback: Establishing a feedback loop to improve processes and outcomes.
Continuous Learning: Creating a culture of experimentation, learning, and improvement.

35
Q

DevOps, Kim et al. (DevOps Handbook)
Advanced-Level Question
Q: How does automation contribute to achieving DevOps goals?

A

A: Automation helps by streamlining repetitive tasks (e.g., CI/CD pipelines), improving consistency, reducing human error, and accelerating feedback loops, which collectively enhance the speed and reliability of software delivery.

36
Q

DevOps, Kim et al. (DevOps Handbook)
Expert-Level Question
Q: How does DevOps integrate cultural transformation to ensure its success?

A

A: DevOps fosters a culture of shared responsibility, collaboration, and communication across teams, breaking down silos between development, operations, and other stakeholders. This is achieved through practices like blameless postmortems and cross-functional teams.

37
Q

DevOps, Kim et al. (DevOps Handbook)
Intermediate-Level Question (Additional)
Q: What role does monitoring and logging play in the feedback loop of DevOps?

A

A: Monitoring and logging provide real-time insights into system performance, enabling teams to detect issues early, understand their root causes, and continually improve both the product and processes.

38
Q

DevOps, Kim et al. (DevOps Handbook)
Advanced-Level Question (Additional)
Q: Explain the role of infrastructure as code (IaC) in the DevOps model.

A

A: IaC allows teams to manage and provision infrastructure through code, enabling version control, consistency, and repeatability. This aligns with DevOps principles by fostering automation, scalability, and faster deployment cycles.

39
Q

Network effects: Positive / Negative impacts, Parker et al,. 2006:
Basic-Level Question
Q: What are network effects?

A

A: Network effects occur when the value of a platform to a user increases or decreases based on the number of other users on the platform.

40
Q

Network effects: Positive / Negative impacts, Parker et al,. 2006:
Intermediate-Level Question
Q: What is the difference between positive and negative network effects?

A

A: Positive network effects enhance the value of a platform as more users join (e.g., more sellers on Amazon providing variety for buyers), while negative network effects reduce value due to overcrowding, congestion, or low-quality interactions (e.g., too many drivers on a ride-hailing app lowering earnings per driver).

41
Q

Network effects: Positive / Negative impacts, Parker et al,. 2006:
Advanced-Level Question
Q: How can platforms amplify positive network effects while mitigating negative ones?

A

A: Platforms can amplify positive effects by incentivizing user growth and increasing interactions (e.g., matchmaking algorithms) while mitigating negative effects through curation, quality control, and capacity management (e.g., Airbnb screening hosts or Uber managing driver-to-rider ratios).

42
Q

Network effects: Positive / Negative impacts, Parker et al,. 2006:
Expert-Level Question
Q: Explain how the interplay of cross-side and same-side network effects can influence platform success.

A

A: Cross-side network effects (e.g., more drivers attracting riders on Uber) typically fuel platform growth, but they must be balanced with same-side effects (e.g., avoiding too many drivers that reduce earnings or competition among sellers on Amazon) to sustain value creation for all participants.

43
Q

Project-management framework models, Wysocki 2010:
Basic-Level Question
Q: What are the five project-management models described by Wysocki (2010)?

A

A: The five models are Linear, Incremental, Iterative, Adaptive, and Extreme.

44
Q

Project-management framework models, Wysocki 2010:
Intermediate-Level Question
Q: How does the Linear project-management model function, and when is it most suitable?

A

A: The Linear model follows a sequential flow, where each phase is completed before moving to the next. It is best suited for projects with well-defined objectives and stable requirements.

45
Q

Project-management framework models, Wysocki 2010:
Advanced-Level Question
Q: What distinguishes the Incremental model from the Linear model in Wysocki’s framework?

A

A: The Incremental model divides the project into smaller deliverables that are completed and delivered in phases. Unlike the Linear model, it allows for partial results to be delivered and refined as the project progresses.

46
Q

Project-management framework models, Wysocki 2010:
Expert-Level Question
Q: Explain the purpose of the Iterative model and how it handles changing requirements.

A

A: The Iterative model cycles through phases multiple times, refining and improving with each iteration. It is designed to accommodate evolving requirements by incorporating feedback and learning into subsequent cycles.

47
Q

Project-management framework models, Wysocki 2010:
Intermediate-Level Question (Additional)
Q: What is the Adaptive model, and in what type of project environment is it most effective?

A

A: The Adaptive model is highly flexible and responds dynamically to rapid changes in project requirements or environments. It is most effective for complex, high-uncertainty projects, such as software development in a volatile market.

48
Q

Platform life-cycle metrics, Parker et al,. 2016:
Basic-Level Question
Q: What are the three stages of the platform life cycle as defined by Parker et al., 2016?

A

A: The three stages are Start-Up, Critical Mass, and Innovation.

49
Q

Platform life-cycle metrics, Parker et al,. 2016:
Intermediate-Level Question
Q: What is the focus of the Start-Up stage in the platform life cycle?

A

A: The Start-Up stage focuses on building initial traction by attracting early adopters, balancing supply and demand, and ensuring basic functionality to support value-creating interactions.

50
Q

Platform life-cycle metrics, Parker et al,. 2016:
Advanced-Level Question
Q: What defines the Critical Mass stage, and why is it significant in a platform’s growth?

A

A: The Critical Mass stage is defined by the establishment of robust network effects, where the platform reaches a sufficient user base that reinforces growth organically. It is significant because it signals the platform’s transition from survival to scaling.

51
Q

Platform life-cycle metrics, Parker et al,. 2016:
Expert-Level Question
Q: How does the Innovation stage ensure long-term platform sustainability?

A

A: In the Innovation stage, platforms focus on diversification, introducing new features, and leveraging user data to refine offerings, ensuring continued engagement and adaptability to changing market dynamics.

52
Q

Open and closed innovation, Chesbrough, 2011:
Basic-Level Question
Q: What is the primary difference between open and closed innovation?

A

A: Open innovation leverages external and internal ideas for innovation, while closed innovation relies solely on internal resources and knowledge.

53
Q

Open and closed innovation, Chesbrough, 2011:
Intermediate-Level Question
Q: What is a key advantage of open innovation over closed innovation?

A

A: Open innovation enables access to a broader pool of ideas, resources, and capabilities from outside the organization, increasing the potential for breakthrough innovations.

54
Q

Open and closed innovation, Chesbrough, 2011:
Advanced-Level Question
Q: How does the knowledge flow differ in open and closed innovation models?

A

A: In closed innovation, knowledge flows exclusively within the organization, while in open innovation, knowledge flows both into and out of the organization, enabling collaboration with external partners.

55
Q

Open and closed innovation, Chesbrough, 2011:
Expert-Level Question
Q: What are the potential risks associated with open innovation, and how can firms mitigate them?

A

A: Risks include intellectual property leakage and lack of alignment with external partners. Firms can mitigate these risks by establishing clear IP agreements, strategic governance frameworks, and building trust with partners.

56
Q

Intermediate-Level Question (Additional)
Q: How does the role of organizational boundaries differ in open and closed innovation?

A

A: In closed innovation, organizational boundaries are rigid, whereas open innovation emphasizes porous boundaries to allow collaboration with external stakeholders.

57
Q

Open and closed innovation, Chesbrough, 2011:
Advanced-Level Question (Additional)
Q: Provide an example of a company successfully utilizing open innovation and explain why it worked.

A

A: Procter & Gamble’s “Connect + Develop” strategy succeeded because it leveraged external partnerships for product ideas and innovations, enabling the company to bring new products to market faster while reducing R&D costs.

58
Q

Building blocks of the Lean startup framework, Gruber & Tal, 2017:
Basic-Level Question
Q: What are the three core building blocks of the Lean Startup framework?

A

A: The three core building blocks are Build, Measure, and Learn.

59
Q

Building blocks of the Lean startup framework, Gruber & Tal, 2017:
Intermediate-Level Question
Q: What is the purpose of the Build phase in the Lean Startup framework?

A

A: The Build phase involves creating a Minimum Viable Product (MVP) to test key hypotheses with minimal investment and effort.

60
Q

Building blocks of the Lean startup framework, Gruber & Tal, 2017:
Advanced-Level Question
Q: How does the Measure phase contribute to informed decision-making in the Lean Startup framework?

A

A: The Measure phase collects data on customer responses and behaviors, providing insights into whether the MVP meets user needs and validating or invalidating hypotheses.

60
Q

Building blocks of the Lean startup framework, Gruber & Tal, 2017:
Expert-Level Question
Q: Explain how the Learn phase drives iteration in the Lean Startup framework.

A

A: The Learn phase analyzes data from the Measure phase to determine whether to persevere, pivot, or stop. It focuses on turning feedback into actionable knowledge to refine the business model or product.

61
Q

Lean Start-up Process - Bocker & Snihur (2020)
Basic-Level Question
Q: What is the main objective of the Lean Start-Up process?

A

A: The main objective is to reduce uncertainty and risk in innovation by iteratively testing hypotheses and refining business models through customer feedback.

62
Q

Lean Start-up Process - Bocker & Snihur (2020)
Intermediate-Level Question
Q: What are the three stages of the Lean Start-Up process?

A

A: The three stages are Hypothesis Generation, Experimentation, and Scaling.

63
Q

Lean Start-up Process - Bocker & Snihur (2020)
Advanced-Level Question
Q: How does hypothesis generation shape the direction of a Lean Start-Up?

A

A: Hypothesis generation identifies key assumptions about customer needs, value propositions, and market viability, forming the basis for focused experiments.

64
Q

Lean Start-up Process - Bocker & Snihur (2020)
Expert-Level Question
Q: How does experimentation in the Lean Start-Up process align with business model innovation?

A

A: Experimentation involves building Minimum Viable Products (MVPs) to test assumptions. Insights from experiments lead to refining or pivoting the business model to achieve a better market fit.

65
Q

Choosing the Right Innovation Approach (Lakhani and King):
Basic-Level Question
Q: What are the two main approaches to innovation according to Lakhani and King?

A

A: The two main approaches are Open Innovation and Closed Innovation.

66
Q

Choosing the Right Innovation Approach (Lakhani and King):
Intermediate-Level Question
Q: When is Closed Innovation most appropriate?

A

A: Closed Innovation is most appropriate when a firm has strong internal R&D capabilities, tight intellectual property (IP) protection is required, and the market environment is relatively stable.

67
Q

Choosing the Right Innovation Approach (Lakhani and King):
Advanced-Level Question
Q: How does Open Innovation benefit firms in dynamic and rapidly changing markets?

A

A: Open Innovation allows firms to leverage external expertise, collaborate with diverse stakeholders, and access a larger pool of ideas, which helps adapt to rapid market changes and fosters breakthrough innovations.

68
Q

Choosing the Right Innovation Approach (Lakhani and King):
Expert-Level Question
Q: What criteria should firms consider when deciding between Open and Closed Innovation?

A

A: Firms should consider the complexity of the problem, the need for IP protection, the speed of market evolution, the availability of internal versus external resources, and the importance of stakeholder collaboration.

69
Q

Digital platforms & Operational backbone, Ross et al.:
Basic-Level Question
Q: What is the primary purpose of the operational backbone?

A

A: The operational backbone provides standardized, integrated systems, processes, and data to support core business operations with stability and efficiency.

70
Q

Digital platforms & Operational backbone, Ross et al.:
Intermediate-Level Question
Q: How does a digital platform differ from the operational backbone?

A

A: While the operational backbone focuses on reliability and scalability for core processes, the digital platform enables rapid innovation, experimentation, and the deployment of customer-facing digital offerings.

71
Q

Digital platforms & Operational backbone, Ross et al.:
Advanced-Level Question
Q: Why is it important to build the operational backbone before implementing a digital platform?

A

A: The operational backbone ensures a stable foundation by integrating key systems and processes, which supports the flexibility and adaptability needed for the digital platform to experiment and deliver new services.

72
Q

Digital platforms & Operational backbone, Ross et al.:
Expert-Level Question
Q: How do digital platforms and operational backbones work together to enable enterprise agility?

A

A: The operational backbone ensures stability and efficiency in core operations, while the digital platform drives innovation and adaptability, allowing organizations to respond to market changes without disrupting core processes.

73
Q

Digital platforms & Operational backbone, Ross et al.:
Intermediate-Level Question (Additional)
Q: What types of systems are typically part of the operational backbone?

A

A: Examples include Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) systems, customer databases, order management systems, and shared services that support standardized workflows.

74
Q

Digital platforms & Operational backbone, Ross et al.:
Advanced-Level Question (Additional)
Q: How do organizations use shared customer insights from a digital platform to enhance their operational backbone?

A

A: Shared customer insights, generated through analytics and experimentation on the digital platform, inform and improve operational processes, enabling better alignment with customer needs and driving continuous improvement.

75
Q

Accountability framework - key mechanisms, Ross et al,:
Basic-Level Question
Q: What is the primary goal of the accountability framework in organizations?

A

A: The accountability framework ensures alignment between individual actions, team goals, and organizational strategy, fostering clarity and responsibility across all levels.

76
Q

Accountability framework - key mechanisms, Ross et al,:
Intermediate-Level Question
Q: What are the three key mechanisms of the accountability framework?

A

A: The three key mechanisms are:
1) Defining clear roles and responsibilities,
2) Establishing decision rights
3) Implementing performance metrics.

77
Q

Accountability framework - key mechanisms, Ross et al,:
Advanced-Level Question
Q: How do decision rights contribute to effective governance in the accountability framework?.

A

A: Decision rights clarify who is responsible for making decisions in specific areas, reducing confusion and ensuring accountability, especially in cross-functional and distributed teams

78
Q

Accountability framework - key mechanisms, Ross et al,:
Expert-Level Question
Q: How does the accountability framework balance autonomy and alignment in an organization?

A

A: It empowers teams with autonomy by granting decision-making rights while ensuring alignment through shared goals, performance metrics, and transparent communication of responsibilities.

Value creation flashcards (3 decks)

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