Calcium and Bone Flashcards

1
Q

autoimmune polyendocrine syndrome type 1:

clinical features?

A

need 2 out of the 3 of the following: -primary hypoparathyroidism -chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis -autoimmune adrenal insufficiency

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2
Q

What diabetes medications are associated with increased fracture risk in patients with type 2 diabetes?

A

pioglitazone and canagliflozin

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3
Q

Treatment with recombinant human PTH 1-34 (teriparatide), an anabolic agent

  1. What is the marker of bone turnover? What is the expected change after starting and stopping treatment?
  2. Do the effects of teriparatide persist after stopping therapy?
A
  1. osteocalcin.
  • After starting treatment, osteocalcin increases
  • After stopping treatment, it decreases
  1. NO.
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4
Q

teriparatide is contraindicated in a patient who has received prior?

A

irradiation therapy

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5
Q

Case: 60 yo man with muscle and bone pain, fatigue, weakness, spontaneous fractures, and difficulty walking, low DXA scores. 1. what to measure? 2. common biochemical finding?

A
  1. FGF23. It causes renal tubular loss of phosphate and inhibits 1alpha-hydroxylase (and low 1,25-dihydroxy vitamin D)
  2. low 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D levels
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6
Q

In patients with pathogenic variants in the CYP24A1 gene (a rare cause of non PTH-mediated hypercalcemia), what are the common findings (3)?

A

LOW 24,25-dihydroxyvitamin D, hypercalcemia, and kidney stones, elevated 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D

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7
Q

autoimmune polyendocrine syndrome type 2:

clinical features?

A

Addison disease + either T1DM or autoimmune thyroid failure, or both

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8
Q

Within the first 6 months after liver transplant, what happens to BMD?

A

there is a significant decline in bone mineral density. The high-turnover state documented after liver transplant is thought to be due to a combination of factors, including resolution of the liver disease, use of glucocorticoid therapy, and the development of secondary hyperparathyroidism due to possible renal effects of the immunosuppressant therapy. This is in contrast to the decreased bone formation and low turnover typically seen before liver transplant.

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9
Q

Oncogenic osteomalacia: Lab findings?

A

Very low 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D due to suppression by FGF23 (which is HIGH)

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10
Q

TRUE or FALSE: Vertebral fractures are strong independent predictors of both future vertebral and nonvertebral fractures

A

TRUE an acute vertebral compression fracture warrants intervention with antiresorptive therapy regardless of the DXA results

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11
Q
  1. a urinary calcium-to-creatinine ratio <0.01 is consistent with a diagnosis of?
  2. what is the caveat?
  3. A patient with no identifiable CASR pathogenic variants and clinical concern for FHH should be tested for?
A
  1. FHH
  2. patients must be vitamin D replete ( >20 ng/ml) with good renal function for the collection to be interpretable
  3. GNA11 and AP2S1 genetic testing
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12
Q
  1. If a patient has Paget disease, what is the next imaging modality to use?
  2. For Paget disease, what are the classic biochemical findings?
  3. If a patient has multiple myeloma, what is the next imaging modality to use?
A
  1. bone scan
  2. Elevated ALK PHOS and elevated Urinary N-telopeptide
  3. skeletal survey
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13
Q

What imaging will be able to determine the age of a vertebral fracture for 1-2 years after a fracture?

A

nuclear medicine bone scan

(alk pho = 6-12 mos)

(MRI = 2-3 mos)

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14
Q

TRUE or FALSE

In primary hyperparathyroidism, PTH facilitates the conversion of 25-OHD to 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D, and up to 25% of patients have frankly elevated 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D levels

A

TRUE

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15
Q

In young patients < 30 yo who present with primary hyperparathyroidism, what do you screen for?

A

MEN1 pathogenic variants -hereditary syndromes should be suspected in anyone with a personal history of other endocrine tumors (especially pancreatic or pituitary) or a family history of parathyroid disease -others include: MEN2, MEN4, and hyperparathyroidism-jaw tumor syndrome

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16
Q

A rare complication of Paget disease is?

A

the transformation of the pagetoid bone into malignant osteosarcoma.

*Sarcoma should be suspected when new pain and swelling develop in a previously affected bone

17
Q

The most consistent benefit of bisphosphonate therapy in affected adults with osteogenesis imperfecta (COL1A1/COL1A2) is?

A

increased bone mineral density

18
Q

A number of studies have shown that patients who are overweight or obese require much [?] dosages of vitamin D than normal-weight participants to achieve adequate levels

A

higher Obese patients are estimated to require 2 to 3 times the usual daily dose of cholecalciferol to achieve adequate levels. The mechanism is not well understood.

19
Q

in what conditions would PTH expected to be suppressed?

A

granulomatous disease, calcitriol toxicity, humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy

20
Q

Vitamin-D resistant rickets:

  1. characteristics?
  2. What is the key to distinguishing vitamin D-resistant rickets from other forms of rickets?
  3. In true vitamin D-DEFICIENT (not resistant) rickets, what level is 25-hydroxyvitamin D?
A
  1. low serum calcium, low serum phosphate, HIGH PTH, normal 25-hydroxyvitamin D levels
  2. measure 1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D: can be LOW or UNDETECTABLE in pathogenic variant in the gene encoding 1alpha-hydroxylase enzyme, but HIGH in the gene encoding the vitamin D receptor (aka true vitamin D-resistant rickets)
  3. too low to be measured
21
Q

adynamic bone disease, a type of renal osteodystrophy (now called chronic kidney disease-mineral bone density disorder or CKD-MBD), is present in at least 1/3 of?

A

patients receiving dialysis

22
Q

What percentages are considered to be the least significant change in the following sites in clinical DXA studies?

  1. total hip
  2. femoral neck
A
  1. 2.8%
  2. 5%
23
Q

autoimmune polyendocrine syndrome type 3:

clinical features?

A

autoimmune thyroid disease and autoimmune disorders other than Addison disease or hypoparathyroidism More common: nonendocrine autoimmune diseases - Sjogren syndrome, alopecia areata

24
Q
  1. In patients with multiple stone episodes who have already increased their fluid intake, what is the best treatment?
  2. the goal is to aim for urine volume greater than?
A

1) HCTZ (enhances renal calcium reabsorption to reduce urinary calcium excretion), citrate supplements (citrate acts as a stone inhibitor) 2) 2.5 L per day

25
Q

In a patient with elevated PTH despite normal 25-OH vitamin D and serum calcium levels, what should be suspected?

A

calcium deficiency. Therefore, measure 24-hour urinary calcium excretion.