CAE A330 Type Rating Quizes Flashcards

1
Q

Power plant

In terms of N3, the start valve closure value is above ________

A

50%

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2
Q

Power plant

The EPR commanded by FADEC is displayed via a _____ needle and a _____ triangle next to the needle indicates the director of EPR tendency. The symbols are shown when _____ is active.

A

Green/ green/ the Autothrust

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3
Q

Power plant

The Engine Interface Unit or EIR transmits data to the _______.

A

FADEC

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4
Q

Power plant

If N2 exceeds _____%, the indication becomes ______ and a ______ appears beside it, which disappears after a new start on the ground.

A

103.3 / red/ red cross

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5
Q

Power plant

ECAM procedures require that:

A

Any Master Warning or Master Caution is cancelled first, then the title of the abnormal is read out TO the pilot flying.

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6
Q

Power plant

During reverse operation, thrust is controlled as a function of:

A

N1

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7
Q

Power plant

Fuel in the tank is fed to each engine via:

A

Main Engine pump, Fuel/oil heat exchanger, Fuel Metering Unit (FMU) and Fuel nozzles.

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8
Q

Power plant

The FADEC system has redundancy of ___ channels.

A

2 channel redundancy, with one channel active and one standby.

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9
Q

Power plant

N3 pertains to:

A

High-speed rotor.

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10
Q

Power plant

FADEC computes the command EPR as a function of:

A

Altitude, Mach number, and Thrust Lever Angle.

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11
Q

APU

After 3 consecutive start attempts, a ______ cooling interval must be observed before the next start.

A

60 mins.

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12
Q

APU

The APU is normally started:

A

When the aircraft is at the gate, supplied by external power.

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13
Q

APU

After the APU is started, the APU ECAM page remains displayed:

A

Approx 15 seconds.

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14
Q

APU

Maximum rotor speed (N) for the APU is:

A

107%

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15
Q

APU

If an APU fire is detected on the ground:

A

An APU automatic shut down and agent discharge will occur.

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16
Q

APU

APU Emergency shutdown occurs when the following is pressed:

A

APU fire pb
APU shut off pb
APU EMER Shut down pb

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17
Q

APU

APU automatic shutdown may occur under various non-normal conditions. The conditions include:

A

Start abort,
low oil pressure
high oil temperature

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18
Q

APU

The APU bleed valve is automatically closed:

A

Above 25,000 ft climbing and reopens at 23,000 ft when descending.

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19
Q

APU

When the APU start sequence is completed:

A

On the ECAM APU pg, AVAIL appears. On the APU start pb sw ON extinguishes and AVAIL illuminates.

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20
Q

APU

On the ground, the APU provides bleed air for:

A

Engine starting and the air conditioning system.

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21
Q

Fuel

Choose the correct statement:

  1. Fuel is stored in the wings, centre section and Trimmable Horizontal Stabiliser.
  2. Fuel is stored in two wing tanks and the tail tank only.
  3. The Wings each have an inner and outer tank.
  4. Fuel is stored in the wings, centre section and Trimmable Horizontal Stabiliser and the wings each have an inner and outer tank.
A

Fuel is stored in the wings, centre section and Trimmable Horizontal Stabiliser and the wings each have an inner and outer tank.

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22
Q

Fuel

In automatic mode, fuel jettison begins when:

A

The crew selects the JETTISON ARM and ACTIVE pbs to ON.

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23
Q

Fuel

During ELEC EMER CONFIG, the aircraft is electrically powered by the EMER GEN which is powered by the RAT. Which is true?

A

The crossed valve automatically opens and the L2 pump remains powered.

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24
Q

Fuel

Each FCMC calculates fuel quantity by using fuel volume, fuel density, horizontal stabiliser angle and fuel electrical characteristics. What else is required to calculate fuel quantity?

A

Aircraft attitude.

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25
Q

Fuel

Refuelling / defueling can be supplied either by:

A

External power
The APU generator on line
The batteries.

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26
Q

Fuel

When both side couplings are used, refuelling time at maximum pressure of _____ psi is approximately ______ minutes.

A

50 / 33

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27
Q

Fuel

The REFUEL END light flashes when refuelling is aborted, the high level test is negative or when there is an imbalance of greater than _____ after refuelling.

A

3000kg (6620 lb)

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28
Q

Fuel

The FCMC’s calculate the aircraft’s GW and GWCG based on the:

A

ZFWCG and ZFW entered by the crew.

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29
Q

Fuel

Which statement is correct?

  1. Only the main fuel pumps can supply the engines.
  2. Two main fuel pumps are needed to supply both engines.
  3. At least one main fuel pump and one standby pump are required to supply both engines.
  4. A main or standby fuel pump can supply any engine.
A

A main or standby fuel pump can supply any engine.

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30
Q

Fuel

The main fuel pump system supplies fuel from the inner tanks to the engines. In each wing are:

A

Two main fuel pumps and one standby fuel pump.

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31
Q

Fire Protection

The cargo compartment smoke detection system has two ionisation-type smoke detectors on a ______ loop system.

A

Dual

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32
Q

Fire Protection

If one continuous engine fire and overheat detection loop is inoperative:

A

The other loop will continue to operate.

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33
Q

Fire protection

Avionics bay fire and overheat signals automatically discharge:

A

Neither water from A/C potable water supply or Halon from APU extinguisher bottle. There is no fire suppression.

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34
Q

Fire protection

Fire bottle discharge for the cargo compartment is:

A

Manually controlled by the crew

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35
Q

Fire protection

The cargo compartment is monitored for smoke by the:

A

Smoke Detection Control unit.

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36
Q

Fire protection

Lifting the guard and pressing an engine FIRE pb releases it to the out position. This action causes the followingL

A
  1. Silences the CRC & arm the fire extinguisher squibs.
  2. Closes the low-pressure fuel, hydraulic fire shut off, engine bleed and pack flow control valves.
  3. Removes power to the FADEC and deactivates the IDG.
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37
Q

Fire protection

When a break is detected in both loops within a _____ second period, a fire warning will be triggered.

A

5 secs

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38
Q

Fire protection

Each engine and the APU have _____ continuous fire and overheat gas detection loops.

A

Two

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39
Q

Fire protection

When avionics bay smoke is detected, the ECAM SMOKE AVNCS VENT SMOKE warning is triggered and:

A

Both the CRC sound, the MASTER WARN light flashes and the SMOKE light illuminates red on the overhead ventilation panel.

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40
Q

Fire protection

The fire extinguishing system bottles for each engine has two squibs to discharge the agent. Each squib has ______ electrical supply.

A

Dual

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41
Q

Hydraulic

The ECAM message HYD RAT FAULT means?

A

The RAT has been deployed on the ground and maintenance must be called to re-stow the RAT.

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42
Q

Hydraulic

The A330 has how many colour identified hydraulic systems?

A

3

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43
Q

Hydraulic

Normal system operating pressure is ______ psi and RAT powered system pressure is _______ psi?

A

3000 and 2500

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44
Q

Hydraulic

Before lifting the guard on any switch or control, the PM must:

A

Confirm the selection with the PF and then raise the guard.

45
Q

Hydraulic

The green system electric pump can be controlled:

A

Manually or automatically.

46
Q

Flight controls

An abnormal attitude law in pitch and roll is provided if the A/C is in flight and which of the following occurs:

A
  1. Pitch > 50 nose up or >30 nose down.
  2. Bank angle > 125 and/or speed > 440 its or < 60kts
  3. AOA >30 or <-10
47
Q

Flight controls

In normal turns up to ______ degrees of bank, no pitch correction is required by the pilot.

A

33

48
Q

Flight controls

The A330 has five Flight Control Computers (FCCs); three PRIM and two SEC. How many FCCs are required to control the aircraft and ensure safe flight?

A

One computer of either type.

49
Q

Flight controls

Once the A/C is flying the required trajectory, or flight path, the side stick ______. Control inputs are made to change the flight path, no maintain it.

A

can be released to its neutral position, and the A/C will maintain 1g.

50
Q

Flight controls

Auto-retraction of flaps occurs in case of VFE exceedance of ________

A

VFE + 2.5kt

51
Q

Flight controls

When both side sticks are moved in the same or opposite direction:

A

The surface movement is proportional to the algebraic sum of the deflection software both side sticks.

52
Q

Flight controls

Max bank angle is _______ degrees. If AOA protection is active or High Speed Protection is operative, the bank angle is limited to _______ degrees

A

67 / 45

53
Q

Flight controls

Pitch attitude is limited to _____ degrees nose up, progressively reduce to _______ degrees at low speed, and is limited to ______ degrees nose down.

A

30 / 25 / 15

54
Q

Flight controls

When CONF 1+F is selected, auto-retraction of flaps to 0 occurs at _____ kts

A

200 kts

55
Q

Flight controls

The spoiler panels on each wing are used for:

A
  1. Ground spoilers (all 6 on each wing)
  2. Speedbrakes (all 6 on each wing)
  3. Roll control (spoilers 2-6 on each wing)
56
Q

Landing Gear

The two position landing gear selector lever sends an electrical signal to the ________, which control green hydraulic supply by means of __________.

A

LGCIU 1 and 2 / selector valves

57
Q

Landing Gear

The LGCIU sequence the:

A

Control and gear lever selection.

58
Q

Landing Gear

Before pushback or engine start, check the memo display for:

A

A nosewheel steering disc message (“N/WS DIS” in green)

59
Q

Landing Gear

The accumulators provide enough pressure for a minimum of _____ full brake applications.

A

7

60
Q

Landing Gear

Alternate braking with anti skid is active when:

A

Blue system pressure is available.

61
Q

Landing Gear

If green system hydraulic pressure fails, the _____ system automatically takes over and powers the brakes. Antiskid _______. Nosewheel steering _______.

A

blue / remains available / is lost

62
Q

Landing Gear

If the brakes start to lock-up:

A

The normal and alternate servo valves open.

63
Q

Landing Gear

Braking functions are:

A

Antiskid, Autobraking, Normal braking, Alternate braking

64
Q

Landing Gear

To arm the auto brake system, how many air data inertial reference units and flight control primary computers are required to be operational?

A

One / Two

65
Q

Landing Gear

Via the pilot’s steering hand wheel, the nose wheel can be turned up to _____ degrees either side.

A

72

66
Q

Pneumatics

Pneumatic system operations is controlled and monitored by:

A

2 BMC

67
Q

Pneumatics

High pressure air for the pneumatic system is supplied from:

A

Engine bleed air system, APU load compressor, 2 HP ground connections.

68
Q

Pneumatics

In case of an APU leak signal:

A
  1. APU bleed valve auto-close
  2. FAULT light illuminates in the APU BLEED pb
  3. crossbreed valve auto close.
69
Q

Pneumatics

The two BMC supply information to the ECAM and Central Maintenance Computer, true or false?

A

true

70
Q

Pneumatics

What are the uses for HP pneumatic air?

A
  1. engine starting and hydraulic reservoir pressurisation.
  2. air conditioning and wing anti-icing.
  3. water pressurisation and pack bay ventilation turbofan actuation.
71
Q

Pneumatics

The crossbreed valve is provided with two electric motors:

A

one for auto mode, the other for manual mode.

72
Q

Pneumatics

If the engine bleed valve closes, the HP valve:

A

closes automatically

73
Q

Pneumatics

Pneumatic system operation is controlled and monitored by:

A

2 BMC

74
Q

Pneumatics

With the APU speed greater than 95% and the APU BLEED pb sw selected ON, which of the following occurs:

A
  1. APU bleed valve opens
  2. crossbreed valve opens
  3. ON indication in the APU BLEED pb illuminates.
75
Q

Pneumatics

During a crossbreed engine start, to provide air for starting ENG 2, the crossbreed valve is manually selected OPEN. True / False?

A

True

76
Q

Air Conditioning

The trim air valves optimised the temperature by:

A

Adding hot air

77
Q

Air Conditioning

The pack controllers control the pack outlet temperature via the:

A

Ram air heat exchanger inlet/outlet flaps, temperature control valves.

78
Q

Air Conditioning

The mixer unit is connected to:

A

Packs, cabin air, emergency ram air inlet, low pressure ground connector

79
Q

Air Conditioning

The forward cargo compartment inlet air can be heated by:

A

Trim air ducted upstream of PACK 1

80
Q

Air Conditioning

Cargo compartment ventilation and heating is controlled by:

A

Cargo ventilation controller, dual channel

81
Q

Air Conditioning

Temperature selectors are available for the following zones:

A

BULK, FWD, COCKPIT, CABIN

82
Q

Air Conditioning

The amber FAULT light in a PACK pb sw will illuminate for:

A
  1. Valve disagreement
  2. Pack outlet overheat
  3. Pack compressor overheat
83
Q

Air Conditioning

The pack flow control valve will close automatically if the:

A
  1. Engine start
  2. Associated engine fire pb sw is pressed.
  3. Ditching pb is selected on.
83
Q

Air Conditioning

The trim air valves are controlled by:

A

Zone controller

84
Q

Air Conditioning

The aircraft air conditioning system is controlled by:

A

Two pack controllers, one zone controller

85
Q

Pressurisation

With the guard MAN VALVE SEL in the AFT position, the:

A

FWD valve remains under automatic control

86
Q

Pressurisation

In Semi-automatic Mode, the pilot sets:

A

The landing field elvation

87
Q

Pressurisation

On the ECAM CAB PRESS page the cabin altitude indication changes from green to red when the cabin altitude is:

A

> 9550 ft

88
Q

Pressurisation

When LDG ELEV is set to AUTO, the landing elevation is sent to the active cabin pressure controller from the:

A

FMGS

89
Q

Pressurisation

When the MOD SEL pb sw is set to MAN, the outflow valves are controlled by signals sent via:

A

The MAN V/S CTL toggle sw

90
Q

Ventilation

Pack Bay ventilation occurs:

A

On the ground and in the flight.

91
Q

Ventilation

For ventilation the Lavatory and Galley Ventilation system uses:

A

Cabin air

92
Q

Ventilation

The avionics ventilation system cools the:

A

Electrical and electronic components in the electronic bay and flight deck

93
Q

Ice and rain

Electrical heating is provided for the protection of:

A

Pitot, Static, TAT and AOA

94
Q

Ice and rain

Bleed air for the engine anti-ice comes from

A

HP turbine

95
Q

Ice and rain

The maximum speed to use the windshield wipers is:

A

230kts

96
Q

Ice and rain

When ENG ANTI-ICE is selected ON

A

Continuous ignition is automatically activated if EIU is inoperative

97
Q

Ice and rain

Slats protected by hot air supplied from the Pneumatic system are:

A

4 outboard leading-edge slats

98
Q

Oxygen

CKPT OXY becomes amber when system pressure goes below:

A

300psi

99
Q

Oxygen

The CREW SUPPLY switch on the overhead panel controls what?

A

Supply solenoid valve

100
Q

Oxygen

The high-pressure cylinder for the A330 oxygen system is located where?

A

in the lower left fuselage

101
Q

Oxygen

REGUL LO PR is displayed in amber on the ECAM DOR/OXY page if oxygen pressure drops to 50 psi or lower on what?

A

the lower pressure circuit

102
Q

Oxygen

If the cabin altitude exceeds _______, the mask air inlet closes and the pilot breathes 100% oxygen.

A

35,000 ft

103
Q

Lights

in the AUTO position, the fasten seat belt sign and the return to your seat sign illuminate:

A

When the landing gear is extended and the slats are extended to position 1,2,3, or full

104
Q

Lights

When operating on battery power only, switching the dome light ON

A

Turns on the right hand dome light only.

105
Q

Lights

With the switch in any position, the exit signs will illuminate in the event of excessive cabin altitude. True / false?

A

True

106
Q

Lights

Setting the STORM position on the INT LT panel:

A

Set the dome lights and main instrument panel light to their maximum brightness.

107
Q

Lights

In the AUTO position, the strobe light come on:

A