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CA Boards Flashcards

1
Q

The heartworm antigen test detects what?

  • Microfilaria
  • Male worm
  • Female adult worm capsule antigen
  • L3
A

Female adult worm capsule antigen

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2
Q

To differentiate pituitary dependent hyperadrenocorticism from adrenal tumor, what test should you use?

  • ACTH stimulation
  • Urine creatinine
  • Low dose dexamethasone suppression
  • High dose dexamethasone suppression
A

High dose dexamethasone suppression

  • Suppresses plasma cortisol concentrations in most dogs with pituitary dependent hyperadrenocorticism
  • Fails to suppress plasma cortisol concentrations in animals with adrenal-dependent hyperadrenocoriticism
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3
Q

A woman brings a litter of Dalmatian puppies to your clinic. How do you check if they are deaf?

  • BAER test
  • ELISA snap test
  • Throw cotton ball in front of it
  • Clap hands in front of it
A

BAER Test

The hearing test known as the brainstem auditory evoked response (BAER) or brainstem auditory evoked potential (BAEP) detects electrical activity in the cochlea and auditory pathways in the brain in much the same way that an antennadetects radio or TV signals or an EKG detects electrical activity of the heart.

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4
Q

Performing an orchiectomy in a rabbit is dangerous because:

  • Increased risk of hemorrhage compared to dogs/cats
  • Increased risk of herniation due to open inguinal rings
  • Increased anesthetic needed for sedation
A

Increased risk of herniation due to open inguinal rings

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5
Q

What drug can you use for parasite control in reptiles?

  • Ivermectin
  • Praziquantal
  • Pyrantel
  • Organophosphates
A

Ivermectin

  • Don’t use ivermectin in turtles or tortoises (Chelonians)
  • Can also use fenbendazole
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6
Q

Horse with myositis from IM injection. What besides C. difficile causes myositis?

  • Staphylococcus spp.
  • Streptococcus spp.
  • Clostridium novyi
  • Clostridium hemolyticum
A

Clostridium novyi

  • Also C. difficile, perfringens, and chauvoei
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7
Q

A horse has increased lacrimation, blepharospasm, episcleral injection, corneal edema and photophobia. There is no uptake of flourescein dye. What is the most likely differential?

  • Uveitis
  • Entropion
  • Glaucoma
  • Corneal ulcer
A

Uveitis

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8
Q

What are the recommendations for tetanus vaccination in older horses?

  • Vaccinate when wounded
  • Vaccinate infrequently because older horses have an increased sensitivity to vaccine
  • Vaccinate yearly
  • Vaccinate semi-annually
A

Vaccinate yearly

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9
Q

Ivermectin is ineffective against which parasite?

  • Anoplocephala
  • Parascaris
  • Strongyles
  • Cyanthosotomes
A

Anoplocephala (equine tapeworm)

  • Ivermectin is effective against pretty much everything but NOT TAPEWORMS
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10
Q

To perform an emergency tracheotomy in a horse, you should:

  • Make a horizontal incision through an annular ligament
  • Make a horizontal incision through a cartilage ring
  • Make a vertical incision through 2 cartilage rings
  • Make a 2cm horizontal window in trachea
A

Make a horizontal incision through an annular ligament

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11
Q

In a mare with a uterine torsion, you will:

  • See right flank swelling
  • See left flank swelling
  • Visualize twisted vagina/cervix
  • Feel broad ligament over uterus
A

Feel broad ligament over uterus

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12
Q

Which anesthesia should you not use in a horse?

  • Xylazine, ketamine, diazepam
  • Atropine, acepromazine, halothane
  • Dobutamine, guaifenesin
  • Dobutamine, ketamine, diazepam
A

Atropine, acepromazine, halothane

  • Don’t use atropine and ace together!
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13
Q

Pony presents with signs of COPD. Pony spends most of time in stall but is out on pasture 2 days a week. What recommendations do you give the owner?

  • Stall confinement
  • Put out to pasture and feed wet hay/pelleted food
  • Change bedding, keep in stall
  • Put out to pasture a little more and switch to grass feed
A

Put out to pasture and feed wet hay/pelleted food

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14
Q

A pony with COPD is kept in a wooden barn and has access to pasture twice a week. Besides medication, how else would you treat?

  • Dirt paddock, baled hay, regular exercise
  • Pasture 50%, hay in open manger, regular exercise
  • Pasture, wet down feed or pelleted feed, limited exercise initially
  • Keep in barn, sun-cured baled hay, limited exercise initially
A

Pasture, wet down feed or pelleted feed, limited exercise initially

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15
Q

What is the cause of synchronous diaphragmatic flutters?

  • Electrolyte and acid/base imbalances
  • Hypoglycemia
  • Exercise induced
A

Electrolyte and acid/base imbalances

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16
Q

When should you move a mare to a different farm before foaling in order for the mare to develop Ig to the local pathogens?

  • 4-6 weeks
  • 8-10 weeks
  • 12-14 weeks
  • 16-18 weeks
A

4-6 weeks

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17
Q

When should artificial lighting program begin in order to achieve the best ovulation in a horse?

  • December 1
  • March 1
  • 30 days before ovulating
A

December 1st

(8-10 weeks before breeding season)

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18
Q

A horse with vesicles around mouth, what should you do?

  • Call local public health vet
  • Call state vet
  • Give antibiotics
  • Quarantine
A

Call state vet

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19
Q

A 12 year old barren mare has purulent vaginal discharge. Which of the following is contraindicated for diagnosis?

  • Abdominocentesis
  • Transrectal ultrasound
  • Endometrial cytology and culture
  • Vaginal and cervical exam with speculum
A

Abdominocentesis

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20
Q

You can get the best view while performing an equine oral exam if you use a(n):

A

Full mouth speculum

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21
Q

When do you administer prostaglandin to a cow and when will she come into estrus?

A

When she has an active CL

Will come into estrus in 3-7 days

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22
Q

Where would you take a pulse in the horse?

  • External carotid, lateral thoracic, median
  • Facial, femoral, external carotid
  • Median, external iliac, digital
  • Facial, digital, metatarsal
A

Facial, digital, metatarsal

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23
Q

What is an RVT not allowed to do in CA?

  • Place a cast
  • Take a skin punch biopsy
  • Suture a pre-existing incision
  • Induce anesthesia
A

Take a skin punch biopsy

RVTs can induce anesthesia, apply casts/splints, dental extractions, suture, and place catheters

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24
Q

How do you diagnose mammary hyperplasia in cats?

A

Punch biopsy

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25
Q

Horse with history of gradual, persistent weight loss. Which is not important to ask owner?

  • History of colic
  • Oleander exposure
  • Deworming history
A

Oleander exposure

Oleander is acute! The other 2 are very important to ask.

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26
Q

Which can you feel on normal rectal palpation of horse with abdominal discomfort?

  • Urinary bladder, spleen, base of cecum
  • Urinary bladder, transverse colon, apex of cecum
  • Stomach, transverse colon, base of cecum
  • Stomach, spleen, base of cecum
A

Urinary bladder, spleen, base of cecum

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27
Q

Three year old horse with bilateral, mandibular symmetrical, non-painful swellings. What is it?

  • Tooth root abscess
  • Dental caries
  • Permanent tooth eruption
  • Interdental feed impaction
A

Permanent tooth eruption

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28
Q

What do you do when a horse that you are treating with TMS becomes anorexic and develops diarrhea?

  • Stop TMS, CBC, IV fluids, banamine, oral adsorbents, endotoxin treatment (banamine + plasma)
  • Continue TMS, CBC, banamine
  • Stop TMS, chemistry, Bute
  • Continue TMS, chemistry, Bute
A

Stop TMS, CBC, IV fluids, banamine, oral adsorbents, endotoxin treatment (banamine + plasma)

TMS causes typhocolitis

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29
Q

Yearling is being fed diet consisting of 8% protein, 0.6% Ca, and 0.1% phosphorus. This diet is:

  • Adequate in protein and Ca:P
  • Deficient in protein, but adequate in Ca:P
  • Adequate in protein, but deficient in Ca:P
  • Deficient in protein and Ca:P
A

Deficient in protein and Ca:P

  • Protein= 14-16%
  • Ca= 1%
  • P= 0.75%
  • Ca:P= 3:1
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30
Q

An 8 year old Warmblood presents with signs of colic. You are unable to perform a rectal exam, abdominocentesis, or gastric reflux. What drugs would you use?

  • Xylazine and acepromazine
  • Xylazine and butorphanol
  • Detomidine and atropine
  • Ketamine and valium
A

Xylazine and butorphanol

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31
Q

A 2 year old Quarterhorse shows signs of intermittent muscle fasciculations, weakness, recumbency, facial spasms. These signs are reduced following administration of IV Calcium gluconate, Bicarb, dextrose. What changes would you make to the diet?

  • Increase protein, decrease carbohydrates, supplement with Ca, P and molasses
  • Acetazolamide, vitamin supplementation
  • Feed more beet pulp
  • Decrease alfalfa, increase timothy hay, put out to pasture, feed often, exercise frequently
A

Decrease alfalfa, increase timothy hay, put out to pasture, feed often, exercise frequently

(HYPP)

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32
Q

A 24 hr-old white foal was normal at birth, but has not passed any feces and is now inappetent. What do you do?

  • Euthanize immediately
  • Give mineral oil
  • Perform a pelvic flexure enterotomy
  • Give fluids
A

Euthanize immediately

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33
Q

In a horse with exercise intolerance, which of the following is associated with increasing age?

  • Allergic bronchitis
  • Bacterial pneumonia
  • Selenium/vitamin E deficiency
  • VSD
A

Allergic bronchitis

Treat by putting out to pasture, feed moistened food, and initially restrict exercise

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34
Q

What is the most common cause of food material coming out of a horse’s nose?

  • Pharyngeal paralysis
  • Sphenopalatine bone fracture
  • Esophageal obstruction
  • Guttural pouch empyema
A

Esophageal obstruction

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35
Q

A BAR 7 year old Holstein cow with lymphadenopathy is unable to rise. After diagnosis, what should you do?

  • Recommend flotation therapy
  • IV administration of Ca gluconate
  • Euthanasia
  • Antibiotics and anti-inflammatories
A

Euthanasia

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36
Q

What food animal species is susceptible to malignant hyperthermia from inhalation of anesthetic halogens?

  • Cattle
  • Swine
  • Sheep
  • Goats
A

Swine

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37
Q

What is the best diagnostic test for nutritional myodegeneration (white muscle disease) in a 4 month old Suffolk ewe?

  • CSF selenium
  • Whole blood selenium
  • Plasma selenium
  • Urine selenium
A

Whole blood selenium

Definitive diagnosis is based on demonstration of low whole blood selenium (normal range >0.1 ppm)

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38
Q

If you need to perform surgery on a distal extremity of a cow, what technique should you use?

  • Epidural
  • Distal nerve block
A

Distal nerve block

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39
Q

What one finds on necropsy with bacillary hemoglobinuria (redwater disease):

  • Hepatic infarct
  • Renal infarct
  • Splenic infarct
A

Hepatic infarct

C. novyi can infect cows after liver biopsy or fluke migration

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40
Q

Antibiotics for 2 day old septicemic calf?

  • Ceftiofur
  • Gentamicin
  • Penicillin G
  • NSAIDs
A

Ceftiofur

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41
Q

Herd of pregnant ewes moved to a new pasture. Some are sick/recumbent/dead. Recommendations?

A

Increase energy in food And supplement feed

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42
Q

What would you expect to see with a 4-point block for an enucleation on a cow?

  • Exophthamos and miosis
  • Exophthalmos and mydriasis
  • Endophthalmos and miosis
  • Endophthalmos and mydriasis
A

Exophthalmos, mydriasis, corneal anesthesia

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43
Q

What is the most important first step to do when treating foot rot (Fusobacterium necrphorum)?

  • Bandage
  • Systemic antibiotics and local wound therapy
  • Wire claws together
  • Foot block
A

Systemic antibiotics and local wound therapy

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44
Q

How to surgically correct LDA?

  • Left paralumbar fossa abomasopexy and right paralumbar fossa omentopexy
  • Left paralumbar fossa omentopexy and paralumbar fossa abomasopexy
  • Right-sided abomasopexy and right sided omentopexy
  • Right sided omentopexy and left sided omentopexy
A

Left paralumbar fossa abomasopexy and right paralumbar fossa omentopexy

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45
Q

A pregnant cow is BAR and has schizont emphysematous schistasomus reflex calf. What do you do?

  • C-section
  • Euthanize cow because of poor prognosis
  • Fetotomy
  • Manually remove calf
A

Fetotomy

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46
Q

It is February in a CA dry lot dairy, 15% of cows have matted fur crusty lesions on their backs. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

  • Photosensitization
  • Dermatophilus congelensis
  • Chorioptes
  • Trichophyton verricosum
A

Dermatophilus congelensis

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47
Q

Signs of bluetongue in cattle?

  • None
  • Oral ulcers
  • Abortion and congenital defects
  • Cough and increased respiratory rate
A

None

See clinical signs of bluetongue in sheep!

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48
Q

Which of the following is consistent with signs of heart failure, thoracic edema and swollen liver in dairy calves?

  • Nitrate toxicity
  • Urea toxicity
  • Copper toxicity
  • Gossypol toxicity
A

Gossypol toxicity - cardiotoxic!

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49
Q

Bull presents with infertility and cardiac disease. What did they eat?

A

Cottonseed

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50
Q

One of your clients has several yearling Dorset lambs that came down with dictyocaulus this season (lungworm). What changes in management do you recommend?

  • Use of molluscicides
  • Sulfathiazole added to the feed
  • Move flock to dry ground/dry pasture
  • Implement early wean, medication protocol
A

Move flock to dry ground/dry pasture

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51
Q

You are performing a necropsy on a 6 month old angus steer. On inspecting the brain tissue with a UV light you get fluorescence. What disease does this finding suggest?

  • TEME
  • Salt poisoning
  • Polioencephalomalacia
  • Lead poisoning
A

Polioencephalomalacia

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52
Q

You are performing surgery on the distal extremity of a cow. What anesthetic technique is most appropriate?

  • Lumbar epidural
  • Sacral epidural
  • Perineal block
  • IV local block/Distal nerve block (Baer block)
A

IV local block/Distal nerve block (Baer block)

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53
Q

Which agent is transmitted venereally in a horse?

  • Staphylcoccus aureus
  • Streptococcus equi zooepidemicus
  • E. coli
  • Klebsiella
A

Streptococcus equi zooepidemicus

  • Causes abortion, infertility, and placentitis
  • Most common infectious cause of infertility
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54
Q

How do you store the brain of a rabies suspect?

A

Refrigerate in airtight container

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55
Q

What is the minimum age when a horse has all of its permanent dentition?

A

5 years

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56
Q

What is the best way to control Strongylus vulgaris in a horse ranch with high stocking of 0.25 acres/horse?

  • Double dose of antihelmintics
  • Rotate pastures by age of horse
  • Clean up and compost manure biweekly
  • Fertilize and keep pasture lush
A

Clean up and compost manure biweekly

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57
Q

You suspect a horse has pleuropneumonia and pleuritis; how would you verify this?

  • Lung FNA
  • Thoracic ultrasound
  • Pleuroscopy
  • Thoracic ultrasound and percussion
A

Thoracic ultrasound and percussion

Dull resonance on percussion

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58
Q

How do you treat duodenal and stomach ulcers in a horse as a once a day treatment?

  • Sucralfate
  • Ranitidine
  • Omeprazole
  • Aluminum magnesium hydroxide
A

Omeprazole (q24h)

  • Sucralfate is q6h
  • Ranitidine is q8h
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59
Q

What factors predispose horses to urolithiasis?

  • Urine constituents, nutrition, gender, bacterial
  • Exercise level, nutrition, gender, bacterial
  • Viral disease, nutrition, exercise, gender
  • Urine constituents, viral disease, gender, exercise level
A

Urine constituents, nutrition, gender, bacterial

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60
Q

What drug would provide effective treatment for Gasterophilus?

  • Ivermectin/moxidectin
  • Praziquantel
  • Pyrantel
  • Fenbendazole
A

Ivermectin/moxidectin

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61
Q

A horse present with a swollen sheath that is painful upon urination. A lesion is palpable and has yellow granules in it. What is likely diagnosis?

  • SCC
  • Pseudomonas cellulites
  • Granulation tissue
  • Habronemiasis
A

Habronemiasis

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62
Q

What can you give to a mare to decrease OCD in her foal?

  • Supplement calcium
  • Supplement phosphorus
  • Supplement copper
  • Supplement zinc
  • Supplement iodine
A

Supplement copper

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63
Q

A female intact horse is anestrus and is mounting other females. In addition to a rectal exam and ultrasound, what would you do to determine her reproductive status?

  • Vaginoscopy
  • Uterine culture
  • Endometrium biopsy
  • Endocrine assay
A

Endocrine assay

  • Could be persistent ovarian follicle or granulosa cell tumor.
  • Inhibin levels are higher than normal in 90% of cases
  • Testosterone levels are elevated in 50-60% of cases
    • Usually elevated if theca cells are present in the tumor (granulosa-theca cell tumor)
  • Progesterone levels usually normal
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64
Q

Which of the following practices would predispose a horse to S. vulgaris infection. What is the treatment?

  • Dry pasture, milbemycin/avermectin
  • Dry pasture, benzimdazole
  • Irrigated pasture, milbemycin/avermectin
  • Irrigated pasture, benzimidazole
A

Irrigated pasture, benzimidazole

Irrigated pasture would predispose a horse to S. vulgaris infection. The treatment is benzimidazoles.

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65
Q

You auscultate a horse with decreased gut sounds, intermittent diarrhea, and scratchy ventral abdominal sounds. Likely diagnosis?

  • Intussusception
  • Enterolith
  • Sand
  • Strangulating lipoma
A

Sand

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66
Q

Which disease is not reportable in California?

  • Equine infectious anemia
  • VSV
  • EPM
  • Equine encephalitis
A

EPM

  • Equine infectious anemia - 2 days
  • VSV - 24 hrs
  • Equine encephalitis - 2 days
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67
Q

A horse has a retained placenta; what is a likely sequela?

  • Laminitis
  • Uterine torsion
  • Anaphylaxis
A

Laminitis

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68
Q

What plant causes necrosis of the globus pallidus and substantia nigra in a horse?

  • Yellow star thistle
  • Lupine
  • Astragalus
  • Pine Oak
A

Yellow star thistle

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69
Q

What are male neonate foals predisposed to?

  • Urolith
  • UTI
  • Ruptured bladder
  • E. coli
A

Ruptured bladder

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70
Q

Goat with epididymitis. What should you do?

  • Cull the goat
  • Treat with tetracycline
  • Vaccinate for Brucella ovis
  • Advise that it be rested sexually
A

Cull the goat

Could be brucella mellitensis

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71
Q

A cow is recumbent, bellowing, salivating, has no anal or tail tone and has tonic-clonic seizures. Its tongue is flaccid. It has a menace buts its pupils are mydriatic. Its CSF has high protein with lots of mononuclear cells. What is the likely cause?

  • Botulism
  • Rabies
  • Polioencephalomalcia
  • TEME
A

Rabies

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72
Q

Which disease is not likely to be foodborne in soft cheese?

  • TB
  • Brucella
  • Leukosis
  • Listeria
A

Leukosis

  • Bovine Leukosis is in milk, but not zoonotic*
  • BLT: Brucella, Listeria, Tuberculosis*
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73
Q

There is an outbreak of Moraxella bovis in a free-range herd. What is the best treatment option?

  • Topical gentamicin spray
  • Subconjunctival injection of oxytetracycline
  • IM injection of long lasting oxytetracycline
A

IM injection of long lasting oxytetracycline

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74
Q

What is the current status of Brucella and TB California?

  • Brucella free; TB free
  • Modified accredited advanced TB; Brucella free
  • Modified accredited Brucella, TB free
  • TB free; brucella level B
A

Modified accredited advanced TB; Brucella free

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75
Q

How do you prevent contagious mastitis?

  • Wipe down teat before milking with iodine solution
  • Dip the teat post-milking
  • Spray the cow’s udder
  • Milking machine rate 60/40
A

Dip the teat post-milking

  • Environmental - pre dip
  • Contagious - post dip
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76
Q

What is the best restraint technique for pregnancy checks on 100 nervous cattle?

  • Sedate with xylazine
  • Close in stanchion
  • Squeeze chute
  • Tie to wall
A

Squeeze chute

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77
Q

There is a bulk tank SCC of 800,000. What do you do?

  • Culture the bulk tank on chocolate agar and Mycoplasma medium mastitis pathogens on chocolate
  • Culture the milk of mastitis cows
  • Culture the milk of all cows
  • CMT of all cows
A

Culture the milk of all cows

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78
Q

How do you treat Actinobacillus ligneresii?

A

Sodium iodide

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79
Q

A 6 month old calf died and on necropsy you see diffuse pleural edema and interstitial pneumonia. What is the cause?

  • Mannheimia hemolytica
  • Parainfluenza-3
  • BRSV
  • IBR
A

BRSV - diffuse interstitial pneumonia and emphysema

  • Mannheimia hemolytica - fibrinopurulent bronchopneumonia
  • Parainfluenza-3 - cranioventral lung consolidation, bronchiolitis, alveolitis with marked congestion and hemorrhage
  • IBR – pleuritis, placentitis
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80
Q

You would not want to use a live vaccine for which agent?

  • Brucella
  • IBR
  • BVD
  • Leptospirosis
A

Leptospirosis

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81
Q

There is a 70% abortion rate in unvaccinated cows in the 3rd term, with retained placenta and placentitis. What is the cause?

  • Neospora
  • IBR
  • BVD
  • Brucella
A

IBR

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82
Q

What drug do you use to put a cow in lateral recumbency?

  • Xylazine
  • Ketamine
  • Acepromazine
  • Morphine
A

Xylazine

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83
Q

What will you see with a sweet potato toxicity in a cow?

  • GI signs
  • CNS signs
  • Respiratory signs
  • Musculoskeletal signs
A

Respiratory signs

4-ipomeanol = pneumotoxin​

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84
Q

How does milk get contaminated with Salmonella dublin?

  • Contamination from equipment
  • Bulk tank contamination
  • From milkers’ hands
  • From carrier cows
A

From carrier cows​

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85
Q

Treatment for parakeratosis in cow?

A

Zinc oxide​

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86
Q

You see a goat that doesn’t want to lower its head to eat, is mildly depressed and ataxic, and has pain with neck manipulation. What is likely disease?

  • Polioencephalomalacia
  • Cervical abscess
  • Botulism
  • CAE
A

Cervical abscess

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87
Q

What would you palpate on day 55 of a cow’s pregnancy?

  • Placentomes
  • Fremetus in middle uterine artery
  • Uterine fluid
  • Membrane slip
A

Membrane slip​

  • Confirm pregnant by 28 days vis US
  • Membrane slip=30
  • Fetus= 60, but may be out of reach til 7 months
  • Placentome= 70-90
  • Fremitus= 90-120 (ipsilateral at 120, bilateral at 7 months)
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88
Q

Which treatment would be contraindicated for a cow with a retained placenta/ fetal membranes (>24hrs)?

  • Oxytetracycline diluted with water
  • Flush with chlorhexidine
  • Do nothing
  • Manual removal
A

Manual removal

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89
Q

A 1-2 week old calf has diarrhea. What is the most likely cause?

  • Rotavirus
  • Coccidia
  • Johne’s
  • Mycoplasma pleuropneumonia
A

Rotavirus​

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90
Q

Castration will not decrease incidence in a dog of which disease?

  • Bacterial prostatitis
  • Benign hyperplasia
  • Prostatic neoplasia
  • Male feminization
A

Prostatic neoplasia​

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91
Q

What kind of rattlesnake bite would be the worst scenario?

  • Small snake, bite to torso, spring
  • Small snake, bite to torso, fall
  • Large snake, bite to muzzle, spring
  • Large snake, bite to muzzle, fall
A

Small snake, bite to torso, spring

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92
Q

You see a 2 year old intact cat that has enlarged mammary glands of 3 cm. The cat is BAR, has unremarkable abdomen on palpation and an otherwise normal physical exam. What is your likely diagnosis?

  • Pregnant
  • Mastitis
  • Mammary adenocarcinoma
  • Benign mammary hyperplasia
A

Benign mammary hyperplasia​

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93
Q

How would you diagnose salmon poisoning?

  • Knott’s test
  • Blood culture
  • Fecal culture
  • Fecal float
A

Fecal float​

  • Float: Nanophytes salmincola fluke eggs
  • Snail –> fish –> dog
  • LN aspirate for intracellular neorickettsia organism
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94
Q

What would you advise the owner of a large breed puppy?

  • Don’t supplement phosphorus
  • Don’t supplement calcium
  • Supplement vitamin A
  • Supplement vitamin D
A

Don’t supplement calcium

Will grow too fast and cause skeletal malformations and OCD​

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95
Q

What is the incubation period of Chlamydophila in a parrot?

A

42 days​

BIRDS NEED TO BE TREATED WITH DOXYCYLINE IN WATER FOR 45 days​

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96
Q

How long do you hold a non-vaccinated dog in quarantine after the dog has bitten a person?

  • 3 days
  • 10 days
  • 20 days
  • 30 days
A

10 days

If dog is exposed, isolate for 45 days if vaccinated or 6 months if unvaccinated

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97
Q

When you put an obese cat on a diet, what should you emphasize to the owner?

  • Restrict to a low fiber diet
  • Restrict water intake
  • Make sure the cat eats every day
  • Make the cat exercise
A

Make sure the cat eats every day​

Prevent hepatic lipidosis​!

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98
Q

A dog comes in with myiasis to the perineal areas. What is the best way to treat?

  • Ivermectin
  • Manual removal
  • Suture the ulcerated skin closed
A

Manual removal​

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99
Q

Who is in charge of radiation safety in the clinic?

A

Supervising veterinarian​

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100
Q

What schedule class of drug requires triplicate forms for the DEA?

A

Class II​

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101
Q

What is a common complication of a molar tooth extraction in a dog?

  • Oronasal fistula
  • Root fracture
  • Periapical abscess
A

Root fracture​

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102
Q

What agent is not zoonotic?

  • Toxoplasmosis
  • Cryptosprodium
  • Campylobacter
  • Brucella
  • Salmonella dublin
A

Salmonella dublin​

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103
Q

Mushrooms eaten by a dog cause what signs?

  • CNS signs
  • Liver toxicity
  • Renal toxicity
  • Cardiac toxicity
A

Liver toxicity

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104
Q

Which analgesic can be used safely in cats?

  • Ibuprofen
  • Acetaminophen
  • Butorphanol tartrate
  • Flunixin megalumine
A

Butorphanol tartrate​

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105
Q

What procedure would be effective for a dog with chronic otitis externa?​

  • Lateral ear resection/TECA
  • Bulla osteotomy
  • Pinnal resection
  • Laser epilation
A

Lateral ear resection/TECA

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106
Q

How do you safely do an oral exam on an aggressive young healthy Rottweiler?

  • Tell technician to restrain him
  • Ask owner to muzzle him
  • Give acepromazine IM
  • Give medetomidine IM
A

Give medetomidine IM​

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107
Q

Why are drugs like xylazine, medetomidine, and detomidine good to use?

  • They have a wide margin of safety
  • They have a reversal agent
  • They are inexpensive
  • They sound cool
A

They have a reversal agent​

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108
Q

How do you treat conjunctivitis caused by chlamydia in a cat?

  • Tetracycline
  • Clavamox
  • Bacitracin
  • Neomycin
A

Tetracycline​

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109
Q

Gold standard of diagnosis of chlamydia in birds:

A

Culture and isolation of organism

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110
Q

What is the most frequent cause of corneal ulcers in a cat?

A

Herpesvirus​

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111
Q

What is the poison found in snail bait?

  • Strychinine
  • Metaldehyde
  • Warfarin
  • Coumarin
A

Metaldehyde​

Rat bait = Strychnine, warfarin, and coumarin

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112
Q

What is the youngest legal age to take a radiograph?

A

18 years​

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113
Q

What is the reversal agent for detomidine?

  • Naloxone
  • Atropine
  • Yohimbine
A

Yohimbine​

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114
Q

A daschund comes in with a diffusely hyperechoic and highly granular liver on ultrasound. It has elevated ALT, ALP, and cholesterol. What other organ would you expect to be affected?

  • Liver
  • Kidney
  • Adrenal
  • Pancreas
A

Adrenal​

Indicative of Cushings​

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115
Q

A dog comes in with a head tilt, horizontal nystagmus with fast phase to the left and no CP deficits. Where is the lesion?

  • Right peripheral vestibular
  • Right central vestibular
  • Left peripheral vestibular
  • Left central vestibular
A

Right peripheral vestibular

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116
Q

Outdoor dog with a clean hole under its eye that is non-painful?

  • Musca
  • Foxtail
  • Tooth root abscess
A

Foxtail​

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117
Q

An owner brings in a dog and you diagnose it with pulmonary coccidiomycosis. What do you tell the owner?

  • Quarantine the dog for 2 months
  • There is little threat to the owner
  • Euthanize the dog
A

There is little threat to the owner​

Pulmonary form is not zoonotic​

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118
Q

What is the likely disease of a baby rabbit with diarrhea and how should you treat?

  • Tyzzer’s; tetracycline
  • Coccidia; sulfadimethoxine
  • Salmonella; oral antibiotics
  • Mucoid enteropathy; oral antibiotics
A

Tyzzer’s; tetracycline​

Tyzzer’s = Clostridium piliformis ​

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119
Q

Mucoid Enteropathy in Rabbits:

Diarrhea as result of a mixture of __________. Treatment is ______________.

A

Diarrhea as result of a mixture of constipation, toxins and non-specific bacteria. Treatment is to increase fiber.

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120
Q

A parrot eats tomato, avocado, lima beans, lettuce and chicken. It is now in respiratory distress. What part of the diet is responsible?

  • Lima bean
  • Avocado
  • Tomato
  • Chicken
  • Lettuce
A

Avocado​

Avocado = respiratory toxin​

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121
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis of a mass on a dog tonsil?

  • Histiocytoma
  • Osteosarcoma
  • SCC
  • Lymphoma
  • Fibrosarcoma
A

SCC

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122
Q

You suspect a cat has toxoplasmosis. How do you confirm the diagnosis?

  • Serology (IgG and IgM)
  • Fecal flotation
  • SNAP test
  • PCR
A

Serology (IgG and IgM)

  • IgM goes up first, then IgG later
  • IgM goes up first 1:2000, then IgG later (do paired)
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123
Q

How do you diagnose a bird with Trichomoniasis?

  • Direct smear of feces
  • Wet mount of crop/esophagus contents
  • Fecal float
  • Direct smear of intestinal/cecal loop
A

Wet mount of crop/esophagus contents​

Lives in sinuses, mouth, throat

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124
Q

Dog comes back from woods with a symmetrically swollen face, lips, and eyes. What is your diagnosis and treatment?

  • Snakebite; anti-venom
  • Allergy; steroids and diphenhydramine
  • Puppy strangles; antibiotics
  • Brown recluse spider
  • Electric cord shock; antibiotics
A

Allergy; steroids and diphenhydramine​

  • Puppy strangles – antibiotics and pred (usually 3 weeks to 4 months)
  • Allergic reaction – dex sp and diphenhydramine
  • Snake bite – antivenin, IV catheter, LRS and antibiotics
  • Electric cord shock – antibiotics and cold pack
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125
Q

A dog went camping 7 days ago and is now febrile, anorexic, vomiting and having diarrhea. What is the diagnosis?

  • Parvovirus
  • Leptospirosis
  • Salmon poisoning
  • Ehrlichia
A

Salmon poisoning

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126
Q

Which test would change first with warfarin toxicity?

  • FDP
  • ACT
  • PT
  • PTT
A

PT

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127
Q

What is the most important parameter to monitor during anesthesia?

  • Cardiac electrical activity
  • Arterial blood pressure
  • Respiration
  • Heart rate
  • Mucous membrane color
A

Arterial blood pressure

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128
Q

An intact 5 year old male cat with severe stomatitis likely has what disease?

  • FIP
  • FeLV
  • FIV
  • Herpesvirus
A

FIV​

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129
Q

A dog has been HBC and comes in obtunded, in shock, with loss of deep pain and anal tone, paralysis in all four limbs. What do you tell the owner?

  • Has cervical lesions
  • Has an intracranial lesion
  • You need to stabilize the dog and re-evaluate later
  • Has severe neurologic deficits with poor prognosis
A

You need to stabilize the dog and re-evaluate later

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130
Q

How do you diagnose FIP in a cat with ascites?

  • Cytology of abdominal fluid
  • FeCV titer
  • FeCV fluid
  • Biopsy and histopathology
A

Biopsy and histopathology

Will see pyogranulomatous inflammation

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131
Q

You see a 5 year old Persian with elevated BUN, creatinine, phosphorus and isosthenuria. Radiographs show bilaterally enlarged kidneys. What is your likely diagnosis?

  • Ethylene glycol toxicity
  • Renal failure
  • Polycystic kidney disease
  • Pyelonephritis
A

Polycystic kidney disease

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132
Q

Dog with isosthenuria, hematuria, vomiting. DX?

A

Ethylene glycol​

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133
Q

A Doberman HBC with dyspnea and open fractures. What is your primary treatment and diagnostic plan?

  • Anesthetize for rads and wound repair
  • Control hemorrhage and give pain medications
  • Control hemorrhage, treat shock, radiographs and stabilize wounds
  • Anesthetize for fracture repair
A

Control hemorrhage, treat shock, radiographs and stabilize wounds​

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134
Q

Soft tissue swelling under eye of dog

  • Foxtail under 3rd eyelid
  • Infraction of nasolacrimal duct
  • Abscess of maxillary PM4
  • Fracture of maxillary PM4
A

Abscess of maxillary PM4​

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135
Q

An adult female chinchilla presents to your clinic. She attempts to escape and in doing so you tear a chunk of fur off her flank and reveal normal healthy skin. What do you do?

  • Ask owner about previous estrus activity
  • Restrain properly to prevent “fur slip”
  • Do a cellophane test and check for ectoparasties
  • Do a dermatophyte test
A

Restrain properly to prevent “fur slip”​

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136
Q

An 8 year old boxer has tachycardia, pulse deficits and a cough. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • Pheochromocytoma
  • Atrial fibrillation
  • Mitral valve regurgitation
A

Atrial fibrillation​

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137
Q

What is the distribution of Cheyletiellosis?

  • Dorsal distribution
  • Head only
  • Ventral distribution
A

Dorsal distribution​

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138
Q

You have a dog that had a seizure. The dog has a normal blood biochemistry. What would be the appropriate next step?

  • EMG and CSF
  • EMG and Echocardiogram
  • MRI and CSF
  • MRI and Echocardiogram
A

MRI and CSF​

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139
Q

How do you diagnose a cranial cruciate rupture in a dog?

  • Cranial drawer and tibial thrust
  • Patellar reflex
  • Ortalani
  • Barlow
  • Thumb test
A

Cranial drawer and tibial thrust

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140
Q

How long from mosquito bite to adult heartworm infection? (Prepatency period for HW infection?)

A

6 months

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141
Q

What is the most common tumor found on the tonsils of small animals?

  • SCC
  • Osteosarcoma
  • Histiocytoma
  • Lipoma
A

SCC

  • SCC - epithelium
  • Osteosarcoma - bone
  • Histiocytoma - macrophages
  • Lipoma - adipocytes
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142
Q

A 5 year old Labrador with ocular discharge, 105F ,vomiting, diarrhea, lymphadenopathy. What is the primary differential?

  • Ehrlichia
  • Lyme disease
  • Salmonella
  • Distemper
A

Distemper​

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143
Q

What can cause polyarthritis in a dog?

  • Ehrlichia canis
  • Blastomycoses
  • Coccidiomycosis
  • Histoplasmosis
A

Coccidiomycosis​

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144
Q

A 3 year old Boston terrier has a C-section performed. What are your anesthetic goals?

  • Uterine relaxation
  • Slow induction
  • Rapid recovery for mom and pups
A

Rapid recovery for mom and pups

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145
Q

Which of the following drug combos can be used in a dog with liver disease?

  • Acepromazine, halothane mask, halothane induction
  • Acepromazine, thiopental induction, isoflurane maintenance
  • Morphine, ket/val, isoflurane
  • Morphine, propofol, halothane, maintenance
A

Morphine, ket/val, isoflurane​

No barbiturates! No halothane or thiopental! ​

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146
Q

What is the major cause of infection post-op in a bone repair surgery in a small animal?

  • Excessive tissue/bone damage
  • Overzealous antibiotic usage
  • Airborne pathogens
A

Overzealous antibiotic usage​

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147
Q

What are you trying to prevent when you spay a 5 year old breeding bitch?

  • Pyometra
  • Acute metritis
  • Mammary neoplasia
  • Mammary hyperplasia
A

Pyometra​

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148
Q

A 2 year old dog with hyphema, swollen stifles and a ventral cervical region chemical exposure:

  • NSAID
  • Anticoagulant rodenticide exposure
  • Antimolluscicies
  • Topical antiparasitics
A

Anticoagulant rodenticide exposure​

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149
Q

Dalmation with desiccated corneas and thick ocular discharge. Which is important historic detail?

  • Use of antimicrobials
  • Use of antiparasitics
  • NSAIDs
  • Antiprotozoals
A

Use of antimicrobials​

Trimethoprim sulfa can cause KCS​

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150
Q

Drug to treat suspected coccidiosis in a litter of 8 week old dog/cats/puppies/kittens?

  • Fenbendazole
  • Metronidazole
  • Sulfadimethoxine
A

Sulfadimethoxine

  • Fenbendazole - worms
  • Metronidazole - giardia
  • Sulfadimethoxine - coccidia
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151
Q

Dog being treated for pulmonary edema from trauma. What drug is contraindicated?

  • Nitroprusside infusion
  • Some thiazide diuretic
  • Spironolactone
  • Epinephrine
A

Epinephrine​

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152
Q

How do you diagnose Cryptococcus in a cat?

  • LCAT (latex cryptococcal antigen agglutination test) of serum, urine and CSF
  • Organisms circulating in blood
  • Organisms in nasal swab sample
  • See organisms in CSF
  • See nasal turbinate destruction on radiographs
A

LCAT (latex cryptococcal antigen agglutination test) of serum, urine and CSF​

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153
Q

A 2 year old FS border collie presents with violent persistent sneezing with unilateral epistaxis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • Intranasal carcinoma
  • Intranasal foreign body
  • Aspergillus
  • Infectious rhinitis
A

Intranasal foreign body​

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154
Q

Which psittacine is predisposed to problems with hypocalcemia, weakness, and seizures?

  • Love bird
  • Amazon parrot
  • African grey parrot
  • Umbrella cockatoo
A

African grey parrot - mostly with all seed diets​

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155
Q

A 5 year old GSD presents hypersalivating, tremoring and the owner has recently put out snail bait in the yard. What is the toxic agent in snail bait?

A

Metaldehyde

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156
Q

Why does high humidity predispose a dog to hyperthermia?

  • Impaired evaporation
  • Enhanced conduction
  • Increased convection
  • Predisposes animal to vasodilation
A

Impaired evaporation​

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157
Q

5 yo cat presents with bilateral nasal swelling, nasal discharge and a mass over nose. The cat is afebrile and the owner has financial constraints. What diagnostic test is indicated in this situation in order to diagnose this cat’s problem?

  • Biopsy
  • Cytology
  • Radiographs
  • FeLV test
A

Cytology

Cryptococcus​!!

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158
Q

What is the most consistent finding in an animal that has E. canis acutely?

  • Thrombocytopenia
  • Leukopenia
  • Neutrophilia
  • Eosinophilia
A

Thrombocytopenia​

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159
Q

A cat that is blocked presents and has elevated serum potassium. Which of the following would not be useful to treat elevated serum potassium?

  • Insulin
  • Dextrose
  • Bicarbonate
  • Epinephrine
A

Epinephrine​

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160
Q

A dog tests positive for heartworm. To treat the heartworm disease, what are the best drugs to use in the order you would use them?

  • Melarsomine microfilaricidal therapy, followedby ivermectin adulticidal therapy
  • Melarsomine adulticidal therapy, followed by ivermectin microfilaricidal therapy
  • Ivermectin microfilaricidal therapy, followed by melarsomine adulticidal therapy
  • Ivermectin adulticidal therapy, followed by melarsomine, microfilaricidaltherapy
A

Melarsomine adulticidal therapy, followed by ivermectin microfilaricidal therapy​

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161
Q

A dog comes in with rattlesnake bite. What is a common, life-threatening sequela to rattlesnake bite and how would you treat it?

  • Coagulopathy – antivenin and cardiovascular support (plasma)
  • Cellulitis – antivenon, antibiotics, corticosteroids, antihistamine
  • Compartment syndrome
A

Coagulopathy – antivenin and cardiovascular support (plasma)

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162
Q

Which anesthetic protocol would be contraindicated in a dog undergoing treatment for glaucoma?

  • Ace/atropine, ketamine, diazepam,isoflurane
  • Torb/diazepam, thiopental, isoflurane
  • Ace/torb, propofol, isoflurane
  • Ace/morphine, etomidate, sevoflurane
A

Ace/atropine, ketamine, diazepam, isoflurane

  • Don’t want any mydriasis! So no atropine
  • All those drugs increases IOP
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163
Q

Minimal legal age for rabies vaccine in dog?

A

4 months

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164
Q

Boston Terrier comes in with a thick, mucoid discharge in its eye. It is most likely:

A

KCS

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165
Q

Mucocele in a dog. What should you do to treat this condition?

A

Remove the mucocele and ipsilateral salivary gland​

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166
Q

A woman brings in her 8 week old shelter kitten. The kitten will be a strictly indoor cat. In addition to FVRCP at 8, 12 weeks and rabies at 12 weeks (4 months), what else do you recommend?

  • Deworm based on fecal float results
  • Deworm every two weeks with pyrantel until 12 weeks
  • FeLV vaccinate at 8, 12 weeks and deworm based on fecal float results
A

Deworm every two weeks with pyrantel until 12 weeks

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167
Q

Cat with open mouth breathing and muffled heart sounds. Best technique to radiograph thorax with minimal compromise to patient?

  • VD and laterals with sedation
  • DV and laterals with sedation
  • VD and laterals with NO sedation
  • DV and laterals with NO sedation
A

DV and laterals with NO sedation ​

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168
Q

Piperazine is used for control of what parasite?

A

Roundworms​

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169
Q

Right ventricular hypertrophy and large pulmonary artery is caused by what disease?

  • Heartworm disease
  • Aortic stenosis
  • Mitral valve regurgitation
  • VSD
A

Heartworm disease​

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170
Q

Cat comes in with pruritic lesions on ears, neck and face:

  • Notoedres cati
  • Otodectes cyanotic
  • Cheyletiella
  • Demodex
A

Notoedres cati

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171
Q

Cat that is PU/PD and has a plantigrade stance with difficulty jumping onto furniture. Most likely has what disease?

  • Diabetes mellitus
  • Hyperthyroidism
  • Cushings
  • Renal failure
A

Diabetes mellitus

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172
Q

Pain management consideration for 1 year old OVH:

  • Post-op parenteral morphine, followed up with oral rimadyl
  • Post-op parenteral butorphanol, followed up with oral butorphanol
  • Pre and post-op morphine, followed up with oral rimadyl
  • Pre and post-op butorphanol followed up with fentanyl patch
A

Pre and post-op morphine, followed up with oral Rimadyl​

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173
Q

Which is zoonotic?

  • Yersinia pestis
  • Babesia
  • Neospora
  • Neorickettsia helminotheca
A

Yersinia pestis​

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174
Q

Tech gets bit by cat in finger joint. In addition to cleaning and bandaging immediately, as the supervising veterinarian, you should:

  • Recommend that tech see physician
  • Advise to keep bandage clean
  • Start tech on antibiotics
  • Watch finger for swelling
A

Recommend that tech see physician​

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175
Q

Indicator of poor response to therapy for EPI?

  • Increased appetite
  • Increased stool
  • Increased urine
  • Increased activity
A

Increased appetite

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176
Q

Pot-bellied, febrile kitten with a viscous fluid on abdominocentesis. Diagnosis?

  • Ascarids
  • FIV
  • FIP
  • FeLV
A

FIP

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177
Q

Middle aged standard poodle with pelvic limb lameness and swollen stifles.

  • Radiographs
  • Joint tap
  • Elicit a cranial drawer
A

Elicit a cranial drawer​

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178
Q

17 year old FS mixed breed dog with anorexia, lethargy, PU/PD, USG = 1.018. What else would you do next?

  • Fundic exam
  • Neuro exam
  • Rectal exam
  • Orthopedic exam
A

Rectal exam

  • Anal sac adenocarcinoma
  • PUPD due to hypercalcemia
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179
Q

What changes would you expect to see in a dog with pleural effusion?

  • Stridor
  • Wheezing
  • Dyspnea
  • Increased breath sounds
A

Dyspnea

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180
Q

10 yr white outdoor DSH with chronic nasal discharge and facial rubbing. There are pink ulcerated masses at his ear tips and on his right nasal planum. What’s the most likely diagnosis?

  • Upper respiratory infection
  • SCC
  • Notoedres cati
  • Pemphigus foliaceous
  • Mosquito bite hypersensitivity
A

SCC

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181
Q

Bacteria most commonly associated with foxtail migration:

A

Actinomyces (Trueperella) pyogenes

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182
Q

Toxoplasmosis is associated with which of these?

  • Corneal ulcer; myositis
  • Anterior uveitis; fever
  • KCS; anemia
  • Chemosis; arthritis
A

Anterior uveitis; fever

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183
Q

Acute ethylene glycol toxicity?

  • Increased osmolal gap with metabolic acidosis
  • Increased osmolal gap with metabolic alkalosis
  • Decreased osmolal gap with metabolic acidosis
  • Decreased osmolal gap with metabolic alkalosis
A

Increased osmolal gap with metabolic acidosis

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184
Q

What did a dog ingest causing it to get acute renal failure?

  • Mushrooms (amanita)
  • Heavy metals
  • Chocolate
  • Ethylene glycol
A

Ethylene glycol

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185
Q

Why do you not want to vaccinate a live/MLV pregnant bitch or queen?

  • May cause revision to a virulent form
  • May cause fetal deformation and/or death
  • May cause fetal immunosuppression
  • Pregnancy decreased effective antibody production
A

May cause fetal deformation and/or death

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186
Q

What toxicosis does a bird get from a galvanized cage?

A

Zinc

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187
Q

A 2 yo lab has a chronic draining tract in the 11 o’clock position near the anus which as been non-responsive to antibiotic therapy. You most likely differential is:

  • Foxtail
  • Anal gland impaction
  • Infected perianal hernia
  • Anal sac adenocarcinoma
A

Foxtail

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188
Q

How do you restrain a bird to prevent injury to the patient?

  • Hold beak and head
  • Make sure the keel is freely moveable
  • Keep legs tucked close to body
  • Keep wings folded closely to the body
A

Make sure the keel is freely moveable

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189
Q

A doberman presents with a right thoracic limb lameness. What diagnostic should be included in your initial work up?

  • Lyme titer
  • Chemistry panel
  • Orthopedic examination
  • Survey radiographs of the right thoracic limb
A

Orthopedic examination

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190
Q

What is the treatment of warfarin toxicity in addition to vitamin K1?

  • Fresh plasma
  • Whole blood
  • pRBCs
  • Charcoal
A

Fresh plasma

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191
Q

Complications caused by snake bite envenomation ultimately manifests as:

  • Coagulopathy
  • Cardiovascular
  • Depression
  • DIC
A

DIC

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192
Q

You tested a 4 month old stray kitten with FIV using ELISA snap test. What can you conclude?

  • Kitten has FIV
  • Cannot conclude anything, retest in a month
  • The queen has FIV
  • Retest after 6 months
A

Retest after 6 months due to maternal antibodies could be from vaccine or disease

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193
Q

You tested a cat with heartworm but it is asymptomatic. What is your recommendation?

A

Don’t treat

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194
Q

What is the most common cause of diarrhea in weanling rabbits and what is the appropriate treatment?

A

Tyzzer’s disease; tetracycline

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195
Q

What is the proper protocol for transferring radiographs from vet A to vet B?

  • Vet A mails them directly to vet B with verbal consent of owner
  • Owner verbally requests them from vet A and hand delivers to vet B
  • Vet A obtains written authorization from owner and mails them to vet B
  • Vet obtains oral authorization from owner and mails them to vet B
A

Vet A obtains written authorization from owner and mails them to vet B

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196
Q

What information must be on a label of a non-controlled drug?

  • Name and address of prescribing veterinarian
  • Patient weight
  • Patient’s condition
  • Prescribing veterinarian’s license number
A

Name and address of prescribing veterinarian​

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197
Q

Cat that has difficulty jumping up onto furniture with poor haircoat. What is you next diagnostic step?

  • FeLV/FIV test
  • BG and urinalysis
  • T4
  • CBC
A

BG and urinalysis

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198
Q

Your patient is a puppy with T=102.5, P= 150, R=48. What is the cause?

  • Left in hot car
  • Normal
  • Excited puppy
A

Normal

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199
Q

Your patient needs to have an ocular exam. What is the correct order of diagnostics?

  • Schirmer tear test, fluoroscein dye, procainamide, tonometry
  • Tonometry, fluorosceine dye, STT, procainamide
  • Fluorosceine dye, STT, tonometry, proparacaine
A

Schirmer tear test, fluoroscein dye, procainamide, tonometry

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200
Q

What is the best method for diagnosing pyrrolizidine alkaloid toxicity?

A

Liver histopathology

  • Will find: biliary hyperplasia, hepatic fibrosis, and megalocytes
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201
Q

What is the most common cause of endodontic disease in dog?

  • Carrier
  • Tooth pulp exposure due to fractured tooth
  • Periodontal disease
  • Tooth wear
A

Tooth pulp exposure due to fractured tooth

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202
Q

What is contraindicated (or rather, not useful) in a dog with tick paralysis?

  • Oxygen
  • Vitamin K1
  • Hyperimmune serum
  • Fipronyl
A

Vitamin K1

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203
Q

When is the best time to apply a fentanyl patch?

  • Immediately after surgery before they wake up from anesthesia
  • 12-24 hrs before surgery
  • 1-2 hours before surgery
  • 12-24 hrs after surgery
A

12-24 hrs before surgery

Analgesia is reached 8-24 hours after patch placement

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204
Q

Which mycotic disease is most zoonotic?

  • Histoplasmosis
  • Blastomycosis
  • Sporotrichosis
  • Coccidiomycosis
A

Sporotrichosis​

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205
Q

Which species is a reservoir for rabies in CA?

  • Foxes
  • Skunks
  • Raccoons
  • Opposum
A

Skunks

And bats?

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206
Q

Which condition is most likely to contribute to recurrent UTI?

  • Hyperthyroidism
  • Diabetes mellitus
  • Hypoadrenocorticism
  • Hyperadrenocorticism
A

Diabetes mellitus​

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207
Q

You think a dog has nasal Aspergillius. To make the diagnosis:

  • Flush nasal cavity first then radiograph
  • Biopsy first, then flush, then radiograph
  • Radiograph before biopsy, or flush
  • Obtain negative culture, rhinoscopy and serology before radiographing
  • Serology and tissue fungal culture
A

Radiograph before biopsy, or flush

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208
Q

Ethylene glycol toxicity presents with which lab abnormalities?

  • Increased anion gap, alkalosis
  • Increased anion gap, acidosis
  • Decreased anion gap, acidosis
  • Decreased anion gap, alkalosis
A

Increased anion gap, acidosis​

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209
Q

Which clinical sign would you expect to see in a dog with Digitalis toxicity?

  • Increased appetite
  • Decreased appetite
  • Increased urination
  • Decreased defecation
A

Decreased appetite

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210
Q

Which of the following conditions and treatments would interfere with the diagnosis of Cushing’s disease in a dog?

  • Chronic otitis externa; triamcinolone
  • Hypothyroidism; thyroxine
  • Degenerative disease; carprofen
  • Epileptic seizures; phenobarbital
A

Chronic otitis externa; triamcinolone

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211
Q

A 9 year old fractious cat is paraparetic. Which body system should be examined closely?

  • Cardiovascular
  • Endocrine
  • Genitourinary
  • Lymphoid
A

Cardiovascular

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212
Q

You observe a soft, flocculent swelling over the left zygomatic arch of a dog. The dog is reluctant to eat. What is the next diagnostic step?

  • Skull radiographs to examine TMJ
  • Dental radiographs for periapical tooth abscess
  • Salivary duct endoscopy
A

Dental radiographs for periapical tooth abscess

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213
Q

A toy breed dog presents to you with periodontal disease. What is the likely condition it has?

  • Enamel hypoplasia
  • Retained deciduous teeth
  • Odontoclastic resorptive lesions
A

Retained deciduous teeth

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214
Q

When cooling a hyperthermic patient, why is it important to stop before reaching normal
temperature?

  • Somogyi causes hypothermia
  • Periphery and core cool at the same rate
  • After-drop can cause hypothermia
  • Decreased evaporative abilities
A

After-drop can cause hypothermia

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215
Q

Which animal is a reservoir for Yersinia pestis (plague) in CA?

  • Cats
  • Deer
  • Bears
  • Ground squirrel
  • Rat
A

Ground squirrel

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216
Q

What is specificity?

A

Number of DISEASE NEGATIVE animals that truly TEST NEGATIVE

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217
Q

Where should controlled drugs be kept?

  • In a locked cupboard with other controlled drugs
  • Lock box intermingled with non-controlled drugs
  • In the veterinarian’s locked office
  • In a drawer
A

In a locked cupboard with other controlled drugs​

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218
Q

What type of drug is contraindicated with glaucoma?

  • Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor (methazolamide)
  • Topical beta blocker (timolol)
  • Mydriatic (atropine)
  • Miotic
A

Mydriatic (atropine)

  • A mydriatic drug like atropic will cause dilation of the pupil that further decreases the iridocorneal angle for decreased drainage and will further increase IOP*
  • The rest of the options are used to treat glaucoma*
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219
Q

What is the most common cause of endometritis in cattle?

  • E. coli
  • Actinomyces pyogenes
  • Streptococcus agalactia
  • Staphylococcus aureus
A

Actinomyces (Trueperella) pyogenes

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220
Q

Which of the following drugs is prohibited in lactating dairy cattle?

  • Sulfadiazine
  • Penicillin
  • Sulfadimethoxine
  • Ceftiofur
A

Sulfadiazine

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221
Q

Which mastitis pathogen can be eradicated?

  • Streptococcus uberis
  • Streptococcus agalactiae
  • E. coli
A

Streptococcus agalactiae

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222
Q

Goat kid with multiple bony problems. Angular deformities. Wide costochondral junctions. What is the cause?

  • Vitamin D deficiency (Rickets)
  • Calcium deficiency
  • Phosphorus deficiency
  • Zinc deficicency
A

Vitamin D deficiency (Rickets)

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223
Q

Regulatory question on how to proceed if a herd of sheep sent to market were discovered to have fence-line contact with scrapie-infected sheep. What do you do?

  • Send them to market anyway
  • Contact authorities within 2 days
  • Wait 30 days and ship
  • Test them and then ship
A

Contact authorities within 2 days

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224
Q

Cow with uterine mass, lymphadenopathy and exophthalmos:

  • Tuberculosis
  • Bovine leukosis
  • Mycoplasma
A

Bovine leukosis

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225
Q

Where is the “ping” from a LDA best auscultated on a cow?

  • On the middle to upper left abdomen, cranial to rib 11
  • Starting at the point of the left elbow and extending up to an over the dorsal spinal column
  • On the right abdomen, extending over the dorsal spinal column to the left rib cage
  • Along the line drawn from the left tuber coxae to the point of the left elbow in an area between ribs 9 and 13 in the left paralumbar fossa
A

Along the line drawn from the left tuber coxae to the point of the left elbow in an area between ribs 9 and 13 in the left paralumbar fossa

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226
Q

Which mineral deficiency would cause paresis in lambs?

  • Magnesium
  • Molybdenum
  • Zinc
  • Copper
A

Copper

Enzootic Ataxia = copper deficiency​

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227
Q

How do you diagnose parasitic pneumonia in cows?

  • Sample sputum for larvae
  • Transtracheal wash for eggs
  • Fecal for eggs
  • Fecal sedimentation to look for lungworm larvae
A

Fecal sedimentation to look for lungworm larvae

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228
Q

Your cattle herd have increasing prevalence of E. coli. Next step is:

  • Quarantine herd
  • Segregate the affected animals
  • Ensure udders are clean and dry before milking
  • Have milkers wash hands
A

Ensure udders are clean and dry before milking

229
Q

What can infect cows after liver biopsy?

  • Clostridium tetani
  • Clostridium novyi
  • Clostridium difficle
  • Clostridium perfringens
A

Clostridium novyi

230
Q

Which cattle disease is not reportable to the state within 24 hours?

  • Screw worm myiasis
  • Contagious bovine pleuropneumonia
  • Vesicular stomatitis
  • Anaplasmosis (A. marginale)
A

Anaplasmosis (A. marginale) - 30 day reportable

231
Q

Holstein dairy with 10 day old calves with diarrhea. 100% morbidity, 0% mortality. Adequate passive transfer has been demonstrated. Next dx step?

  • ELISA for cryptosporidium
  • Fecal culture and ELISA for E. coli K99
  • ELISA for BVD
  • Fecal float for coccidiosis
A

ELISA for cryptosporidium (1-3 weeks)

  • Fecal culture and ELISA for E. coli K99 (<5d)
  • ELISA for BVD (adult)
  • Fecal float for coccidiosis (months)
232
Q

What drug has no meat/milk withdrawal time?

  • Subconjunctival PPG
  • Intrauterine oxytetracycline
  • Intramammary penicillin
  • Intramuscular ceftiofur
A

Intramuscular ceftiofur

233
Q

There’s a herd of 50 suffolk sheep, 3 ewes have incoordination and tremors. Some are thin and weak, they have regular deworming program (every 3 months). What’s up?

  • Scrapie
  • Listeriosis
  • Border disease
  • Chronic wasting disease
A

Scrapie

234
Q

Sheep living alone in a box stall found circling with no other CNS signs. Dx?

A

Listeriosis

235
Q

What diagnostic technique would be beneficial in diagnosing hardware disease in a cow with anorexia and decreasing milk production.

  • Abdominocentesis
  • Thoracic percussion
  • Rectal exam
  • Gastric tube and rumen pH
A

Thoracic percussion

Listen for pericarditis/pleuritis, washing mashing murmur, or muffled heart sounds​

236
Q

What do you do with a ram with bilateral hard swellings of the epididymis?

A

Cull - could be Brucellosis

237
Q

A 4H sheep was given clenbuterol, what do you tell the client?

  • Can be slaughtered and used for home consumption only
  • Meat is contaminated and cannot be used for human consumption
  • Withdrawal time for meat/milk is 30 days and then can be slaughtered
  • Withdrawl time for meat/milk is 60 days and then can be slaughtered
A

Meat is contaminated and cannot be used for human consumption

Illegal in all food animals​

238
Q

What do you NOT use to treat acute environmental mastitis?

  • Replacement fluids
  • NSAIDs
  • Intramammary antibiotics
  • Frequent stripping of the teat
A

Intramammary antibiotics

239
Q

A 10 yo beef cow is examined for poor condition and pitting edema cranial to udder. She is afebrile. There are bilateral softball sized masses at the internal iliac arteries and similar masses in the supramammary region. She also has a uterine mass and exophthalmos What is the disease?

  • Mycoplasma bovis
  • Bovine leukemia virus/Lymphoma
  • Actinomyces pyogenes
  • Actinobacillus ligneresii
A

Bovine leukemia virus/Lymphoma

Lymphoma is the most common cause of exopthalmos in the cow (invades periocular structures)​

  • Mycoplasma bovis - respiratory and mastitis
  • Actinomyces pyogenes - liver abscess, endometritis
  • Actinobacillus ligneresii - wooden tongue
240
Q

How do you determine if a gastric tube has been successfully placed in a cow?

  • Tube passes easily
  • Suck on the tube (negative pressure)
  • Blow into the tube and auscult the rumen
  • Smell for rumen gas coming out of the tube
A

Blow into the tube and auscult the rumen

241
Q

You have a pig with a rectal prolapse that’s fresh and going to the fair in 3 days. What should you do?

  • Lavage and manually reduce
  • Put a prolapse ring on it
  • Cut it off and put a purse string suture in
  • Leave and treat with antibiotics
A

Put a prolapse ring on it (can do a purse string)

242
Q

Which method is appropriate to anesthetize the globe for enucleation in the cow?

  • 4-point retrobulbar block
  • Auriculopalpebral
  • Subconjunctival block
A

4-point retrobulbar block​

243
Q

Horse with a wedge shaped corneal tear near the medial canthus. What’s the next step?

A

Fluoroscein stain and digital palpation of the conjunctival sac

244
Q

Alpine kid, 10 weeks old, varus/valgus, wide costochondral junction:

  • Magnesium
  • Phosphorus
  • Calcium
  • Vitamin D
A

Vitamin D

245
Q

What is the best location for projectile euthanasia in cattle?

  • Equidistant between ears
  • Equidistant between eyes
  • Equidistant between alanto-occipital joint and pole
  • Equidistant between ears and eyes
A

Equidistant between ears and eyes​

246
Q

Which of these is the most likely to predispose to nigropallidal encephalomalacia?

  • Irrigated pasture only
  • Non-irrigated pasture only
  • Irrigated pasture + alfalfa
  • Non-irrigated pasture + alfalfa
A

Non-irrigated pasture only

  • Yellow star thistle!!
  • Grows in non-irrigated pastures in dry seasons
  • Pasture in late summer or early fall
  • Will only eat yellowstar thistle if theres nothing else to eat
  • Causes globus pallidus and substantia nigra in horses
247
Q

An RVT is doing a dental extraction on a horse. Which of these is best scenario?

  • DVM present, RVT makes diagnosis, treatment plan and extracts tooth
  • DVM present and makes diagnosis, treatment plan, and RVT extracts tooth
A

DVM present and makes diagnosis, treatment plan, and RVT extracts tooth

248
Q

Stallion like behavior in mare?

  • Granulosa cell tumor
  • Teratoma
  • Pregnancy
A

Granulosa cell tumor

Secretes testosterone

249
Q

Horse has icterus (suspect tick-borne disease). Which is most likely?

  • Horse was on trail ride
  • Horse was at show recently
  • Horse was boarded recently
A

Horse was on trail ride​

Most common place for horses to acquire tick borne disease

250
Q

What is the reservoir for WEE?

  • Birds
  • Rats
  • Horses
  • Humans
  • Skunks
  • Squirrels
A

Birds

251
Q

Which correctly matches horse breed and disease?

  • Belgian – periodic ophthalmia
  • Thoroughbred – laryngeal hemiplegia
  • Arabian – HYPPP
  • Appaloosa – SCID
A

Thoroughbred – laryngeal hemiplegia

252
Q

A middle aged horse presents with a painful abdomen. What medication should be used to control the pain and for sedation?

  • Xylazine and ketamine
  • Xylazine and butorphanol
  • Flunixine meglamine and ketamine
  • Flunixine meglamine and butorphanol
A

Xylazine and butorphanol

253
Q

Dictyocaulus arnfeldi (LUNGWORM) in pastured horses is associated with which animal?

  • Cow
  • Sheep
  • Goat
  • Donkey
A

Donkey

254
Q

What diagnostic test would be performed to diagnose uroperitoneum in a 2 year old colt?

  • Serum BUN
  • Urine BUN
  • Serum creatinine
  • Abdominocentesis
A

Abdominocentesis

Get creatinine to compare creatinine in abdominal fluid to serum​

255
Q

How long must a placenta remain in the mare post-partum to be considered retained?

A

3 hours

256
Q

A horse has fallen down after administration of detomidine. How do you reverse it?

A

Yohimbine

257
Q

Corneal ulcers in sheep are frequently caused by which of the following etiologies?

  • Pseudorabies
  • Mycoplasma
  • Chlamydophila
  • Herpesvirus
A

Chlamydophila

258
Q

An 8 yr old male GSD presents with weakness in the hind legs of 1 week duration. The owner says the dog’s “hips are giving out.” Neurologic exam reveals normal cranial nerves, normal reflexes in the front limbs, hyperreflexia in the rear limbs. Where is the lesion most likely located?

  • C1-C5
  • C6-T2
  • T3-L3
  • L4-S1
A

T3-L3

259
Q

You have just diagnosed equine viral arteritis on a breeding farm, what
is the most appropriate next step?

  • Reassure the owner that EVA is self-limiting and that no specific treatment will be required
  • Euthanize the horse immediately due to potential zoonotic risk
  • Contact state veterinarian
  • Separate the horses by age
A

Contact state veterinarian

EVA is reportable!!

260
Q

What is the most appropriate suture material for wound repair of a contaminated skin laceration to a horse’s dorsal MC3?

  • Vicryl
  • PDS
  • Silk
  • Prolene
A

Prolene

least reactive, use non-absorbable​

261
Q

What is the most appropriate suture pattern for wound repair of a skin laceration to a horse’s dorsal MC3?

  • Horizontal mattress
  • Vertical mattress
  • Simple interrupted
  • Lembert
A

Vertical mattress

262
Q

What is the most effective treatment of trichobezoars in rabbits?

  • Metoclopramide
  • Fiber
  • Pineapple and papaya juice
  • Mineral oil
A

Fiber

263
Q

Which of the following species is most sensitive to ivermectin?

  • Guinea pigs
  • Cats
  • Birds
  • Tortoise and turtles
A

Tortoise and turtles​

264
Q

What is the most humane way to euthanize a 4 month old calf?

  • Blunt force to the head
  • Carbon dioxide
  • Electrocution
  • Gunshot to the head
A

Gunshot to the head

265
Q

A group of goat kids are exhibiting poor growth, fractured limbs, swollen joints, and have bones with thin cortices. What is the most likely cause?

  • Vitamin A deficiency
  • Vitamin D deficiency
  • Vitamin E deficiency
  • Calcium deficiency
A

Vitamin D deficiency - rickets

266
Q

1000 cow herd bulk tank sample has 800,000 SCC. The machinery is clean and there is good post-milking sanitation. What is your next step?

  • Culture a bulk tank sample (blood agar)
  • Culture each individual
  • Cull the whole herd
  • Culture only the clinically affected cattle
A

Culture a bulk tank sample (blood agar)

267
Q

Which vaccine is only available killed?

  • Leptospirosis
  • Distemper
  • FeLV
  • Rabies
A

Leptospirosis - use bacterin vaccine

268
Q

Several lambs/rams in a flock are diagnosed with urolithiasis (most likely struvite). What is the best recommendation you can give the farmer?

  • Increase phosphorus in diet
  • Increase magnesium in diet
  • Increase salt in diet
  • Decrease calcium in diet
A

Increase salt in diet - will increase water intake

Phosphorus and magnesium are components of struvite

269
Q

Under which of the following conditions would infestation with Damalinia species (lice) be most likely?

  • Winter, good BCS, poor hair coat
  • Winter, poor BCS, poor hair coat
  • Summer, poor BCS, good hair coat
  • Summer, good BCS, poor hair coat
A

Winter, poor BCS, poor hair coat

(Damalinia= chewing louse of large animals​)

270
Q

How can you tell a horse is under a deep plane of anesthesia with halothane?

  • Absent corneal reflex
  • Can’t stand
  • Has absent palpebral reflex
A

Absent corneal reflex

271
Q

Placing a mare on progestin. Advice to owners?

  • Tell woman to wear gloves when handling the drug or if pregnant, don’t handle drug
  • No risk to owner
  • Only risk if owner is pregnant
  • Only risk to seniors and children
A

Tell woman to wear gloves when handling the drug or if pregnant, don’t handle drug

272
Q

A horse with non-ulcerated, non-painful, non-pruritic lesions has?

  • Nodular necrobacillosis
  • Dermatophytosis
  • Sarcoid
  • Melanoma
A

Nodular necrobacillosis

Nodular necrobiosis (equine collagenolytic granuloma) is the most common nodular skin disease in horses. You’ll see one or more firm nodules (0.2-1.2 inches, or 0.5-3.0 cm, wide) located in the deep skin layer, primarily on the withers, neck, and back, although they also can appear elsewhere.​

273
Q

Xanthochromia, straining to urinate and decreased perineal tone in horse?

  • EHV-1/EHV-4
  • Yellow star thistle ingestion
  • Polyneuritis
  • WEE
A

EHV-1/EHV-4​

(vaccinate mares at 5, 7, 9 months)

274
Q

3 yo female labrador goes hunting and had a purulent vaginal discharge. What is your next diagnostic?

  • Vaginoscopy
  • Abdominal ultrasound
  • Abdominal radiographs
  • Abdominocentesis
A

Vaginoscopy

275
Q

What is not likely to result in diuresis in ARF dog?

  • Dexamethasone
  • Furosemide
  • Epinephrine
A

Epinephrine

276
Q

What treatment is required for a tooth fracture in a dog involving the enamel but not exposing the pulp cavity?

  • Vital pulpetomy
  • Crown
  • Standard endodontic treatment
  • Smooth and sharp edges of the fracture
A

Smooth and sharp edges of the fracture

277
Q

Complication in toy dog distal radial/ulnar fractures:

A

Malunion due to poor blood supply​

278
Q

What is a possible complication of a simple, closed, transverse fracture of the distal radius in a 3 lb, 3 year old Yorkie?

  • Non-union
  • Osteomyelitis
  • Sequestrum formation
A

Non-union

From decreased blood supply in distal radial diaphyseal fractures​

279
Q

What disease is transmitted transplacentally?

  • Toxascaris leonina
  • Toxocara canis
  • Trichuris vulpis
  • Strongyloides stercoarlis
A

Toxocara canis

280
Q

What analgesic is safe and effective in rabbits?

  • Acetaminophen
  • Ibuprofen
  • Butorphanol
  • Salicylic acid
A

Butorphanol

Meloxicam is best NSAID for rabbits​

281
Q

A dog is referred to you post-cystotomy and appears ill. Abdominal radioraphs and ultrasound are unavailable. What is most indicative of leakage from the bladder?

  • BUN abdominal fluids > serum
  • BUN abdominal fluid < serum
  • Creatinine abdominal fluid > serum
  • Creatinine abdominal fluid < serum
A

Creatinine abdominal fluid > serum

282
Q

What is the vector for Borrelia burgdorferi (Lyme disease)?

A

Ixodes

283
Q

Lymphadenopathy, fever, inclusions in neutrophils in a cow:

A

Anaplasma phagocytophilum

  • Transmitted by Ixodes pacificus in CA
  • Bovine granulocytic ehrlichiosis
284
Q

An adult horse with limb edema, icterus, anemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, neutrophilic inclusions has what?

  • a)Ehrlichia risticii
  • b)Anaplasma phagocytophilum
  • c)Equine viral arteritis
  • d)Equine herpesvirus
A

Anaplasma phagocytophilum

285
Q

Following uncomplicated TV for heatstroke, a dog is at risk for:

A

DIC

286
Q

Hypoderma bovis infected cattle hide. What do you do?

  • a)Condemn the carcass
  • b)Condemn the hide
  • c)Condemn the meat
  • d)Nothing
A

Condemn the hide

287
Q

When is an LDA most likely to develop?

  • a)Within the first month of lactating
  • b)Once lactation has finished
  • c)Two months before lactaiton
A

Within the first month of lactating

288
Q

What is the best treatment for oleander toxicosis in cattle?

  • a)Rumenotomy
  • b)Cull
  • c)Omentopexy
A

Rumenotomy

289
Q

What causes a head tilt and ear droop in rabbits?

  • a)Rabies
  • b)E. cuniculi and Pasteurella multocida
  • c)Clostridium piliform
  • d)Salmonella spp.
A

E. cuniculi and Pasteurella multocida

290
Q

What are clinical signs of cerebellar disease?

  • a)Hypermetria, ataxia, tremors
  • b)Tremors, head tilt, hind limb paresis
  • c)Hypermetria, head tilt, hind limb paresis
  • d)Ataxia, tremors, head tilt
A

Hypermetria, ataxia, tremors

291
Q

Management of parasites on a pasture

  • a)Clean up fecal matter twice per week
  • b)Clean up fecal matter every 2 weeks
  • c)Clean up fecal matter every month
  • d)Clean up fecal matter every 2 months
A

Clean up fecal matter twice per week

292
Q

2 year old cat with unilateral nasal discharge and headshaking. What is most likely diagnosis?

  • a)Neoplasia
  • b)Chronic upper respiratory tract infection
  • c)Otodectes cynoti
  • d)Nasopharyngeal polyp
A

Nasopharyngeal polyp

293
Q

Dog with mitral insufficiency will have which of the following signs?

  • a)Weight loss and cyanosis
  • b)Systolic murmur and cough
  • c)Systolic murmur and ascites
  • d)Systolic murmur and cyanosis
A

Systolic murmur and cough - LCHF

294
Q

You have a cat with sinusitis and suspect calicivirus. What other clinical finding would you likely see?

  • a)Bronchitis
  • b)Diarrhea/vomiting
  • c)Corneal ulceration
  • d)Oral ulcers and lameness
A

Oral ulcers and lameness

  • Limping kitten syndrome!!!
  • Calicivirus= sinusitis, oral ulcers, lameness
295
Q

Which of the following disease carried by rhesus macaques is the biggest problem if transmitted to humans?

  • a)Herpes simian B virus
  • b)Hepatitis
  • c)Cytomegalovirus
  • d)Respiratory syncitial virus
A

Herpes simian B virus

296
Q

Pregnant client whose cat is serologically positive for toxoplasmosis. Which of the following is true?

a) That cat has been exposed to toxoplasmosis
b) The cat has an active infection
c) The cat is shedding the virus
d) The cat has not been exposed

A

That cat has been exposed to toxoplasmosis

297
Q

What are common physical exam findings of acute anterior uveitis?

  • Miosis, high IOP, blepharospasm
  • Mydriasis, low IOP, blepharospasm
  • Miosis, low IOP, blepharospasm, hyperemia, pain
  • Mydriasis, high IOP blepharospasm
A

Miosis, low IOP, blepharospasm, hyperemia, pain

298
Q

A bull has had a sample of smegma from his sheath cultured in a Trichomonas pouch. Flagellated organisms are isolated in the media (Bull cultures positive for T. foetus).What do you do?

  • a)Turn the bull out with a group of cows
  • b)Cull
  • c)Re-culture in 2 weeks
  • d)Perform further diagnostics on the sample
A

Cull

299
Q

A cow presents with bilateral corneal opacity, epiphora, and blepharospasm. There is 4mm of corneal neovascularization on the right eye. Fluoroscein stain reveals 3mm of uptake in the left eye and 10mm uptake in the right eye. What is next?

  • a)Biopsy for SCC
  • b)Cryotherapy of neovascularization
  • c)Flush nasolacrimal duct
  • d)Digitally palpate around the 3rd eyelid for plant awns
A

Digitally palpate around the 3rd eyelid for plant awns

300
Q

Transporting a 24 month old bull from Oregon to California, you need to test for which diseases:

  • Brucellosis, Trichomonosis, Tuberculosis
  • Tuberculosis, mastitis, brucellosis
  • Polioencephalomalacia, brucellosis, tuberculosis
  • Endometritis, trichomoniasis, tuberculosis
A

Brucellosis, Trichomonosis, Tuberculosis

301
Q

Common indication for feline dental extraction:

  • Hypereruption
  • Dentigerous cyst
  • Hypoplastic enamel
  • Odontoclastic resorptive lesion
A

Odontoclastic resorptive lesion

302
Q

Feline presented for stiffness and lameness in all 4 limbs. On PE all 4 limbs have decreased range of motion in joints. Radiographs show multiple locations of vertebral spondylosis and exostoses around joints. Owner feeds home cooked diet of exclusively liver. Diagnose which nutrient disease?

  • Hypocalcemia
  • Vitamin D deficiency
  • Vitamin A toxicity
  • Vitamin E toxicity
A

Vitamin A toxicity

  • Common in raw and organ diets
  • Results in exostoses
  • C/S: neck pain, rigidity, lameness
303
Q

What is the vector for WEE?

  • Tick
  • Mosquito
  • Gnat
  • Sand fly
A

Mosquito

Bird is the reservoir!

304
Q

Who may sign a health certificate?

  • A CA licensed veterinarian
  • A veterinarian approved by CDFA
  • Any licensed veterinarian from the state can sign a health certificate from that state
  • An accredited federal vet or CA licensed veterinarian by the USDA
A

An accredited federal vet or CA licensed veterinarian by the USDA

305
Q

In order to give brucella vaccine in CA, you need to have a contract with _______ and accredited by _______

A

In order to give brucella vaccine in CA, you need to have a contract with CDFA and accredited by USDA

306
Q

A dog with C6-T2 spinal cord lesion would present with which of the following signs?

  • a)UMN signs in pelvic and thoracic limbs
  • b)Normal thoracic limbs, UMN signs in pelvic limbs
  • c)Normal thoracic limbs, LMN signs in pelvic limbs
  • d)LMN signs thoracic limbs, UMN signs in pelvic limbs
A

LMN signs thoracic limbs, UMN signs in pelvic limbs

307
Q

An 8 week old kitten with fever, pot belly, and poor hair coat is presented. Evaluation of a viscous material from abdominocentesis indicates the problem is:

  • a)Panleukopenia
  • b)FeLV
  • c)FIP
  • d)Ascarids
A

FIP

pyogranulomatous inflammation

308
Q

Which disease must be tested for interstate transport/cross state line with horses?

  • a)EVA
  • b)EHV-1
  • c)EIA
  • d)Rabies
A

EIA - need a negative Coggins!

309
Q

What treatment is best for mildly contracted tendons in a foal?

  • a)Increased exercise, tenotomy
  • b)Increased exercise, oxytetracycline
  • c)Splint, tenotomy
  • d)Splint, oxytetracycline
A

Splint, oxytetracycline

310
Q

A cat housed outdoors presents for acute severe blepharospasm of the right eye. What diagnostic procedure should you do first?

  • a)Search for a foreign body
  • b)Check intraocular pressure
  • c)Fluorescein stain
  • d)Schirmer tear test
A

Search for a foreign body

311
Q

What is the best way to test for Ionophore (Monensin) toxicity?

  • a)Serum
  • b)Feed
  • c)Plasma
  • d)Urine
A

Feed

312
Q

Consistent post-mortem lesion with P. multocida and Actinobacillus (Haemophilus) pleuopneumoniae in pigs?

  • Fibrinopurulent polyarthritis
  • Meningoencephalitis
  • Fibrinous pleuritis and pericarditis
  • Cranioventral consolidation
A

Fibrinous pleuritis and pericarditis

Cranioventral consolidation = mycoplasma hypopneumoniae

313
Q

What is the best way to tell if a pet parrot is dehydrated?

  • a)Ulnar vein refill time
  • b)Heart and respiratory rate
  • c)Basilic vein refill time
A

Basilic vein refill time

*Basilic vein is also known as the cutaneous ulnar vein*​

314
Q

Which of the following has No anti-inflammatory effects?

  • Aspirin
  • Carprofen
  • Ketoprofen
  • Acetaminophen
A

Acetaminophen

It is an analgesic and antipyretic, but not anti-inflammatory​

315
Q

Cat with facial edema and swelling, tachypnea, muddy mm, tachycardia: __________ toxicity

A

Acetaminophen

Can also see cns depression, anorexia, vomiting, diarrhea, swollen face, paws, salivation, coma, death, methemoglobinemia​

316
Q

Best way to relieve chronic bloat in a cow with tetanus?

  • a)Tube the rumen
  • b)Create a rumen fistula
  • c)Mineral oil
  • d)Bloat guard
A

Create a rumen fistula

317
Q

Which of the following are considered to cause/contribute to feline HCM?

  • Acromegaly, hyperthyroid
  • Acromegaly, hyperparathyroid
  • Taurine deficiency, hyperthyroid
  • Taurine deficiency, hyperparathyroid
A

Acromegaly, hyperthyroid

318
Q

A bird breeder with a bunch of birds has some of the birds come down with Aspergillosis. What do you tell them?

  • This is a serious zoonotic disease
  • All birds need to be treated because it is highly contagious
  • This is an opportunistic infection and should address any predisposing environmental factors
A

This is an opportunistic infection and should address any predisposing environmental factors

319
Q

Most common place for enteroliths in the horse:

  • Transverse colon
  • Ileocolic junction
  • Cecum
  • Small intestine
A

Transverse colon

320
Q

What is polycythemia rubra vera?

A

Absolute increase in RBC and hematocrit

321
Q

What is an acanthocyte?

  • Fragments of RBCs
  • RBC with points/spiculation
  • RBC with nuclear remnant body
  • RBC with target sign
A

RBC with points/spiculation

322
Q

What are sequelae of Banamine overdose in cattle?

  • Liver abscess
  • Endotoxic shock
  • Rumen impaction
  • GI ulceration
A

GI ulceration

323
Q

Best for surgical analgesia of bovine digit:

  • Abaxial
  • Epidural with 2% lidocaine
  • Tourniquet and IV morphine
  • Tourniquet and 2% lidocaine IV
A

Tourniquet and 2% lidocaine IV

324
Q

How do you diagnose a displaced abomasum in a cow?

  • Abdominocentesis
  • Rectal palpation
  • Abdominal auscultation and percussion
  • Abdominal ballottement
A

Abdominal auscultation and percussion

PING!

325
Q

You are presented with a cow that came into milk 24 hours ago, she is recumbent, depressed and with decreased rumen contractility and motility. What is the most likely cause of these signs?

  • Ketosis
  • Hypokalemia
  • Hypocalcemia
  • Hypercalcemia
A

Hypocalcemia

  • Aka milk fever
  • Occurs soon after freshening
  • Recumbent, depressed, decreased rumen motility
326
Q

A healthy horse presents to you for a routine breeding exam. On abdominal ultrasound you see non-homogenous echogenic material swirling in the bladder. What is your top ddx?

  • Neoplasia
  • Hematuria
  • Cystic calculi
  • Normal horse
A

Normal horse

327
Q

An 8 week old kitten presents with otitis externa secondary to Otodectes infection.
Which of the following topical treatments would you use?

  • Rotenone
  • Mineral oil
  • Selamectin
  • Pyrethrin spray
A

Selamectin (Revolution®)

328
Q

Which of the following poultry diseases must be reported 24 hours after discovery?

  • Pullorum
  • Infectious bronchitis
  • Avian influenza
  • Psittacosis
A

Avian influenza

  • Avian influenza (within 24 hours)
  • Pullorum (within 2 days)
  • Infectious bronchitis (reported monthly)
  • Psittacosis (within 2 days)
329
Q

Which of the following emergency diseases should be reported in sheep in 24 hours?

  • Scrapie
  • Rift valley fever
  • Brucellosis
  • Q-fever
A

Rift valley fever

  • Rift Valley Fever - 24 hours
  • Scrapie - 2 days
  • Brucellosis - 2 days
  • Q fever - 30 days
330
Q

Horse with mild colic episodes that respond to medical therapy. But they are getting progressively more frequent and severe. There is no improvement with antiparasitics and change of feed or exercise. Next step?

  • Give NSAIDs for 2 weeks
  • Send it home and recheck in 1 month
  • Abdominal ultrasound
  • Refer for abdominal radiograph
A

Refer for abdominal radiograph

331
Q

A miniature horse presents with anorexia. She has a severely elevated GGT, low BUN, low glucose and high creatinine. What is her most likely disease?

  • Viral hepatitis
  • Hepatic lipidosis
  • Theiler’s disease
  • Clostridium difficile
A

Hepatic lipidosis

332
Q

Six month old goats have died on an irrigated pasture. Few have inappetance, weight loss and pale mm.

  • Anaplasmosis
  • CAEV
  • Tapeworm
  • Haemonchus contortus
A

Haemonchus contortus

333
Q

Which age group of cattle is most susceptible to severe clinical signs from anaplasmosis?

A

older cattle

334
Q

Horse is 2/5 lame on the right front. Becomes sound after a palmar digital nerve block. You let that block wear off and then perform a distal interphalangeal joint block. After 5 minutes the horse is sound. Where is the lameness located?

  • Dorsal hoof wall
  • Superficial digital flexor tendon
  • Navicular bursa
  • Proximal interphalangeal joint
A

Navicular bursa

335
Q

Horse with recurrent choke. Which of the following would you recommend for diet?

  • Chopped hay
  • Soaked hay
  • Soaked pellets
  • Alfalfa cubes
A

Soaked pellets

336
Q

If you distance yourself by a factor of 2 from a radiation source, it will reduce your exposure by what fraction?

  • ½
  • ¼
  • 1/6
  • 1/8
A

¼

337
Q

For how long can you refill a rimadyl or non-controlled substance without seeing the patient?

A

12 months

338
Q

What could you do to prevent polyarthritis and pneumonia in kids (CAEV)?

  • Feed the kids pasteurized milk
  • Vaccinate the kids at 2 weeks of age
  • Give antibiotics to kids at 2 weeks of age
  • Vaccinate dams 2 months prior to kidding
A

Feed the kids pasteurized milk

  • No effective vaccine
  • Most common transmission is via colostrum so don’t let them suckle!
339
Q

Cow shipped to fair in Arizona. Who do you call to find out the shipping requirements?

  • AZ state department of agriculture
  • California state department of agriculture
  • USDA office in CA
  • USDA office in AZ
A

AZ state department of agriculture

If shipping out of state, contact the receiving state’s department of agriculture

340
Q

What are the clinical signs most consistently seen with snake bite?

  • Two puncture wounds
  • Regions of necrotic tissue
  • Edema and erythema
  • Fang puncture wounds
A

Edema and erythema

341
Q

A horse has exertional rhabdomyolysis. What do you advise the owner?

A

Have consistent and steady exercise

342
Q

Pre-purchase exam radiographs belong to:

A

the BUYER’S veterinarian

343
Q

Young dog with presumed parvovirus is vomiting and has diarrhea. Which of the following is the most likely sequelae?

  • Fever and septicemia
  • Septicemia and DIC
  • Hypothermia and dehydration
  • Electrolyte imbalances and dehydration
A

Electrolyte imbalances and dehydration

344
Q

When cooling a hyperthermic patient, drop before normothermia because:

A

the after drop can cause hypothermia if you don’t

345
Q

What is the most common zoonotic disease that is transmitted from rabbits to humans?

  • Dermatophytes
  • Pasteurella multocida
  • E. cuniculi
A

Dermatophytes

T. mentagrophytes

346
Q

A dog has raised lesions on its inguinal area and abdomen that are diagnosed as cutaneous hemangioma. What environmental changes do you make?

  • Decrease sunlight
  • Increase sunlight
  • Grass
  • Cement floor
A

Decrease sunlight

347
Q

A puppy was diagnosed with demodex and treated with amitraz. He is now lethargic and hypothermic. What is contraindicated?

  • IV fluids
  • Induce emesis
  • Bathe in warm water
  • IV yohimbine
A

Induce emesis

  • Amitraz is an organophosphate given topically
  • ATROPINE and PRALIDOXIME are the preferred treatments for ORGANOPHOSPHATE TOXICITY
348
Q

A fentanyl patch was placed on the back of a dog. What drug should you avoid using due to its antagonistic effects?

  • Morphine
  • Carprofen
  • Butorphanol
  • Metacam
A

Butorphanol

  • Butorphanol = mu antagonist, kappa agonist
  • Fentanyl = synthetic mu agonist
349
Q

A dog vomits blue/green pellets and is noise sensitive with other clinical signs. What was ingested?

  • Bromethalin
  • Strychnine
  • Warfarin
  • Cholecalciferol
A

Strychnine

Strychnine = rat bait!​

350
Q

How long do you have to keep medical records by law?

A

3 years

351
Q

How long do you have to keep prescription records according to law?

A

3 years

Same as medical records

352
Q

You are worried about passive transfer in a foal that is dehydrated. What test will be falsely elevated?

  • Refractometer total proteins
  • Zinc sulfate turbidity test
  • Radial immunodiffusion
A

Refractometer total proteins

353
Q

A horse was given a high dose of banamine. You need to adjust the dose. What test do you do to look for the side effects of banamine?

  • a)Measure BUN
  • b)Creatinine
  • c)Fecal occult blood
  • d)Total proteins
A

Fecal occult blood

Bleeding due to GI ulcer

354
Q

To maintain a veterinary-client relationship, you must examine the patient within:

A

12 months

355
Q

Sensitivity questions: 60 cats test positive for FIP, 40 test negative for FIP. Post mortem exam showed that only 30 cats of that tested positive actually had FIP and that 10 of the cats that tested negative, had FIP. What is the sensitivity?

  • a)25%
  • b)40%
  • c)60%
  • d)75%
A

75%

356
Q

What cell type is affected by Anaplasma phagocytophilum?

  • Neutrophils and eosinophils
  • Lymphocytes and macrophages
  • Eosinophils and basophils
  • Neutrophils and basophils
A

Neutrophils and eosinophils

357
Q

Horse with a droopy right eyelid, right ear, curled left lip, circling to the right, head tilt to the right, nystagmus with fast phase to the left. What is your first diagnostic test?

  • Head radiographs
  • Nasopharyngeal endoscopy
  • CSF tap
A

Nasopharyngeal endoscopy

Examine for guttural pouch mycosis

358
Q

Which is not zoonotic?

  • Brucella mellitensis
  • Bartonella henselae
  • Franciscella tularemia
  • Feline herpes virus
A

Feline herpes virus

359
Q

A healthy cow without any clinical signs has a SCC of the eye. What do you do?

  • a)Euthanize
  • b)Condemn the carcass
  • c)Enucleate the eye
  • d)Call the state vet
A

Enucleate the eye

360
Q

A SCC of the eye of a cow. What do you do?

  • a)Closet the skin
  • b)Remove the parotid gland
  • c)Remove the mass
  • d)Do nothing
A

Remove the mass

**Will be condemned at slaughter​**

361
Q

What is the most common cause of exophthalmos in cows?

  • a)Lymphoma
  • b)SCC
  • c)Corneal ulcer
  • d)Uveitits
A

Lymphoma

362
Q

A Yorkie puppy has retained deciduous teeth. What do you tell the owner?

  • a)Remove when elective castration is performed
  • b)Leave it in, won’t cause a problem
  • c)Pull immediately
  • d)Pull in 1 year with routine periodontal treatment
A

Remove when elective castration is performed

363
Q

Zoonotic fungal disease from dog to cat:

A

Sporothricosis (sporothrix)

364
Q

What is a common cause of sickness/death of horses?

  • Feed mixed with chicken feed
  • 4th harvest alfalfa
  • Hay
A

Feed mixed with chicken feed

High in nitrates

365
Q

Enteroliths in the large colon cause what clinical signs?

  • a)Decreased appetite, diarrhea, mild abdominal pain
  • b)Decreased appetite, bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain
  • c)Increased appetite, flatulence, moderate abdominal pain
A

Decreased appetite, diarrhea, mild abdominal pain

366
Q

Where do you hear a ping for RDA?

A

Right side on ribs 10-13

More cranial than LDA​

367
Q

What is the worst immediate cause of death in a cow?

  • Milk tetany
  • Dystocia
  • Grass tetany
A

Milk tetany

In the most acute form, affected cows, which may appear to be grazing normally, suddenly throw up their heads, bellow, gallop in a blind frenzy, fall, and exhibit severe paddling convulsions. These convulsive episodes may be repeated at short intervals, and death usually occurs within a few hours. In many instances, animals at pasture are found dead without observed illness, but an indication that the animal had convulsions before death may be seen from marks on the ground. ​

368
Q

For laminitis, which block is most appropriate?

  • Palmar digital block
  • Interphalangeal block
  • Acepromazine
  • Low 4-point nerve block
A

Palmar digital block

369
Q

LA with septic arthritis. Which joint can you block with regional perfusion?

A

Distal interphalangeal

370
Q

Metastatic rate of recurrence of an acanthomatous epulis is:

  • None
  • Low recurrence rate
  • Moderate local invasion
  • Moderate systemic invasion and lymphadenopathy
A

Low recurrence rate

371
Q

A Bernese Mountain Dog with histiocytic sarcoma has what prognosis:

  • Poor/guarded prognosis with chemotherapy
  • Great prognosis with chemotherapy
  • Excellent prognosis with no treatment
A

Poor/guarded prognosis with chemotherapy

372
Q

A Yorkie with intermittent shifting lameness has what?

  • CCL tear
  • Hip dysplasia
  • Panosteitis
  • Medial patellar luxation
A

Medial patellar luxation

373
Q

An abdominal ultrasound in a pregnant dog should be done during:

  • Day 12
  • Day 26
  • Day 28
  • Day 30
A

Day 30

Day 30: embryonic vesicles

374
Q

Abdominal palpation in a pregnant dog can be done at?

A

25-28 days

375
Q

Palpation of a cow with 2 finger placentomes is how far along?

  • 30 days
  • 60 days
  • 80 days
  • 120 days
A

80 days

  • 30 days - membrane slip
  • 60 days - fetus palpable
  • 80 days - placentomes
  • 120 days - fremitus
376
Q

What drug can be used in a lactating cow?

  • Gentamicn
  • PPG
  • Ceftiofur
  • Sulfa drugs
A

Ceftiofur IM - no withdrawal!

377
Q

Treatment options for anaplasma?

  • Enrofloxacin
  • Tetracycline
  • Penicillin
  • Aminoglycoside
A

Tetracycline

378
Q

Glaucoma: which drug is inappropriate?

  • Topical beta-blocker
  • Prostanglandin analogue
  • Loop diuretic
  • Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
A

Loop diuretic

Want an osmotic diuretic such as mannitol​

379
Q

A dog with exposure to amanita mushrooms. How do you definitively diagnose it?

  • a)Stomach contents
  • b)Liver biopsy
  • c)Renal biopsy
  • d)Serum
A

Liver biopsy

Mushrooms are hepatotoxic​

380
Q

US of cushingoid liver will look:

A
  • Diffusely Hyperechoic
  • Highly granular
381
Q

Horse ovulated and 8 days later is in heat:

  • a)Endometritis
  • b)Nymphomania
  • c)Transitional period
  • d)Vaginitis
A

Transitional period

382
Q

EVA diagnosis:

  • a)Histopathology of placenta
  • b)Histopathology of uterus
  • c)Endometrium
  • d)Serum
A

Histopathology of placenta

Unsure about this one

383
Q

Arthrogryposis (ankylosis of the limbs) and intestines of the fetus are in the placenta of a pregnant horse. This is caused from:

  • Uterine torsion
  • Uterine tear
  • Schistosomus reflexus
A

Schistosomus reflexus

  • Fissure of the abdominal wall - open body cavity
  • Retroflexion of spinal column and joint akylosisà agrothroposis
384
Q

Cow with a calf coming out backward. How do you reposition it for proper delivery?

  • a)Dorsosacral
  • b)Ventrosacral
  • c)Dorsoileal
A

Dorsosacral

Dorsosacral, anterior, limbs extended

385
Q

Contagious ecthyma (orf/soremouth) of 4H goats. What do you do?

  • a)Do nothing
  • b)Supportive care
  • c)Vaccinate
  • d)Cull
A

Vaccinate

  • Zoonotic!!
  • Poxvirus
  • Affects sheep and goats
  • Very resistant to environmental elimination
386
Q

Aspergillosis in birds affects what organ system?

  • a)Liver
  • b)Lungs
  • c)Spleen
  • d)Kidney
A

Lungs

387
Q

Mammary hyperplasia in a cat can assume what?

A

Has not been spayed

388
Q

By law, a pre-anesthetic work up must include what?

  • a)CBC
  • b)Physical exam
  • c)Chemistry panel
  • d)Urinalysis
A

Physical exam

389
Q

Doberman with thoracic limb lameness. What is your next diagnostic step?

  • a)Orthopedic exam
  • b)Radiographs
  • c)Echocardiogram
  • d)Nail trim
  • e)Abdominal ultrasound
A

Orthopedic exam

390
Q

Which is an immediate emergency in a horse?

  • a)Laminitis
  • b)Conjunctivitis without blepharospasm
  • c)Alopecia
  • d)Obesity
A

Laminitis

391
Q

Client with a cat in a carrier that is non-responsive. She bangs on the carrier and the cat becomes aggressive and tries to attack her. What three diseases could this cat have?

  • Rabies, hepatic encephalopathy, lead toxicity
  • Rabies, lead, tetanus
A

Rabies, hepatic encephalopathy, lead toxicity

392
Q

How long do you have to hold an animal in the hospital before it is considered abandoned?

  • 7 days
  • 14 days
  • 30 days
  • 60 days
A

14 days

You can legally euthanize 10 days after the 14 day hold period​

393
Q

How do you abort a pregnant dog?

  • Prolactin inhibitors
  • Prostaglandin
  • Dexamethasone
A

Prolactin inhibitors

If there is no answer choice with prolactin inhibitors, choose Prostaglandin!

394
Q

Where do you apply a skin twitch in a horse?

A

On the neck skin

395
Q

What isn’t a clinical sign of snake bites?

  • a)Local necrosis and sloughing of skin
  • b)Hypersensitivity reaction
  • c)Emesis
  • d)Coagulopathy/DIC
A

Emesis

396
Q

Ehrlichia canis has an affinity for what cell type?

  • Monocytes
  • Neutrophils - anaplasma
  • Eosinophils
A

Monocytes

(Neutrophils - anaplasma​)

397
Q

How long should you quarantine birds before introducing them into a new home?

  • 30 days
  • 1 week
  • 14 days
  • No quarantine needed
A

30 days

Want to quarantine for 30-45 days for chlamydophila​

398
Q

A wild animal bites a cat. What should you consider?

  • a)Consider it to be unvaccinated
  • b)Do nothing
  • c)Depends on the animal
A

Consider it to be unvaccinated

399
Q

Which feed makes horses urinate more? Makes horses PU/PD

  • a)Timothy hay
  • b)Alfalfa hay
  • c)Oat
  • d)Rye
A

Alfalfa hay

400
Q

Cocciodiomycosis dog: how to diagnose?

  • a)Serum IgM and IgG AB AGID
  • b)Serum AB complement fixation
  • c)ELISA snap test
  • d)Culture
A

Serum IgM and IgG AB AGID - low false positives

401
Q

What group of cattle most likely to get coccidia and what is the treatment of choice?

  • 4 month old heifer in pen – tx with monensin
  • 4 month old heifer on pasture – tx with monensin
  • Feed lot + tetracycline
A

4 month old heifer in pen – tx with monensin

402
Q

Requirements to OK an interstate transport of livestock

  • a)Federal certification and accreditation
  • b)California license and federal accreditation
  • c)California license and federal certification
  • d)California certification and federal accreditation
A

California license and federal accreditation

403
Q

Dog mauled by bear; dog has erect ears and lips stretched back. Dog has?

  • a)Rabies
  • b)Tetanus
  • c)Botulism
  • d)Hepatic encephalopathy
A

Tetanus

404
Q

Anesthetics that should not be used with animals that have hepatic disease:

A

Halothane and thiopental

405
Q

Geese with flaccid/floppy neck:

  • a)Botulism
  • b)Lead toxicity
  • c)Tetanus
  • d)Pasteurella multocida
A

Botulism

406
Q

Goat is given Clenbuterol before 4-H fair:

  • a)Euthanize and not for human consumption
  • b)Wait 30 or 60 days until slaughter
  • c)Can euthanize and use for human consumption
  • d)Only lungs are condemned
A

Euthanize and not for human consumption

407
Q

Cat with saddle thrombus – what do you look for on necropsy?

  • DCM
  • Right sided HCM
  • Left sided HCM
A

Left sided HCM

concentric hypertrophy and left heart hypertrophy

408
Q

Red, sore lesion on foot of cow with long hair around it:

  • Interdigital necrobacillus
  • Papilloma
  • Footrot
A

Papilloma

hairy foot warts of papillomatous digital dermatitis​

  • Treat with tetracycline
  • Caused by treponema
409
Q

5% cows dead, recumbent, staggering (polioencephalomalacia). What is your treatment?

  • Selenium/Vit E
  • Oxytetracycline
  • Penicillin G
  • Vitamin B
A

Vitamin B

410
Q

Pigs on pasture – what parasite should you look for?

  • Ascaris suum
  • Trichuris suis
  • Trichinella
  • Stephanurus dentatus
A

Trichuris suis (whipworm), prevent by raising pigs off soil

  • Ascaris suum - roundworm, milk spots
  • Trichinella - wild pigs and game species
  • Stephanurus dentatus - kidney worm, needs earthworms
411
Q

The treatment of choice for giardia in dogs and cats is what?

  • Albon
  • Cephalexin
  • Metronidazole
  • Ivermectin
A

Metronidazole

  • Albon - coccidia
  • Cephalexin - bacteria
  • Ivermectin - parasites
412
Q

Ceftiofur withdrawal time?

A

0 hours

413
Q

Sick cow, fever, left sided ping, positive grunt test, reluctant to move, arched back?

  • a)LDA
  • b)Cecal torsion
  • c)TRP
  • d)Metritis
A

TRP (hardware disease)

414
Q

Induced ovulator?

  • a)Hamster
  • b)Guinea pig
  • c)Rabbit
  • d)Rat
A

Rabbit

Induced ovulators = rabbits, ferrets, cats, camelids​

415
Q

What is the risk of WEE being transferred from horses to humans?

  • Viremia in horse is too low to infect mosquitos
  • Horses die too quickly
  • Easily contracted from horses
A

Viremia in horse is too low to infect mosquitos

Transmission to humans is very rare​

416
Q

Reversal for oxymorphone

A

Naloxone

417
Q

Pruritic lesion in a dog:

  • Dermodex
  • Sarcoptes scabeii
  • Dermatophytes
  • Superficial pyoderma
A

Sarcoptes scabei

  • Dermodex - alopecia and folliculitis
  • Dermatophytes - alopecia and folliculitis
  • Superficial pyoderma
418
Q

You have a dog with a round, scaly, hyperpigmented, alopecic lesion, what is the most appropriate diagnostic test?

  • Bacterial culture
  • LE stain
  • Cytology
  • Fungal culture/skin scrape
A

Fungal culture/skin scrape - dermatophytes

419
Q

Horse, caudal maxillary teeth infection can cause:

  • a)Maxillary Sinusitis
  • b)Otitis media
  • c)Uveitis
A

Maxillary Sinusitis

420
Q

How long to keep an ex-employee’s x-ray info for radiation exposure after termination of employment:

  • a)3 years
  • b)7 years
  • c)10 years
  • d)30 years
A

30 years

421
Q

RVT can do this under direct vet supervision:

  • a)Extract teeth
  • b)Diagnose
  • c)Dispense drug
  • d)Make incision
A

Extract teeth

422
Q

Horse had temp 100.8, P=38, R=10:

  • a)Normal
  • b)Tachypneic and tachycardic
  • c)Fever, tachycardia
A

Normal

423
Q

Outcome of veratrum californicum (skunk cabbage)?

  • No problem
  • Fetal deformities
  • Hydrops
  • Abortion
A

Fetal deformities - cyclopia

424
Q

What do you report to the Department of Justice/ government?

  • a)Class II drugs dispensed
  • b)Class II drugs administered
  • c)Class IV drugs dispensed
  • d)Class IV drugs administered
A

Class II drugs dispensed

425
Q

Cutaneous larval migrans is caused by what parasite?

A

Ancylostoma

426
Q

TX for cutaneous cryptococcus:

A

Surgery and antifungal

427
Q

Broodmare vaccination schedule:

  • EHV-1 and EHV-4 at 1, 3, 5 months
  • EHV-1 and EHV-4 at 5, 7, 9 months
  • EPM at 1, 3, 5 months
  • EPM at 5, 7, 9 months
A

EHV-1 and EHV-4 at 5, 7, 9 months

428
Q

What should be done to treat/prevent mycoplasma and positive (contagious) mastitis:

  • a)Test and cull
  • b)Treat positive
  • c)Cull everything
  • d)Clean machines
A

Test and cull

429
Q

Budgies sick, dead, intranuclear inclusions in liver, spleen, kidney. Lesions in heart, lung, spleen, liver:

  • Pacheco’s disease
  • Avian influenza
  • Polyoma virus
  • Marek’s disease
A

Polyoma virus

  • Seen in young birds – high prevalence in psittacines/budgerigars
  • Acute onset of lethargy, crop stasis, death within 24-48 hrs
  • SC hemorrhage with injections
  • Pale skeletal muscles, SC hemorrhage, kidneys/liver enlarged
  • Intranuclear inclusions in the liver, kidney, spleen, heart, bone marrow, uropygial gland, skin, feather follicles
  • Dx: cloacal and choanal swabs for PCR
  • Vx available
430
Q

Pregnant mare with T=100.2, P=48, R=20:

A

Normal temp, high P and R

  • Normals
    • T: 99-100.8
    • P: 28-40
    • R: 10-14
431
Q

Canary presents for voice change and has lesions in liver, lungs, spleen, and heart. What is the dx?

A

Aspergillosis

432
Q

Reportable disease in birds:

  • Newcastle, avian influenza
  • Marek’s disease
  • Infectious coryza
  • Infectious bronchitis
A

Newcastle, avian influenza

433
Q

Horse that is drooling with flickering tongue. Dx:

  • Jimson weed
  • Guttural pouch mycosis
  • Strangles
  • Yellow star thistle poisoning
A

Yellow star thistle poisoning - unable to chew

434
Q

What is the incubation period for strangles? Strep. Equi equi

A

3-10 days (3-14 days according to merck)

435
Q

EBA (epizootic bovine foothill abortion) is transmitted by?

A

Ticks

Ornithodoros coriaceus

436
Q

What laboratory parameters are seen with DIC?

  • Increased FDP, decreased platelets, decreased AT III
  • Increased HCT
  • Increased calcium
  • Decreased ALP
A

Increased FDP, decreased platelets, decreased AT III

437
Q

Where to cut to do a fracture repair on tibia?

  • a)Craniomedial
  • b)Caudolateral
  • c)Craniolateral
  • d)Caudomedial
A

Craniomedial

438
Q

Why use acepromazine as preanesthetic?

  • Lowers seizure threshold
  • Potentiates induction drugs
  • Hypotension and tachycardia
  • Can easily be reversible by stimulating the patient
A

Potentiates induction drugs

439
Q

Structure allowing communication between sinus and oropharynx in a bird?

  • Choana
  • Maxillary sinus
  • Pharynx
A

Choana

440
Q

Bird has “clicking” sounds in lungs:

  • Aspergillus
  • Pasteurella multocida
  • Mites
  • Tracheal stenosis
A

Mites - air sac mites

441
Q

Pruritic lesion on cow:

  • Dermacentor
  • Sarcoptes
  • Ring worm
A

Sarcoptes

442
Q

What can a non-vet, non-rvt charge for?

  • a)Teeth extractions
  • b)Cleaning teeth with cotton, gauze and tooth brush
  • c)Using instruments to clean teeth and treat periodontal disease
  • d)Getting rid of calculus and plaque to prevent periodontal disease
A

Cleaning teeth with cotton, gauze and tooth brush​

443
Q

Expiratory effort, problem is where?

  • a)Bronchi
  • b)Trachea
A

Bronchi

  • INSPIRATORY EFFORT= EXTRATHORACIC=UPPER
  • EXPIRATORY EFFORT=INTRATHORACIC=LOWER
444
Q

How do you diagnose physaloptera in dog/cat?

  • Fecal float
  • Fecal smear
  • Tracheal wash
  • Endoscopy
A

Endoscopy

Physaloptera = stomach roundworm in dogs and ​cats

445
Q

Cat is BAR, losing weight, increased vocalization, gallop rhythm, 15 yo. In addition to rads, what else do you do?

  • a)ECHO
  • b)EKG
  • c)Thyroid panel
A

Thyroid panel

446
Q

How long is interstate health certificate good for?

A

30 days

447
Q

What’s the worst progression of corneal ulcer?

  • a)Decreasing blepharospasm without central dye uptake
  • b)Increasing chemosis with no uptake
A

Decreasing blepharospasm without central dye uptake - desmetocele

448
Q

How to tx horse eye with no fluoroscein dye uptake, but anterior uveitis and aqueous flare?

  • Topical antibiotics with corticosteroids, systemic banamine (NSAID)
  • Topical antibiotics without corticosteroids
A

Topical antibiotics with corticosteroids, systemic banamine (NSAID)

449
Q

Dog seizuring after whelping. How do you know its intracranial?

  • Nystagmus
  • Muscle tremoring
  • Lethargy
A

Nystagmus - vertical or rotary

450
Q

While using ketamine for anesthesia in a horse, how do you know when the horse is getting light?

A

Rapid Nystagmus

Horses maintain their cranial nerves and reflexes with ketamine, so they will have a positive palpebral response while under anesthesia

451
Q

Horse was on a trail ride and is now sick. What diagnostic test is most appropriate at this time?

  • a)CBC + buffy coat smear
  • b)Chemistry panel
  • c)PCV only
A

CBC + buffy coat smear

Suspect tick-borne disease​

452
Q

Horse with upper respiratory effort, crackles, wheezes, how to dx?

  • Tracheal wash
  • BAL
  • Atropine challenge test
A

Atropine challenge test

Atropine is primarily used as a preanesthetic to prevent bradycardia and reduce airway secretions, and as emergency therapy of dyspneic animals with organophosphate intoxication. Atropine is also used for bronchodilation in horses. Used as a Bronchodilator to see if has COPD​

453
Q

What predisposes a horse to COPD?

A
  • Dust
  • Hay
  • Decreased ventilation
  • Stalls
454
Q

Diagnosing pancreatitis in a cat:

  • TLI
  • Lipase
  • Amylase
A

TLI

455
Q

What anesthesia is best in animals with a proptosed eye?

  • Propofol
  • Diazepam
  • Butorphanol
  • Buprenorphine
A

Propofol - decreases IOP

456
Q

Best drug for arthritis and pain mangagement in cats:

A

buprenorphine​

457
Q

Anesthetic used in ophthalmic exam on a cat:

  • Ketamine/valium
  • Proparacaine
  • Tropicamide
A

Proparacaine - local anesthetic

  • Ketamine/valium - sedative
  • Tropicamide - dilation of pupil
458
Q

Physical exam of an animal with pleuropneumonia:

  • Increased breath sounds
  • Wheezes
  • Dyspnea
  • Stridor
A

Dyspnea

459
Q

How do you dx pleuritis in a horse?

A

Thoracic ultrasound​

460
Q

Several cows dead, recumbent, some are acutely blind but intact PLR, staggering. What do you treat with while bloodwork is pending?

  • Vitamin A
  • Copper
  • Clavamox
  • Thiamine
A

Thiamine

Suspect polioencephalomalacia!! Treat with thiamine​

461
Q

Sheep weak, afebrile, anemic, hemoglobinemia, hemoglobinuria. DDX?

A

Copper toxicity

462
Q

Palliative care for a horse with proximal enteritis:

A

NG tube​

463
Q

Equine abdominocentesis right on midline has a PCV > than peripheral blood. What did you tap?

A

Spleen

464
Q

Non-complicated diabetic dog treatment:

Insulin SQ SID

Insulin SQ BID

Glypizine PO SID

Glypizine PO BID

A

Insulin SQ BID

465
Q

What drug is used for treating conjunctivitis due to chlamydophila tx?

  • Tetracycline
  • Neomycin
  • Amikacin
  • Gentamicin
A

Tetracycline

466
Q

Where is the virus that is responsible for contagious equine metritis harbored?

A
  • Mare’s clitoral fossa
  • Stallion’s urethral fossa
467
Q

Common cause of equine metritis post-coitus?

A

Streptococcus equi zooepidemicus

468
Q

What pathogen is a major concern in milk?

  • Leptospirosis
  • Brucellosis and tuberculosis
  • Salmonella
  • E. coli
A

Salmonella

469
Q

General clinical signs of salmonella in dogs

A

Vomiting and diarrhea

470
Q

9 month old Filly with mandibular swelling, stridor, respiratory distress. What do you do?

  • Insufflate with oxygen, treat with penicillin
  • Insufflate with oxygen, treat with gentamicin
  • Perform tracheostomy and treat with penicillin
  • Perform tracheostomy and treat with gentamicin
A

Perform tracheostomy and treat with penicillin

Strangles!

471
Q

How do you treat a rabbit with perineal myiasis?

  • a)Mechanical removal
  • b)Ivermectin
  • c)Flush with chlorhexidine
  • d)Put some Tyzzer’s on it
A

Mechanical removal

472
Q

Area of lesions on necropsy of horse that died of sand colic?

  • Small intestine
  • Large colon
  • Cecum
  • Epiploic foramen
A

Large colon

473
Q

Hound gets attacked by a bear one week prior to presentation with generalized muscle
rigidity, lips pulled back and ears erect. Dx?

A

Tetanus

474
Q

How do you treat an unvaccinated horse that was exposed to tetanus?

A

Antitoxin followed by toxoid and repeated in 30 days

475
Q

Cow died, bleeding out of orifices, no rigor mortis, acute death, splenomegaly:

A

ANTHRAX

476
Q

What is the only legal course of action for a dairy cow that has fractured its metacarpus, is down and the owner doesn’t want to treat it?

  • Transport to federal slaughter house and notify of condition beforehand
  • Transport to state slaughter house
  • Euthanize and dispose of carcass according to state and county regulations
  • Slaughter on the dairy for meat consumption
A

Euthanize and dispose of carcass according to state and county regulations

477
Q

Kitten presents with obtundation, ventrolateral strabismus, a noticeable fontanelle. What do you suspect?

  • Hydrocephalus
  • Toxoplasmosis
  • Panleukopenia
  • Feline herpesvirus
A

Hydrocephalus

478
Q

Normal incubation for Rhodococcus equi?

A

14-21 days

479
Q

10 yo Cocker presents for hind leg weakness and has diffuse edema of pelvic limbs. What diagnostic steps should you take?

  • Palpate LN, electrocardiogram (ECG), abdominal u/s or rads
  • Lymphography, LN aspirate, abdominal u/s
  • Palpate LN, cardiac auscultation, abdominal rads
  • Lymphography, auscult heart, something else
A

Palpate LN, cardiac auscultation, abdominal rads

480
Q

Horse has been treated and is ready to go. Client refuses to pay bill as he is going bankrupt. What can you legally do?

  • Refuse client entry to clinic
  • Claim horse as yours
  • Hold horse and charge for board
  • Euthanize horse with swift kick to larynx
A

Hold horse and charge for board - lien laws

481
Q

Cat in a shelter, has a positive ELISA for FeLV. How do you confirm cat has FeLV?

A

ELISA test after 6 months

482
Q

How long after 1st rabies vaccination before animal is considered vaccinated?

A

28 days

483
Q

Who are veterinarians NOT responsible for in regard to radiographs?

  • People under 18 years old,
  • Pregnant women,
  • General responsibility for ensuring employees have on radiation detection badges
  • RVTs
A

RVTs

484
Q

What is the primary environmental pathogen that increases SCC?

  • E. coli or strep. Species that’s not strep agalactiae
  • Mycoplasma
  • Pasteurella
  • Tuberculosis
A

E. coli or strep. Species that’s not strep agalactiae

485
Q

Goat has polyarthritis with white chalky material coming from joints . What is it?

  • Mycoplasma
  • Bluetongue
  • CAEV
A

CAEV

  • M. Mycoides mycoides causes polyarthritis with necrosis
  • CAEV causes polyarthritis with calcification
486
Q

Lethal White Foal Syndrome leads to intestinal _________

A

intestinal aganglionosis

Euthanize immediately once ID’d​

487
Q

Horse has hooks on premolars and molars. What causes this?

  • Soft feed
  • Missing teeth
  • Jaw grown wrong
A

Jaw grown wrong

488
Q

Sheep has caseous lymphadenopathy. What is this?

  • Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
  • Lentivirus
  • Rabiesvirus
  • Staphylococcus aureus
A

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

489
Q

How do you prevent Epizootic Bovine Abortion?

A

Expose heifers before breeding

490
Q

A horse with sarcoids (tumors of eye, skin, genitals). What is NOT a treatment?

  • Ointment (xxterra)
  • Benign neglect
  • Chemotherapy
  • Vaccine
  • Radiation
  • Cryosurgery or surgery
A

Vaccine

491
Q

Horse with Anaplasma (Equine Granulocytic Ehrlichiosis). How do you dx?

  • a)Serum antibodies
  • b)Buffy coat
  • c)RBC smear
A

Buffy coat

Look for intracellular inclusion bodies in neutrophils and eosinophils

492
Q

Horse with decreased platelets, icterus, anemia, neutrophil inclusions:

A

Anaplasma phagocytophilum

Equine Granulocytic Ehrlichiosis​

493
Q

Herd of cattle get sick/anemic, but calves are healthy. DX?

A

Anaplasma

494
Q

Cat with ethylene glycol poisoning. How do you treat?

  • Ethanol
  • Activated charcoal
  • Yohimbine
A

Ethanol

495
Q

Herd of cows. Owner worried about mycoplasma. How do you test for mycoplasma?

A

Bulk tank milk culture

496
Q

Farm with multiple species. All animals have vesicles. What is it?

  • FMD
  • Vesicular stomatitis
  • Vesicular disease of swine
  • BSE
A

Vesicular stomatitis​

Report to state vet​

497
Q

Cow with ulcers in mouth AND lame. Which are possible causes?

  • FMD
  • BVD
  • Vesicular stomatitis
  • Bluetongue
  • IBR
A

FMD and Vesicular stomatitis

498
Q

Intact 5 year old male cat with severe stomatitis probably has:

A

FIV

499
Q

Herd of cows, 20 die/sick within 1 hour. Tongues are out, but cows are alert. What do you
tell the owner?

  • Cull entire herd
  • Continue feed/water, start on antibiotics
  • Stop access to feed/water
  • Isolate all affected cattle, disease is most likely contagious
A

Stop access to feed/water

Stop access to feed and water because could be botulism​

500
Q

Major clinical sign of botulism in cattle:

A

Flaccid paralysis

501
Q

Cows, late march, snow storm, ½ dead. What plant would have killed them?

  • Death camas
  • Larkspur
  • Oakbud
A

Larkspur

Larkspur grows well in cold, often associated with lots of rain and snow. Causes neuromuscular paralysis and cows like eating it​

502
Q

Cows with abortions and calves 2-3 month old with diarrhea. What is it?

  • BVD
  • Neospora
  • Brucella
  • IBR
A

BVD - abortion later in gestation, diarrhea if calf survives

503
Q

Dog with lots of c/s: isothenuria, blood in urine, vomiting. What caused it?

  • Anticoagulant rodenticide
  • Amanita toxicity
  • Metaldehyde toxicity
  • Ethylene glycol
A

Ethylene glycol

504
Q

Sheep have pregnancy toxemia (ketosis). How do you avoid it?

A

Increase energy in diet

505
Q

Your horse has been diagnosed with sand colic. What is the IDEAL treatment?

  • Stall rest, mineral oil, strong laxatives
  • Exercise, offer water, psyllium
  • Strong laxatives, off water, stall rest
  • Feed horse in area where lots of gravel/sand is located
A

Exercise, offer water, psyllium

506
Q

What are the components of horner’s syndrome?

A

“My 3rd Sunken Toe”

  • Miosis
  • 3rd eyelid protrustion
  • Sunken eyes (enophthalmos)
  • Ptosis
507
Q

Horse has a bad eye. What do you do?

  • a)Stain and check
  • b)Ignore
  • c)Remove
A

Stain and check

508
Q

What injury is ultrasound therapy most useful/indicated for?

  • An animal that had muscular and tendon repair on the thigh
  • Broken bone
  • Liver tumor
A

An animal that had muscular and tendon repair on the thigh

  • Heats the soft tissue –> vasodilation –> increased healing
  • Will not cause skin to get hot
  • Must not heat over 45 C
  • Do not use on: eye, uterus, heart, healing fractures, after exercise, growing bones, inflamed blood vessels
509
Q

Need to anesthetize a horse for a 45 minute procedure. Drugs?

A
  • Xylazine
  • Ketamine
  • Guaifenisin
510
Q

Which virus does not typically cause respiratory signs in horses?

  • EVA,
  • EHV-1
  • EHV-4
  • Equine influenza
  • EPM
A

EPM

511
Q

Animal is in left lateral see an opacity in lungs, when in right lateral mass is not visualized?

  • Tumor is in left lung lobe
  • Tumor is in right lung lobe
  • Mass is covered by heart silhouette
  • Developer error
A

Tumor is in right lung lobe

512
Q

Alopecia in young horse:

  • a)Cullicoides
  • b)Dermatophytosis
  • c)Flat sarcoid
A

Dermatophytosis

513
Q

How to diagnose coccidia in neonatal piglets?

  • Fecal float, impression smear of SI & LI
  • Fecal PCR
  • Fecal sediment
  • ELISA test
A

Fecal float, impression smear of SI & LI

514
Q

How to diagnose BRSV?

  • Culture nasal discharge
  • Thoracic radiographs
  • Antigen detection enzyme immunoassay, transtracheal wash
  • Necropsy
A

Antigen detection enzyme immunoassay, transtracheal wash

515
Q

GDV- 180 degree rotation clockwise. What do you expect to see in surgery?

  • Cranioventral pylorus to fundus
  • Caudodorsal pylorus to fundus
  • Caudoventral pylorus to the fundus
  • Craniodorsal pylorus to fundus
A

Caudoventral pylorus to the fundus​

516
Q

Major cause of coliform mastitis?

  • Lack of post dipping
  • Poor hygiene, no pre-dips, poor bedding
  • Leaving udders and teats wet before milking
  • Problem with automated back-flushing system
  • Milking older cows before fresh cows
A

Leaving udders and teats wet before milking

517
Q

A vaccinated bobcat bites a person. How do you treat it?

  • As a vaccinated animal
  • As an unvaccinated animal
A

As an unvaccinated animal

518
Q

Most common isolate in cat bites:

A

Pasteurella​

519
Q

Dog is seizing unrelentingly. The seizures are not associated with environmental triggers:

  • Metaldehyde
  • Strychnine
  • Rodenticide
A

Metaldehyde

Can also cause hypersalivation and tremors

520
Q

You are acquiring your neighbors dairy herd, how do you economically check for mycoplasma mastitis in the herd?

  • CMT on every cow
  • SCC on bulk milk
  • Rectal exam of each cow
  • Culture bulk milk
A

Culture bulk milk

CMT on every cow, then culture if it is positive​

521
Q

Cow has a sore that is super painful in its heel area, and there is hair growing in it:

A

Digital dermatitis, papilloma virus

Treat with topical oxyvet

522
Q

How to you treat salmon poisoning?

A

IV fluids, tetracycline, praziquantel

523
Q

A brachycephalic dog of some sort comes in post trauma. Its eye is hanging out of its socket, the eye is hemorrhagic, and its cornea is ripped open and the iris has prolapsed through:

  • Enucleate eye, systemic antibiotics are not needed
  • Replace eye and put on systemic antibiotics
  • Enucleate the eye and place on systemic antibiotics
  • Replace eye but do not put on systemic antibiotics
A

Enucleate the eye and place on systemic antibiotics

524
Q

5 dairy cows out of 200 show mandibular edema and watery diarrhea. They are happy and afebrile. What is the most likely cause?

  • Johnes
  • Tuberculosis
  • BVD
  • Haemonchus contortus
A

Johnes

Edema from hypoproteinemia​

525
Q

How do you protect from Rhodococcus equi?

  • Prevent dusty environment and crowding
  • Vaccinate
  • Prophylactic antibiotics
  • Prophylactic antivirals
A

Prevent dusty environment and crowding

Dust free, well ventilated prevent overcrowding, remove manure​

526
Q

What is contraindicated when removing a foxtail?

  • Suturing the hole closed
  • Following the line of entry to get to the foxtail
  • Manually grabbing the foxtail with alligator forceps
  • Flushing with dilute povidone iodine
A

Suturing the hole closed

527
Q

Which drug is contraindicated for an animal with increased intracranial pressure?

  • Propofol
  • Ketamine
  • Diazepam
A

Ketamine

528
Q

Cow with Strep agalactia (contagious mastitis). How do you treat it?

A

Quarantine, intramammary ceftiofur during lactation, post-dip teats and cull if chronic

529
Q

Contagious Mastitis pathogens:

A
  • Staph aureus
  • Strep agalactia
  • Mycoplasma
  • Corynebacterium bovis
530
Q

What by law is DVM required to post on their door?

A

Name, Telephone #, hours and emergency clinic location/phone #, emergency #

531
Q

Best way to prevent environmental mastitis:

A

PRE-DIP

532
Q

SCC limit for CALIFORNIA Milk

A

600,000

If more than that, then culture milk of all cows​

533
Q

Treatment for chronic Mycoplasma bovis mastitis:

A

Cull if there are chronic clinical signs

534
Q

You are presented with a 5 yr old dalmatian with bilateral mucopurulent ocular discharge with positive stain uptake in the left eye. What is the most important question to ask the owner?

A

Has the dog been on antibiotics recently?

KCS can be secondary to antibiotics

535
Q

Best place to euthanize a cow?

A

Midway between the eye and the contralateral ear

536
Q

T/F: Gentamicin can be given systemically to a cow

A

False

537
Q

Cutaneous cryptococcus in cat, how do you treat?

A

Surgery + oral ketoconazole

538
Q

Dog ate walnuts. Now hypermetric, tremors, ataxia, opisthotonus. Clinical signs worse when stimulated. What caused clinical signs?

A

Mycotoxin on skin of walnut​

539
Q

First treatment for horse that ate oleander:

A

Activated charcoal​

Oleander contains cardiotoxic compounds​

540
Q

Young (days old) foal with fever, anorexia, lethargy. Has leukocytosis and increased peritoneal fluid. Abdominal ultrasound shows enlarged/dilated urachus. What do you do?

A

Antibiotics then surgery that day

541
Q

Where are avian gonads located?

A

Cranial pole of the kidneys

542
Q

Need to anesthetize a horse for a standing limb procedure. What do you use?

A

Diazepam and ketamine​

543
Q

How to prevent myxomatosus in rabbits:

A

keep away from mosquitos

544
Q

Dog presents after eating meatballs from the ground in a park. Convulsing. What toxicity should you be concerned about?

A

metaldehyde & strychnine

545
Q

What is associated with polytetrafluoroethylene toxicity in birds?

A

Teflon coated pans​

546
Q

What is the best way to prevent toxoplasma transmission to pregnant females?

A

wear gloves when gardening and wash all fruits and vegetables

547
Q

Border collie showing signs of ivermectin toxicity how do you test?

A

Cheek swab for ABCB-1 gene

548
Q

Dachshund presents lame in hindlimbs. You suspect IVDD. What is a major clue in diagnosis?

A

Loss of panniculus in T-L region

549
Q

Bulls present with infertility and cardiac disease. They most likely have exceeded the dietary recommendations of:

A

Cottonseed

550
Q

Horse with SCC on eyelid. What do you tell owner?

A

Radiation is gold standard therapy

Surgical excision for equine squamous cell carcinoma yields ~50% success when used alone. When surgery is combined with cryotherapy, hyperthermia, or local chemotherapy, the success rate is markedly increased​

551
Q

3 month old kitten positive for FIV. What do you do?

A

Retest at 6 months

552
Q

Prominent granulocyte in birds:

A

heterophil

553
Q

HYPP is common in what type of horse?

A

Quarter horse

554
Q

Small toy breed. How do you prevent hypoglycemia?

A

Frequent small meals

555
Q

5 yo cat presents with bilateral nasal swelling, nasal discharge and a mass over nose. The cat is afebrile and the owner has financial constraints. What diagnostic test is indicated in this situation in order to diagnose this cat’s problem?

A

Cytology for crypto

556
Q

What parasite causes ocular larval migrans in children?

A

Toxocara canis​

557
Q

Best for surgical analgesia of bovine digit:

A

Tourniquet and 2% lidocaine IV

558
Q

Where do you give an injection in a turtle?

A

IM front leg

559
Q

Cat with confirmed visualization of ethylene glycol ingestion. Do you immediately treat or run other tests?

A

immediately treat

560
Q

Sheep have pregnancy toxemia (ketosis). How do you avoid it?

A

Increase Energy in diet

561
Q

An owner finds their calico writhing on the ground and vocalizing, and is concerned about a broken back. Your PE is normal. What do you suspect?

A

In heat

562
Q

An otherwise healthy intact adult hunting dog has vaginal discharge but not painful to palpation, afebrile, and has normal CBC. What is your next diagnostic step?

A

Cytology or Vaginoscopy?

Unsure about this one

563
Q

Appaloosa gelding with growing ulcerated thing on his sheath. Most likely is?

  • Mast cell tumor, SCC, habronemiasis
  • SCC, habronemiasis, fibroblastic sarcoid
  • Habronemiasis, mast cell tumor, melanoma
  • Melanoma, mast cell tumor, SCC
A

SCC, habronemiasis, fibroblastic sarcoid

564
Q

What do you hope to achieve by administering Altrenogest to a horse

  • Reduce cribbing
  • Reduce submissive behavior
  • Reduce behaviors associated with cycling
  • Reduce behaviors associated with a granulosa theca cell tumor
A

Reduce behaviors associated with cycling

565
Q

Propylene glycol causes __________ anemia in cats

A

Heinz body

566
Q

A cow with urolithasis. What do you do?

A

Add NaCl 12-16% to the top of the feed

567
Q

Toxic component of oleander:

A

oleandrin

Oleander is cardiotoxic! For severe bradycardia, treat with Atropine

568
Q

Arsenic poisoning binds sulfhydryl groups on enzymes and other cellular proteins and impairs ____________

A

cellular respiration and depletes energy stores

  • Tissues most affected: those rich in oxidative enzymes (GI tract, endothelium, lung, liver, kidney, epidermis)
    • GI: hemorrhagic gastroenteritis, endothelial damage
569
Q

Malignant hyperthermia is associated with a mutation of the __________ gene

A

Ryanodine receptor 1

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