Calcium Channel Blockers Flashcards

1
Q

What is the main determinant of the direction of ion flow through an ion channel?
(Concentration Gradient or Electrical Gradient)

A

Electrical gradient

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2
Q

Which ion is higher INSIDE the cell: K or Na?

A

K is higher inside the cell

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3
Q

Why is it important to keep Ca low inside the cell?

A

Ca functions in muscle contraction

-So it is important to keep Ca tightly regulated to prevent continuous muscle contraction

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4
Q

True or False: Negatively charged ions are able to cross the membrane

A

FALSE
-negatively charged ions cannot cross the membrane
-basis for potassium and chloride

(potassium and chloride typically balance out charges across the membrane, however, when K moves, Chloride cannot follow and the charge is not balanced)

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5
Q

What is the function of sodium channels?

A

Run opposite potassium channels

-Sodium increase and movement through channels is used to cause depolarization and action potentials

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6
Q

What is Kcsa?

A

A H+ gated K+ channel from bacteria

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7
Q

What is MthK?

A

A calcium gated K channel from bactria

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8
Q

What is the function of a voltage sensor in a K channel?

A

The voltage sensor has positively charged amino acids that allow for responses to voltage changes across the membrane

-The voltage sensor moving pulls the helix away to open the channel

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9
Q

Which calcium channel blocker is important for cardiac smooth muscle contraction?

A

Cav 1.2

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10
Q

What calcium channel blocker is important in the skeletal muscle?

A

Cav 1.1

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11
Q

When calcium channel blockers such as Cav 1.1 block channels in the vascular smooth muscle, what does this cause?

A

Vasodilation

-decrease in blood pressure
-relief of angina pectoris

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12
Q

When calcium blockers such as Cav 1.2 block channels in the cardiac muscle, what is the result?

A

Antiarrhythmic

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13
Q

What is the function of the ryanodine receptor 2 (RYR2)?

A

Membrane depolarization opens calcium channels which allows calcium into the cell where it binds RYR2

-RYR2 opens after binding and functions as a calcium channel which allows calcium to be released out of its intracellular stores in the SR

-The release of calcium from the SR triggers contraction

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14
Q

What is the result of PKA phosphorylation of Cav 1.2?

A

Increases calcium influx

(increasing contraction force and AV node action potential conduction rate)

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15
Q

Extracellular Ca is responsible for contraction of what muscle?

A

Vascular Smooth Muscle

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16
Q

What is the mechanism by which calcium released from the SE is able to produce contraction?

A

Ca bind to troponin C

This causes a displacement of tropomyosin

This allows myosin to bind to actin

Resulting in contraction

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17
Q

Is extracellular Ca required for skeletal muscle contraction?

A

NO

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18
Q

What are the indications for calcium channel blockers?

A

Angina Pectoris

Arrhythmia

Hypertension

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19
Q

What are the 3 classes of calcium channel blockers?

A

Dihydropyridines

Phenylalkylamines

Benzothiazepines

20
Q

Which dihydropyridine blocker does not have a chiral center?

A

Nifedipine

21
Q

Which calcium diydropyridine has the highest affinity for the calcium channel?

A

Isradipine

22
Q

Which dihydropyridine has a slow onset of action?

A

Amlodipine

*is a good thing, blocking channels too quickly can throw off the heart

23
Q

Which calcium dihydropyridine is hydrophobic and used in hemorrhage?

A

Nimodipine

24
Q

Which calcium dihydropyridine is given IV to treat hypertension when PO drugs cannot be used?

A

Clevidipine

25
How do the positive and negative enantiomers of dihydropyridines effect gating?
+ enantiomer interferes with gate opening, blocks current - enantiomer interferes with gate closing, potentiates
26
What tissue are dihydropyridines more selective for?
Smooth muscle
27
Due to the selectivity of dihydropyridines, how does this contribute to their effects?
-Do not compromise cardiac function -Not antiarrhythmics
28
At what membrane potential are dihydropyridines more potent?
Positive values
29
Where do dihydropyridines bind on the calcium channel?
On the outside, between helices that are needed for the channel to open *Bind closed channels and prevent opening (tonic block)
30
What are some special considerations with Nimodipine use?
-Selective for cerebral arteries -Used in sub-arachnoid hemorrhage to prevent neuropathy
31
Which dihydropyridine depresses cardiac function?
Nifedipine
32
What are some important pharmacological factors of dihydropyridines?
-Highly bound to serum proteins -Undergo first pass metabolism in the liver
33
What warnings are associated with Nifedipine rapid release?
DO NOT USE -increased risk of myocardial infarction -Rapid BP decrease can cause tachycardia
34
What is the only drug in the phenylalkylamine class?
Verapamil
35
Is Verapamil more or less potent than dihydropyridines?
Less potent
36
What are some important effects of Verapamil?
-Slows conduction through the SA and AV nodes (sometimes good, sometimes bad) Blunts reflex tachycardia Exhibits frequency dependent block
37
Where does verapamil bind on the calcium channel?
In the pore *blocks Ca influx *Channel must be open for drug to bind (frequency dependent block)
38
What drug is the only benzothiazepine?
Diltiazem
39
Is diltiazem more or less potent than dihydropyridines?
Less potent
40
How does diltiazem work?
It directly inhibits the heart (less than verapamil, but more than DHPs)
41
What kind of block does diltiazem use?
Frequency dependent block with some tonic block
42
Where does diltiazem bind on the calcium channel?
Binds on the side but some of it projects into the pore (shows both tonic and frequency dependent block)
43
What are the significant side effects of dihydropyridines?
Ankle edema Facial flushing (vasodilator) Tachycardia
44
What are the significant side effects of diltiazem?
Ankle edema
45
What are the significant side effects of verapamil?
Ankle edema Constipation