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Brock's > C8-C14 > Flashcards

C8-C14 Flashcards

1
Q

extracellular form of a virus

A

virion

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2
Q

protein shell of the virus

A

capsid

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3
Q

The virus redirects the host cell’s metabolism from growth to support virus replication and the assembly of new virions

A

virulent/ lytic infection

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4
Q

The host cell is not destroyed but is genetically altered
because the viral genome becomes part of the host genome.

A

lysogenic infection

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5
Q

Viral genomes of this configuration have the exact same base sequence as that of the viral mRNA that will be translated to form viral proteins.

A

plus configuration

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6
Q

Viral genomes of this configuration are complementary in base sequence to viral mRNA.

A

minus config

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7
Q

symmetry of rod-shaped viruses

A

helical symmetry

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8
Q

symmetry of spherical viruses

A

icosahedral symmetry

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9
Q

nucleic acid polymerases carried by RNA viruses that function to replicate the viral RNA genome and produce viral-specific mRNA

A

RNA dependent RNA polymerases- RNA replicases

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9
Q

example of enzyme carried by a virus that aid in their infection on the host cell

A

influenza virushas envelope proteins called neuraminidases that destroy glycoproteins and glycolipids of animal cell connective tissue, thus liberating the virions

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10
Q

carried by retroviral virions to make DNA from an RNA template

A

RdDp reverse transcriptase

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11
Q

viral life cycle

A
  1. Attachment (adsorption) of the virion to the host cell
  2. Penetration (entry, injection) of the virion nucleic acid into the
    host cell
  3. Synthesis of virus nucleic acid and protein by host cell machinery as redirected by the virus
  4. Assembly of capsids and packaging of viral genomes into new
    virions
  5. Release of new virions from the cell
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12
Q

number of virions release per cell

A

burst size

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13
Q

the number of infectious virions present per volume of fluid

A

titer

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14
Q

When a virus infects host cells growing on a flat surface, it creates a zone of cell lysis

A

plaque

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15
Q

efficiency of which virions infect host cells is rarely 100% and often considerably less. state reasons why

A

Virions that fail to infect may have assembled incompletely during the maturation process,
may contain defective genomes,
or may have suffered a spontaneous mutation that prevents them from attaching or otherwise properly replicating

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16
Q

example mechanisms of Archaea and bacteria against viral attack

A

toxin-antitoxin module
CRISPR
destruction of dsDNA through restriction endonucleases (process called restriction)

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17
Q

Besides encoding its own replication machinery, the T4 genome has another unusual feature: In a population of T4 virions, although each copy of the genome contains the same set of genes, they are arranged in a different order.

A

circular permutation

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18
Q

The T4 genome encodes three major
sets of proteins

A

early proteins, middle proteins, and late proteins

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19
Q

example of a virulent virus

A

Bacteriophage T4

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20
Q

some double-stranded DNA bacte rial viruses, although capable of a virulent cycle, can also infect
their host and establish a long-term stable relationship

A

temperate viruses

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21
Q

examples of temperate phages

A

lambda and P1

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22
Q

Maintenance of the lysogenic state is due to

A

phage encoded repressor protein

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23
Q

If lambda enters the lytic pathway, long, linear concatemers of genomic DNA are synthesized by a mechanism called

A

rolling circle replication

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24
Q

Instead of the lytic pathway, if lambda takes the lysogenic route, its genome integrates into the E. coli chromosome requiring a protein called

A

lambda integrase

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25
Q

Whether lysis or lysogeny occurs in a lambda infection depends in large part on the levels of two key repressor proteins that can accumulate in the cell following infection which are

A

lambda repressor, also called the cI protein, and a second repressor called Cro

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26
Q

it represses the transcription of
all other lambda-encoded genes, including Cro. When this happens, the lambda genome integrates into the host’s genome and
becomes a prophage

A

cI protein

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27
Q

represses expression of a protein called cII whose function is to activate the synthesis of cI. Hence,
following infection, if cI is present at insufficient levels to repress expression of phage-specific genes, this protein can accumulate in the cell; if this happens, lambda travels the lytic pathway

A

Cro

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28
Q

If an animal virus initially evades the immune system, animal viruses can catalyze at least four different outcomes

A

-A virulent infection results in lysis of the host cell; this is the most common outcome.
-a latent infection, the viral DNA exists in the host’s genome and virions are not produced; this leaves the host cell unharmed unless and until an event triggers the virulent pathway.
-With some enveloped animal viruses, release of virions, which occurs by a kind of budding process, may be slow, and the host cell may not be lysed (and thus not killed); instead it continues to grow and produce more virions. Such infections are called persistent infections.
-Finally, certain animal viruses can convert
a normal cell into a tumor cell, a process called transformation

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29
Q

structurally complex animal viruses that con tain an RNA genome. However, unlike other RNA viruses, the
genome is replicated inside the host cell by way of a DNA intermediate

A

retroviruses

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30
Q

Retroviruses are enveloped viruses and carry
several enzymes within the virion including

A

reverse transcriptase, integrase, and retroviral specific protease

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31
Q

the primary viruses
infecting prokaryotic cells

A

Double-stranded DNA viruses (class I)

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32
Q

the major viral predators of eukaryotic cells

A

single-stranded plus-sense RNA
viruses (class IV)

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33
Q

fungi are only infected by what class of viruses

A

Class III and IV

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34
Q

the vast majority of class I
viruses that infect eukaryotes replicate in what hosts

A

Animal hosts rather than plants

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35
Q

hosts of class II viruses

A

more plants rather than animals

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36
Q

host of class V

A

animals rather than plants

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37
Q

host of class VI

A

known only from animal hosts

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38
Q

class VII host

A

much more
common in plants than in animals

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39
Q

virus infecting the protozoan Acanthamoeba and
belongs to a group of giant viruses with large genomes called
nucleocytoplasmic large DNA viruses (NCLDV); multilayered and icosahedral capsid

A

mimivirus

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40
Q

comprise several virus families, including pox viruses, iridoviruses, and certain plant viruses. These viruses
share a set of highly homologous proteins, most of which function
in DNA metabolism.

A

NCLDV

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41
Q

ssDNA bacteriophage;has only a few genes and shows the phenomenon of
overlapping genes; contains a circular genome of 5386 nucleotides inside a tiny icosahedral virion, about 25 nm in diameter

A

Bacteriophage phiX174

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42
Q

ssDNA bacteriophage; a filamentous virus with helical symmetry; the
virion is long and thin and attaches to the pilus of its host cell; like other filamentous virus it has the unusual
property of being released from the host cell without the cell undergoing lysis;

A

Bacteriophage M13

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43
Q

dsDNA bacteriophage; a large, tailed, double-stranded DNA
virus of Escherichia coli that possesses complex morphology; kills it host; differs from many other bacteriophage genomes in that its DNA contains the modified cytosine base 5-hydroxymethylcytosine in place of cytosine; encodes its own DNA polymerase; although each copy of the genome contains the
same set of genes, they are arranged in a different order (circular permutation);

A

bacteriophage T4

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44
Q

When the T4 DNA is
packaged into capsids, the concatemer is not cut at a specific
sequence; instead linear segments of DNA just long enough to fill a
phage head are generated.

A

This is called headful packaging and is
common among bacteriophages.

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45
Q

dsDNA bacteriophage;a relatively small virulent DNA virus that infects
Escherichia coli and a few related enteric bacteria. The virion has an
icosahedral head and a very short tail; RNA polymerase recognizes only its gene promoters distributed
along the its genome; endonuclease cuts the concatemer at specific sequences thus, the DNA sequence in each virion is identical.

A

Bacteriophage T7

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46
Q

dsDNA bacteriophage; also infects Escherichia coli, is a
double-stranded DNA virus with a head and tail; a temperate bacteriophage

A

lambda

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47
Q

lambda regulation; represses the transcription of all
other lambda-encoded genes, including Cro. When this happens,
the lambda genome integrates into the host’s genome and becomes
a prophage

A

accumulation of cI

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48
Q

lambda regulation;represses expression of a protein called cII whose function is to activate the synthesis of cI. Hence, following infection, if
cI is present at insufficient levels to repress expression of phage specific genes, it accumulates in the cell; if this happens, lambda
travels the lytic pathway.

A

Cro

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49
Q

lambda regulation; function is to stabilize cII and protect it from
protease attack

A

cIII

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50
Q

DNA Archaeal viruses; virus morphology that commonly affects Euryarchaeota

A

head and tail type

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51
Q

DNA Archaeal viruses; The most morphologically distinctive archaeal viruses infect what phyla

A

hyperthermophilic Crenarchaeota

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52
Q

DNA Archaeal viruses; infects crenarchaeota; forms spindle-shaped virions that often
cluster in rosettes; also forms a rigid, helical rod-shaped structure

A

SSV, SIFV

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53
Q

DNA Archaeal viruses; forms a rigid, helical rod-shaped structure; A spindle-shaped virus that infects the hyperthermophile Acidianus displays a novel behavior. The virion contains a
circular genome of about 68 kilobase pairs and is lemon-shaped
when first released from the host cells. However, shortly after release
from its lysed host cell, the virion produces long, thin tails, one at
each end

A

ATV

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54
Q

DNA Archaeal viruses;A spindle-shaped virus also infects the hyperthermophile Pyrococcus (Euryarchaeota); resembles SSV but is
larger and contains a very short tail and do not have common evolutionary roots;

A

PAV1

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55
Q

ssDNA Archaeal viruses; infects the extreme halophile Halorubrum and is unusual not only
because of its circular single-stranded DNA genome but also due to its enveloped nonuniform
morphology

A

Pleomorphic virus 1 (HRPV-1)

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56
Q

ssDNA Archaeal viruses; infects the hyperthermophile Aeropyrum pernix . A filamentous capsid surrounds this circular single stranded 24.9-kilobase viral genome, which is double the size of the second largest known single-stranded DNA viral genome.

A

Aeropyrum coil-shaped
virus (ACV)

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57
Q

archaea unique method of viral release; their genomes encode structural proteins for their capsids, they also encode a protein called PVAP (protein forming virus-associated pyramid) that facilitates viral release from the cell. PVAP assembles into seven-fold pyramid structures that rupture the host cell’s S-layer and open outwards to create a portal for viruses to exit the host cell.

A

S. islandicus rod-shaped
virus 2 (SIRV2) and turreted icosahedral virus (STIV)

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58
Q

uniquely replicating DNA animal virus; first virus to be studied in any detail and was
the first virus for which a vaccine was developed; among the
largest of all viruses, the brick-shaped vaccinia virions measuring
almost 400 nm in diameter; replication occurs in cytoplasm

A

pox virus

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59
Q

uniquely replicating DNA animal virus; group of small and naked icosahedral viruses that contain linear double-stranded DNA genomes; Attached to the 5′ end of the genomic DNA is a protein called the adenoviral terminal protein, and it is essential for replication of the genome. The complementary DNA strands also have inverted terminal repeats that play a role in the replication
process; of minor health importance, causing mild respiratory infections in humans; dsDNA is replicated without the formation of a lagging strand

A

adenoviruses

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60
Q

DNA tumor viruses; naked icosahedral virus that can cause
tumors in small mammals, such as hamsters and rats. Its circular
genome consists of double-stranded DNA; genome is too small (5.2 kb) to encode its own DNA polymerase,
so host DNA polymerases are used and DNA is replicated in a bidirectional fashion from a single origin of replication; When SV40 infects a host cell, one of two outcomes can occur, In permissive hosts, virus infection results in the usual formation of new virions and the lysis of the host cell.
In nonpermissive hosts, lytic events do not occur; instead, the viral DNA becomes integrated into host DNA, genetically altering the
cells in the process; allowing cells to be malignant; transcription of the viral genome occurs in nucleus

A

Polyomavirus SV40

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61
Q

DNA tumor viruses; a large group of double-stranded DNA viruses that cause a variety of human diseases, including fever blisters (cold sores), venereal herpes, chicken pox, shingles, and infectious mononucleosis; examples- Epstein–Barr virus causes Burkitt’s lymphoma, CMV; remain latent in the body for long periods and become active under conditions of stress or when the
immune system is compromised; enveloped; replication in the nucleus

A

Herpesviruses

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62
Q

pos strand RNA viruses; The virus infects cells of Escherichia coli by attaching to
the cell’s pilus; encodes only four proteins, including the maturation protein, coat protein, lysis protein, and one subunit of RNA replicase, the enzyme that replicates
the viral RNA

A

Bacteriophage MS2

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63
Q

pos strand RNA viruses; one of the smallest of all viruses; genome (about 7.4 kb) is also the
mRNA, and the VPg protein facilitates binding of the RNA to host ribosomes; replication in host cell cytoplasm

A

poliovirus

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64
Q

pos strand RNA viruses; single-stranded plus RNA viruses that; replicate in the cytoplasm; cause respiratory infections in humans and other animals, including about 15% of common colds; enveloped and contain club-shaped glycoprotein spikes on their surfaces; the largest of
any known RNA viruses, about 30 kb; virions are assembled within the
Golgi complex,

A

coronaviruses

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65
Q

neg strand RNA Animal Virus; causes the fatal neuroinflammatory disease rabies ;is a rhabdovirus (rod-shaped); genome transcribed by replicase in the cytoplasm; with nucleocapsid and envelope

A

rabies virus

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66
Q

neg strand RNA Animal Virus; an enveloped virus in which the viral
genome is present in the virion in a number of separate pieces, a
condition called a segmented genome (8 linear single stranded molecules; pleiomorphic due to budding; with hemagglutinin and neuraminidase; also rna replicase and rna endonuclease; exhibits antigenic shift in which segments of the RNA genome from two different strains of the virus infecting the same cell are reassorted generating hybrids that express unique surface proteins unrecognized by the immune system

A

influenza virus

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67
Q

dsRNA virus; a typical reovirus and is the most common cause of
diarrhea in infants 6 to 24 months of age; segmented genome

A

rotavirus

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68
Q

dsRNA virus; replication occurs exclusively in the host cytoplasm but
within the nucleocapsid itself; RNA replication is conservative as only the minus strand is a template in the infecting nucleocapsids, whereas only the plus strand is a template in the synthesis of double-stranded genomic RNA from assimilated plus-strand RNA copies in progeny virions

A

reovirus

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69
Q

viruses that uses reverse transcriptase; have enveloped virions that contain two identical copies of the single-stranded plus complementarity RNA genome; name refers to the fact that
these viruses transfer information from
RNA to DNA; To begin the
process, the genome is converted to DNA
by reverse transcriptase inside the
nucleocapsid and then the DNA is
released to the cytoplasm

A

retrovirus; HIV

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70
Q

viruses that uses reverse transcriptase; tiny DNA genomes re unusual because they are neither
single-stranded nor double-stranded; instead, they are partially
double-stranded.

A

hepadnaviruses; HBV

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71
Q

subviral agents; are infectious RNA molecules that lack a protein component; small, circular, single-stranded RNA molecules that
are the smallest known pathogens; cause a number of important plant diseases and can
have a severe agricultural impact(ie coconut cadang-cadang viroid); infects plants; known to yield
small interfering RNAs (siRNAs) as a by-product of replication

A

viroids

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72
Q

subviral agents; infectious agents whose extracellular form consists entirely of
protein; lacks both DNA and RNA; cause several neurological diseases such as scrapie in sheep, bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE or “mad cow disease”) in cattle, chronic wasting disease in deer and elk. and kuru and variant Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease in humans by catalyzing protein conformational changes that lead to protein clumping and accumulation; none in plants some in yeasts; forms amyloids;

A

prions

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73
Q

subviral agents; nonpathogenic prions; a protein that regulates the transcription of genes encoding certain nitrogen metabolism functions

A

[URE3] prion

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74
Q

subviral agents; nonpathogenic prions; s a human protein that
is part of our innate immune system and has been shown to convert to a self-perpetuating prion-like form in cells that become infected with a virus. its aggregation triggers the production of immune modulators called interferons;

A

MAVS protein

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75
Q

valuable tools to visualize the localization of specific proteins and to monitor gene
expression in cells

A

reporter genes

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76
Q

encode proteins that are easy to detect or assay and are used by fusing
them to genes of interest in such a way that both the reporter gene
and the gene of interest are coexpressed

A

reporter genes

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77
Q

For visualizing molecular
events, reporter genes that encode fluorescent products such as the

A

green fluorescent protein (GFP)

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78
Q

leads to
unwinding of the DNA and loading of the replisome for chromosome replication in Escherichia coli

A

binding of DnaA to specific DNA
sequences within the oriC region of the chromosome

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79
Q

one of several penicillin-binding proteins present in the cell.

A

FtsI

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80
Q

ensures the divisome forms only at the center and not at the cell poles

A

Min proteins (MinC, MinD, MinE)

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81
Q

controls the assembly site of FtsZ in Caulobacter

A

MipZ ( midcell positioning of FtsZ)

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82
Q

The major shape-determining factor in Bacteria is the protein

A

MreB

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83
Q

Inactivation of
the gene encoding MreB or other proteins in the elongasome leads

A

rod-shaped bacteria to become coccus-shaped.

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84
Q

In the vibrio-shaped bacterium Caulobacter, a shape-determining
protein is present in addition to MreB called

A

crescentin

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85
Q

a plant pathogen,
elongates at one pole in a process called unipolar elongation

A

Agrobacterium tumefaciens

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86
Q

insertion of new peptdidoglycan; plays a major role in the simultaneous insertion of peptidoglycan precursors.

A

bactoprenol

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87
Q

insertion of new peptdidoglycan; a hydrophobic C55 alcohol that is
bonded to an N-acetylglucosamine/N-acetylmuramic acid/
pentapeptide peptidoglycan precursor to form lipid II

A

bactoprenol

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88
Q

insertion of new peptdidoglycan; ??? transports peptidoglycan precursors across the cytoplasmic membrane by rendering lipid II sufficiently hydrophobic
to pass through a transmembrane ABC transporter known as ???

A

bactoprenol, flippase

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89
Q

insertion of new peptdidoglycan; lipid II interacts with peptidoglycan polymerases called ??? that insert peptidoglycan precursors
into a growing point in the cell wall and catalyze glycosidic bond
formation (the remaining bactoprenol is then recycled to the cytoplasm to begin a new round of
precursor transport)

A

transglycosylases

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90
Q

insertion of new peptdidoglycan; prior to insertion of the peptidoglycan precursor, small gaps in the existing peptidoglycan are made by enzymes called; enzymes that function to hydrolyze the bond that connects
N-acetylglucosamine with N-acetylmuramic acid in the peptidoglycan backbone.

A

autolysins

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91
Q

insertion of new peptdidoglycan; final step in peptidoglycan synthesis; forms the peptide cross-links between muramic acid residues in adjacent glycan chains

A

transpeptidation

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92
Q

Endospore formation sporulation factors; When highly
phosphorylated, sporulation proceeds; controls the expression of several sporulation-specific genes

A

Spo0A

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93
Q

Triggers for Activating Endospore Germination; receptors present in the endospore

A

germinant receptors (GRs)

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94
Q

Triggers for Activating Endospore Germination; GRs in a cluster which functions to sense and bind nutrients such as amino acids, sugars, and cell wall peptides from vegetative cells.

A

germinosome

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95
Q

Triggers for Activating Endospore Germination; next step to spore germination after stage I

A

triggering of cortex lytic enzymes (CLE) to degrade peptidoglycan in the endospore cortex,

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96
Q

Triggers for Activating Endospore Germination; modified from normal peptidoglycan such that CLE can recognize it and
not degrade cell wall peptidoglycan produced during outgrowth of
vegetative cells.

A

cortex peptidoglycan

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97
Q

Triggers for Activating Endospore Germination; major event of stage II- germination

A

removal of he endospore cortex

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98
Q

Triggers for Activating Endospore Germination ; triggered by the increased expression of genes encoding enzymes that biosynthesize peptidoglycan, teichoic acid and lipoteichoic acids, and the cell division protein FtsZ

A

stage III- outgrowth

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99
Q

Caulobacter Differentiation; three major regulatory
proteins whose concentrations oscillate in succession.

A

GcrA, CtrA, DnaA

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100
Q

Caulobacter Differentiation; the transcriptional regulators

A

GcrA and CtrA

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101
Q

Caulobacter Differentiation;a protein that functions both in its normal role in initiating DNA
replication and also as a transcriptional regulator

A

DnaA

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102
Q

Anabaena heterocyst; The cascade of events leading to heterocyst formation is triggered by

A

a limitation of “fixed” nitrogen (nitrate, ammonia, etc.)

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103
Q

Anabaena heterocyst; limitation of “fixed” nitrogen (nitrate, ammonia, etc.) is sensed in the vegetative cell as an elevation in levels of
???? , the acceptor molecule for formation of the amino
acid glutamate

A

a-ketoglutarate

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104
Q

Anabaena heterocyst; the major transcriptional regulator controlling heterocyst formation

A

HetR

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105
Q

Biofilm formation; The actual switch from planktonic to
biofilm growth in many bacteria is triggered by the cellular accumulation of the regulatory nucleotide

A

cyclic di-guanosine monophosphate
(c-di-GMP)

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106
Q

Biofilm formation; a classic opportunistic pathogen and from its primary reservoir in soil can infect the blood, lungs, urinary tract, ears, skin, and
other tissues of humans; causes The major symptoms of the human genetic
disease cystic fibrosis; form a tenacious biofilm
containing specific polysaccharides that subsequently increase its
pathogenicity and prevent the penetration of antibiotics

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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107
Q

Biofilm formation; regulatory molecules

A

acyl homoserine lactones (AHLs)

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108
Q

Biofilm formation; Elevated c-di-GMP levels initiate the production of EPS, including
a polysaccharide called which functions as both a primary scaffold for the microbial community and a mechanism for resisting
the penetration of antibiotics

A

Pel

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109
Q

Biofilm formation; archaea that forms biofilm

A

motile
hyperthermophilic sulfur chemolithotroph Sulfolobus acidocaldarius

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110
Q

Antibiotics; target DNA gyrase in gram-negative bacteria and topoisomerase IV in gram-positive bacteria; lead to cell death by interfering with DNA unwinding
and replication

A

quinolones such as ciprofloxacin

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111
Q

Antibiotics; prevent RNA synthesis by either blocking the RNA polymerase active
site or blocking RNA elongation by binding to the major
groove in DNA

A

rifampin and actinomycin

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112
Q

Antibiotics; contains a region that mimics the 3′ end of a
tRNA, and this structural mimicry results in specific binding of the antibiotic to the A site in the 70S ribosome; this induces chain termination
and effectively shuts down protein synthesis.

A

puromycin

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113
Q

Antibiotics; specifically target the 16S rRNA of the 30S
ribosome and result in the ribosome misreading mRNAs, thus leading
to error-filled proteins that accumulate in the cell and ultimately inhibit
growth.

A

Aminoglycoside antibiotics such as streptomycin

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114
Q

Antibiotics; a lipopeptide produced by certain Streptomyces species that specifically binds to phosphatidylglycerol residues of the
bacterial cytoplasmic membrane; this leads to pore
formation and depolarization of the membrane, ultimately resulting in cell death.

A

Daptomycin

115
Q

Antibiotics; cyclic peptides whose long hydrophobic tails specifically target the
LPS layer and ultimately disrupt membrane structure, causing leakage and cell death. (gneg)

A

polymyxins

116
Q

Antibiotics; target the synthesis of peptidoglycan in bacteria; inhibit growth by interfering with proteins
that catalyze transpeptidation

A

b-lactams penicillin, cephalosporin, and their derivatives

117
Q

Antibiotics; inhibits
peptidoglycan synthesis in gram-positive bacteria by binding to the
pentapeptide of peptidoglycan precursors and preventing the formation of peptide interbridges by transpeptidases.

A

vancomycin

118
Q

Antibiotics; prevents peptidoglycan synthesis by binding to the peptidoglycan precursor transport system (bactoprenol) and
preventing new peptidoglycan precursors from reaching the site
of peptidoglycan synthesis. As autolysins continue to introduce
small gaps in the existing peptidoglycan, a shortage
of precursors to patch the gaps weakens the cell wall and leads to
cell lysis

A

topical antibiotic
bacitracin

119
Q

bacterial resistance mechanisms to antibiotics

A

(1) modification of the drug target,
(2) enzymatic inactivation,
(3) removal from the cell via efflux pumps, and
(4) metabolic bypasses

120
Q

exhibits antibiotic resistance by producing an alternative penicillin-binding protein called MecA that is unaffected by methicillin or other b-lactam antibiotics.

A

Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus

121
Q

mechanisms behind MRSA

A

presence of the Staphylococcus chromosomal cassette for methicillin resistance (SCCmec) containing the gene for MecA, which is activated in the presence of methicillin or other b-lactam antibiotics antibiotics through a regulatory mechanism involving MecI and MecR1 proteins.

122
Q

eoccurs when a population of antibiotic-sensitive bacteria produces rare cells that transiently become tolerant to multiple antibiotics

A

persistence

123
Q

genes that encode two components: a toxin whose production inhibits cell growth and an antitoxin that counteracts the activity of the toxin.

A

Toxin–antitoxin (TA) modules

124
Q

encode a TA module that has been shown to trigger
persistence in E. coli

A

hipAB genes; HipA is a toxin
that inhibits translation and HipB is an antitoxin that is susceptible
to a protease called Lon.

125
Q

a heritable
change in the base sequence of that genome, that is, a change that
is passed from the mother cell to progeny cells

A

mutation

126
Q

a strain
of an organism or a virus isolated from nature is called the

A

wild-typestrain

127
Q

A
cell or virus derived from the wild type whose genome carries
achange in nucleotide sequence is called a

A

mutant

128
Q

A mutant by
definition differs from the wild-type strain in its

A

genotype

129
Q

nutritionally defective
mutants can be detected by the technique of

A

replica plating

130
Q

A mutant strain with an additional nutritional requirement
above that of the wild type or parental strain from which it was
derived is called an

A

auxotroph

131
Q

the strain from
which an auxotroph originates is called a

A

prototroph

132
Q

mutations that occur without external intervention, and most result from occasional errors in the pairing of
bases by DNA polymerase during DNA replication

A

spontaneous mutation

133
Q

mutations that are e caused by environmental agents and include mutations made deliberately by humans.

A

induced mutations

134
Q

Mutations that change only one base pair and occur when a single base-pair substitution occurs in the DNA

A

point mutations

135
Q

a change in the RNA from UAC to UAU
would have no apparent effect because UAU is also a tyrosine codon. Although they do not affect the sequence of the encoded polypeptide,
such changes in the DNA are considered one type of mutation,
that is, a mutation that does not affect the phenotype of the cell.

A

silent mutation

136
Q

a single base change from UAC to AAC results in an amino acid change within the polypeptide from tyrosine to asparagine at a specific site; the informational “sense” (the precise sequence
of amino acids) in the polypeptide has changed. this is called a

A

missense mutation

137
Q

Another possible outcome of a base-pair substitution is the formation of a stop codon in the DNA. This results in prematture termination of translation, leading to an incomplete
polypeptide

A

nonsense mutation

138
Q

are mutations in which one purine base (A or G) is substituted for
another purine, or one pyrimidine base (C or T) is substituted for another pyrimidine

A

transitions

139
Q

point mutations in which a
purine base is substituted for a pyrimidine base, or vice versa.

A

transversions

140
Q

any deletion or
insertion of a single base pair results in a shift in the reading
frame; often have serious consequences

A

frameshift mutations

141
Q

many
large insertion mutations are due to the insertion of specific DNA
sequences called

A

transposable elements

142
Q

Point mutations are typically reversible, a process known as

A

reversion

143
Q

a strain in which the original phenotype that was changed by mutation is restored by a second mutation.

A

revertant

144
Q

the mutation that restores activity is at the same
site as the original mutation

A

same-site revertants

145
Q

If the back mutation is not only at the
same site but also restores the original sequence, it is called a

A

true revertant

146
Q

the mutation is at a different site in the
DNA; can restore a wild-type phenotype if they function as suppressor mutations—mutations that compensate
for the effect of the original mutation

A

second-site revertants

147
Q

class of suppressor mutations

A

(1) a mutation somewhere else
in the same gene that restores enzyme function, such as a second
frameshift mutation near the first that restores the original reading
frame ;
(2) a mutation in another gene that restores the
function of the original mutated gene; and
(3) a mutation in another
gene that results in the production of an enzyme that can replace
the nonfunctional one.

148
Q

For most microorganisms, errors in DNA replication occur at a frequency of

A

10-6 to 10-7
per thousand bases during a single round
of replication

149
Q

Single base errors during DNA replication are more likely to lead
to missense mutations than to nonsense mutations because

A

most
single base substitutions yield codons that encode other amino acids

150
Q

a variety of chemical, physical, and biological agents that can increase the mutation rate
and are therefore said to induce mutations.

A

mutagens

151
Q

molecules that resemble the
purine and pyrimidine bases of DNA in structure but display faulty
base-pairing properties; DNA may replicate normally most of the time however, DNA replication errors occur at
higher frequencies at these sites due to incorrect base pairing. The
result is the incorporation of a mismatched base into the new strand
of DNA and thus introduction of a mutation; mutation is revealed during the subsequent segregation of this strand in cell division

A

nucleotide base analogs

152
Q

powerful mutagens
and generally induce mutations at higher frequency than base analogs; chemical mutagens induce chemical modifications in one
base or another, resulting in faulty base pairing or related changes

A

alkylating agents (chemicals that react
with amino, carboxyl, and hydroxyl groups by substituting them
with alkyl groups) such as nitrosoguanidine

153
Q

chemical mutagens; are planar
molecules that function as intercalating agents; inserted between two DNA base pairs and push them apart.
Then, during replication, this abnormal conformation can trigger single base insertions or deletions. Thus, typically induce
frameshift rather than point mutations; Ethidium bromide

A

acridines

154
Q

e two forms of electromagnetic radiation that are highly mutagenic

A

Nonionizing and ionizing radiation

155
Q

widely used to generate mutations because the
purine and pyrimidine bases of nucleic acids absorb UV radiation
strongly (the absorption maximum for DNA and RNA is at 260nm).
The primary mutagenic effect is the production of pyrimidine dimers,
in which two adjacent pyrimidine bases (cytosine or thymine) on the same strand of DNA become covalently bonded to one another

A

UV radiation

156
Q

These rays cause water and other substances to ionize, resulting in
the formation of free radicals such as the hydroxyl radical that can damage macromolecules in the cell,
including DNA. This causes double-stranded and single-stranded
breaks that may lead to rearrangements or large deletions.

A

ionizing radiation x-rays, cosmic rays, gamma rays

157
Q

system initiates a number of DNA
repair processes, some of which are error-free; also allows DNA repair to occur without a template, that is,
with random incorporation of nucleotide precursors (deoxyribonucleotide triphosphates
[dNTPs]);
results in many errors and hence many mutations; mutations induced are better than the alternative (death of the cell), as mutations can often be corrected while
chromosome breaks usually cannot.

A

SOS repair system

158
Q

In DNA damage tolerance, DNA lesions remain in the
DNA, but are bypassed by specialized DNA polymerases that can
move past DNA damage—a process

A

translesion synthesis

159
Q

In E. coli, in which the process of mutagenesis has been studied in great detail, the two error-prone repair polymerases are

A

DNA
polymerase V, an enzyme encoded by the umuCD genes, and
DNA
polymerase IV, encoded by dinB
Both are induced as
part of the SOS repair system

160
Q

The master regulators of the SOS system are the proteins

A

LexA and
RecA.

161
Q

SOS repair system; a repressor that normally prevents expression of the SOS system.

A

LexA

162
Q

SOS repair system; normally functions in genetic recombination , is activated by the presence of DNA damage, in particular by the single-stranded DNA that results when replication stalls.

A

RecA

163
Q

It should be noted that DNA transfer typically occurs in
only one direction, from

A

donor to recipient

164
Q

DNA that
enters the cell by horizontal gene transfer faces three possible fates:

A

(1) It may be degraded by the recipient cell’s restriction enzymes or other DNA destruction systems (2) it may replicate by itself (but only if it possesses its own origin of replication, such as a plasmid or phage genome); or
(3) it may recombine with the recipient cell’s chromosome.

165
Q

is the physical exchange of DNA between genetic
elements (structures that carry genetic information).

A

recombination

166
Q

This type
of recombination is often essential to a cell’s ability to retain DNA
following genetic exchange and is behind the well-known phenomenon of “crossing over” in the genetics of eukaryotes.

A

homologous recombination

167
Q

key to homologous
recombination.

A

RecA protein (SOS repair system)

168
Q

if a copy
of the wild-type gene is introduced into the same cell on a plasmid
or viral genome, this gene will encode the necessary protein and,
assuming the gene is transcribed and translated, will restore the
wild-type phenotype. This process is called

A

complementation because the wild-type gene is said to complement the mutation, in this case
converting the Trp- cell into Trp+

169
Q

DNA derived
from virtually any portion of the host genome is packaged inside
the mature virion in place of the virus genome.

A

generalized transduction

170
Q

DNA from a specific region of the host chromosome is integrated directly into the virus genome—usually
replacing some of the virus genes. This occurs only with certain temperate viruses such as phage lambda

A

specialized transduction

171
Q

during lytic infection, the enzymes responsible for packaging viral DNA into the
bacteriophage sometimes package host DNA accidentally. The result
is called a

A

transducing particle

172
Q

allows the transfer of any gene from one
bacterium to another, but at a low frequency.

A

Generalized transduction

173
Q

allows extremely efficient transfer but is selective and
transfers only a small region of the bacterial chromosome

A

specialized
transduction

174
Q

Alteration of the phenotype of a host cell by lysogenization is called

A

phage conversion

175
Q

are the
result of prokaryotic cells hijacking defective viruses and using them
specifically for DNA exchange; defective bacteriophages

A

gene transfer agents (GTAs)

176
Q

The
F plasmid is actually an episome, a plasmid that

A

can integrate into
the host chromosome.

177
Q

Cells possessing a nonintegrated F plasmid are called

A

F+

178
Q

F plasmid integrated into the chromosome are called

A

Hfr

179
Q

Overall, the presence of the F plasmid results in three distinct
changes in a cell:

A

(1) the ability to synthesize the F pilus
(2) the mobilization of DNA for transfer to another cell, and
(3) the alteration of surface receptors so the cell can no longer be a recipient
in conjugation and is therefore unable to take up a second copy of
the F plasmid or any genetically related plasmids.

180
Q

F plasmids containing chromosomal genes are called

A

F′ (F-prime) plasmids.

181
Q

used to inhibit growth of
extreme halophiles,

A

novobiocin (a DNA gyrase inhibitor) and mevinolin (an inhibitor of
isoprenoid biosynthesis)

182
Q

inhibit methanogens

A

puromycin and neomycin (both protein synthesis inhibitors)

183
Q

mimics a virus because the genetic
element encodes a portion of a structurally defined particle that
transfers the plasmid between Halorubrum lacusprofundi strains.

A

pR1SE

184
Q

Only one archaeal virus, which infects the thermophilic methanogen ???, has been
shown to transduce host genes.

A

Methanothermobacter thermautotrophicus

185
Q

stretches of DNA that can move from one site
to another.

A

transposable elements

186
Q

The two major types of transposable elements in Bacteria are

A

insertion sequences (ISs) and transposons

187
Q

the simplest type of transposable
element. They are short DNA segments, about 1000 nucleotides
long, and typically contain inverted repeats of 10–50 base pairs.

A

insertion sequences (IS)

188
Q

larger than IS elements but have the same two
essential components: inverted repeats at both ends and a gene
encoding the transposase

A

transposons

189
Q

transposon which encodes resistance to the antibiotics
kanamycin (and neomycin), streptomycin, and bleomycin

A

transposon Tn5

190
Q

transposon which encodes tetracycline resistance.

A

Tn10

191
Q

Two mechanisms of transposition are known:

A

conservative and
replicative

192
Q

as occurs
with the transposon Tn5 , the transposon is excised
from one location and reinserted at a second location. The copy number of a conservative transposon therefore remains at one

A

conservative transposition

193
Q

a new copy of the transposon is produced and inserted at the second location. Thus, after
this transposition event, one copy of the transposon
remains at the original site, while a second copy is incorporated at
the new site.

A

replicative transposition

194
Q

A major antiviral defense system present in both Bacteria and
Archaea is ??? which functions to seek out and destroy foreign
nucleic acid.

A

CRISPR—clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats

195
Q

These proteins possess endonuclease activity and both mediate the defense
against foreign DNA and incorporate new spacers into the CRISPR
region.

A

Cas proteins (CRISPR- associated)

196
Q

correspond to
sequences of viral or other foreign DNA and function as a “memory
bank” of past encounters with a virus in a manner reminiscent of
how animals produce antibodies and long-lasting memory cells against and infecting virus; alternate with CRISPR regions are short repeats of constant DNA sequence present on the host chromosome

A

spacers

197
Q

the first ammonia-oxidizing (nitrifying)
archaeon known,

A

Nitrosopumilus,

198
Q

refers to the use of computers to
store and analyze the sequences and structures of nucleic acids and
proteins

A

bioinformatics

199
Q

refers to the use of computers to
store and analyze the sequences and structures of nucleic acids and
proteins

A

dideoxy
method developed by the British scientist Fred Sanger

200
Q

second-generation sequencing method still widely used
today, is based on the Sanger method and employs the light-emitting
enzyme luciferase to detect incorporation of dNTPs by emitting a pulse of light

A

pyrosequencing

201
Q

in Bacteria, translation begins at start codons located immediately downstream of a ribosome-binding
sequence (RBS ) on the mRNA also known as

A

Shine–Dalgarno site

202
Q

some codons are used more frequently than others. The is known as

A

codon bias

203
Q

is the science that analyzes pooled DNA or RNA from an environmental sample containing organisms that have not been isolated and identified

A

metagenomics

204
Q

Just as the total gene content of an organism is its
genome, so the total gene content of a microbial community is its

A

metagenome

205
Q

When DNA is
denatured (that is, the two strands are separated), the single
strands can form hybrid double-stranded molecules with other
nucleic acid molecules by complementary or almost complementary base pairing

A

hybridization

206
Q

The single-stranded segments of nucleic acid,
whose identity is already known, are called

A

nucleic acid probes

207
Q

The genome-wide study of the structure, function, and activity of an
organism’s proteins is called

A

proteomics

208
Q

is an advanced
version of mass spectrometry that does not require the protein separation and digestion step; Instead the sample is affixed
to a matrix and then ionized and vaporized by a laser

A

MALDI (matrix-assisted laser desorption ionization)

209
Q

ons produced in MALDI are accelerated towards the detector by an electric field, where the time of flight (TOF) of each ion is measured. The smaller the mass/charge ratio of an ion, the faster it moves. The detector records the TOF of each ion, allowing the computer to calculate the mass and molecular formula.

A

MALDI-TOF

210
Q

a more useful technique that can directly analyze
biological samples without the need for special analytical preparation;a laser is used to ionize the samplebut the silicon-coated surface used in NIMS
does not generate the background interference seen during ionization of a matrix by MALDI-TOF

A

nanostructure-initiator mass spectrometry (NIMS)

211
Q

critical for studyingthe
metabolic potential of microorganisms in natural microbial communities

A

single-cell genomics (SCG)

212
Q

Sequencing DNA from single cells relies on a modified version
of the polymerase chain reaction called

A

multiple displacement amplification (MDA)

213
Q

refers to the use of in vitro techniques to alter genes in the laboratory.

A

Genetic engineering

214
Q

Taq polymerase, a DNA polymerase isolated from
the thermophilic hot spring bacterium is stable to 95°C and thus is unaffected by the denaturation step employed in the PCR

A

Thermus aquaticus

215
Q

A DNA polymerase , Pfu polymerase, from a hyperthermophilic species of
Archaea with a growth temperature optimum of 100°C; more thermostable than taq; has proofreading activity

A

Pyrococcus furiosus

216
Q

a technique
that employs an agarose gel to separate nucleic acid fragments based
on differences in their size and charge

A

gel electropheresis

217
Q

f nucleic acid fragments of known sizes

A

ladder

218
Q

Single-stranded nucleic
acids whose identity is already known and that are used in hybridization are called

A

nucleic acid probes

219
Q

When DNA is denatured, the single strands can be used to form
hybrid double-stranded molecules with other single-stranded DNA
(or RNA) molecules by complementary base pairing
in a process called

A

nucleic acid hybridization

220
Q

probes of
known sequence are hybridized to target DNA fragments that have
been separated by gel electrophoresis. The hybridization procedure
in which DNA is the target sequence in the gel, and RNA or DNA is
the probe, is called a

A

southern blotting

221
Q

uses RNA as the target sequence and DNA or RNA as the probe to
detect gene expression.

A

northern blotting

222
Q

approach allows the identification of pathogens in clinical samples
or bacteria of interest in environmental samples

A

fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) technique

223
Q

The movement of desired genes from their original source to a small
and manipulable genetic element (the vector) is called

A

molecular cloning

224
Q

The cell is protected from its own restriction enzyme(s) by

A

hemical modification (typically by methylation)
of one of the bases in any potential restriction sites that exist in its
genome

225
Q

This restriction enzyme makes staggered cuts, leaving
short, single-stranded overhangs called “sticky” ends at the termini of
the two fragments

A

EcoRI

226
Q

This restriction enzyme cut both
strands of the DNA directly opposite each other, resulting in blunt
ends

A

EcoRV

227
Q

an enzyme that covalently links the strands of
the vector and the source DNA; If the source
DNA is PCR generated, it is used to join the amplified DNA to specialized vectors

A

DNA ligase

228
Q

limitation of cloning with restriction enzymes

A

modifications can only be made at restriction enzyme sites.

229
Q

Through this method, foreign DNA can be
inserted into vectors (or the chromosome) by designing the insert
DNA to possess short regions (30–50 bases) of sequence homology
to the target DNA molecule and activating recombinase enzymes.

A

recombineering
(recombination-mediated genetic engineering)

230
Q

a standard
cloning plasmid that contains an ampicillin resistance gene for selection and a blue–white color-screening system to select for recombinants. It also contains a short segment of artificial DNA containing
cut sites for many different restriction enzymes. This segment, called
a multiple cloning site (MCS), is inserted into the lacZ gene encoding
the lactose-degrading enzyme b-galactosidase

A

plasmid pUC19

231
Q

colorless, can be
cleaved by b-galactosidase to generate a blue product in screening tests

A

X-gal (5-bromo-4-chloro-3-indolyl-b-d-galactopyranoside)

232
Q

vectors can replicate and be stably maintained in two distinct organisms, such as
E. coli and yeast or E. coli and mammalian cells;

A

shuttle vectors

233
Q

are linear vectors that
replicate in yeast like normal chromosomes but have sites where
very large fragments of DNA can be inserted.

A

yeast artificial
chromosomes (YACs)

234
Q

Because
it is easy to grow and manipulate, the workhorse for cloning in
eukaryotic cells is the yeast

A

saccharomyces cerevisiae

235
Q

However, if cloned gene expression is desired, the outer
membrane of this gram-negative bacterium can hinder protein secretion. This problem can be overcome using the
gram-positive bacterium as a cloning host

A

B. subtilis

236
Q

are designed to allow the experimenter to control the expression of cloned genes.

A

expression vectors

237
Q

are designed to allow the experimenter to control the expression of cloned genes.

A

expression vectors

238
Q

introduce mutations at random in the DNA
of the intact organism

A

conventional mutagens

239
Q

uses synthetic DNA plus DNA cloning techniques to
introduce mutations into genes at precisely determined sites.

A

site-directed mutagenesis

240
Q

the gene encoding GFP was originally cloned
from the jellyfish

A

Aequorea victoria

241
Q

a deficiency of somatotropin in the body results in

A

hereditary dwarfism

242
Q

While recombinant DNA can be transformed into plant cells by
electroporation or transfection, the plasmid from the gram-negative bacterium Agrobacterium tumefaciens, a plant pathogen, can
be used to transfer DNA directly into the cells of certain plants.

A

Ti plasmid

243
Q

Genetic engineering can modify a pathogen by deleting genes from its genome that encode
virulence factors while retaining those whose products elicit an immune response. This yields a recombinant and infective vaccine that is considered

A

attenuated because it is less virulent
than the original strain

244
Q

one can add genes from a pathogenic virus to the genome
of a relatively harmless virus, called a carrier virus. Such vaccines are
called ??? and induce immunity to the pathogenic
virus.

A

vector vaccines

245
Q

a vaccine
that immunizes against two different diseases at the same time.

A

polyvalent vaccine

246
Q

vaccines that contain only a specific protein or
two from a pathogen, are also produced by recombinant means.

A

subunit vaccines

247
Q

A set of genes that have all descended from a single ancestral gene
present in a shared ancestor are

A

homologs

248
Q

Genes that are
highly similar in sequence often have the same function, and homologous genes that share the same function are orthologs.

A

orthologs

249
Q

Genes that are homologous but have different
functions are

A

paralogs

250
Q

Horizontal gene transfer is facilitated by this; it is the sum
total of all mobile genetic elements in a genome.

A

mobilome

251
Q

genome segment; consisting of genes shared by all individual strains of a species

A

core genome

252
Q

genome segment; consisting of the
core genome plus genes that are not shared by all strains of a species

A

pan genome

253
Q

contain clusters of genes for specialized functions

A

chromosomal islands (also
called genomic islands)

254
Q

Chromosomal islands that encode virulence factors, molecules that
facilitate disease and are found in pathogenic bacteria are called

A

pathogenicity islands

255
Q

SSU rRNA genes remains a cornerstone of molecular phylogeny in microbiology because they are

A

highly conserved
present in all cellular organisms
easily sequenced and analyzed

256
Q

Chemotrophic Metabolism; does not require an external electron acceptor and ATP is generated primarily by substrate-level
phosphorylation, with electron balance obtained by reducing metabolic intermediates that are then excreted as fermentation products

A

fermentation

257
Q

Chemotrophic Metabolism;, requires an external electron acceptor, and ATP is generated by oxidative phosphorylation
resulting from electron transport reactions that generate a proton
motive force (pmf); the enzyme complex ATP synthase harnesses this
force to make ATP

A

respiration

258
Q

The most important assimilative process in the biosphere

A

CO2 fixation performed by autotrophic organisms

259
Q

most widespread and globally important pathway for CO2 fixation.

A

Calvin cycle

260
Q

The key
enzyme of the Calvin cycle is the enzyme

A

RuBisCO

261
Q

proteinaceous microcompartments and are
the site of RuBisCO activity.

A

carboxysomes

262
Q

a pathway of CO2 fixation used by green sulfur bacteria such as Chlorobium, many anaerobic and microaerophilic
chemolithotrophic Bacteria

A

The reverse citric acid cycle (also called the reductive tricarboxylic acid cycle or rTCA cycle)

263
Q

rTCA unique ezymes

A

a-ketoglutarate synthase and pyruvate synthase, which catalyze the
reductive fixation of CO2 using electrons supplied by Fdred.

264
Q

TCA enzymes substituted in rTCA

A

citrate synthase with the enzyme
citrate lyase (an ATP-dependent enzyme that cleaves citrate into acetyl-CoA and oxaloacetate)
succinate dehydrogenase from the citric acid cycle by the FADH-linked fumarate reductase (an enzyme that forms succinate from fumarate) in the reverse cycle.

265
Q

the most efficient of all CO2 fixation pathways

A

reductive acetyl-CoA
pathway

266
Q

describes phototrophic organisms that consume H2O and produce O2 as a waste product; sometimes H2S to H2

A

oxygenic photosynthesis

267
Q

describes photosynthetic organisms that do not produce O2

A

anoxygenic photosynthesis

268
Q

contain magnesium instead of iron at the
center of the ring; contain specific substituents
on the tetrapyrrole ring and a hydrophobic alcohol that helps
anchor it into photosynthetic membranes.

A

chlorophylls

269
Q

Anoxygenic phototrophs produce this chlorophyll equivalent

A

bacteriochlorophyll

270
Q

In eukaryotic phototrophs,
photosynthesis takes place in intracellular organelles called

A

chloroplasts

271
Q

chloroplasts,
which contain sheetlike photosynthetic membrane systems called

A

thylakoids

272
Q

The ultimate structure for capturing energy from low light intensities is the

A

chlorosome

273
Q

The most widespread accessory pigments in phototrophs; hydrophobic pigments that are
firmly embedded in the photosynthetic membrane

A

carotenoids

274
Q

main light-harvesting systems of
these phototrophs

A

phycobiliproteins

275
Q

results in noncyclic photophosphorylation because electrons do not cycle back to reduce the oxidized P680, but
instead are used in the reduction of NADP+

A

oxygenic photosynthesis

276
Q

The reduced inorganic nitrogen compounds ammonia (NH3) and
nitrite (NO2
-) are oxidized aerobically by the chemolithotrophic
nitrifying bacteria in the process of

A

nitrification

277
Q

NH3 can
alsobe oxidized under anoxic conditions. This process is called

A

anammox (for anaerobic ammonia oxidation) and is catalyzed by
an unusual group of obligately anaerobic Bacteria.

278
Q

C1 assimilation pathway; acetyl-CoA is synthesized from
one molecule of CH2O and one molecule of CO2;

A

serine pathway

279
Q

c1 assimilation pathway; more
energy efficient than the serine pathway because all of the carbon
for cell material is derived from CH2O

A

ribulose monophosphate pathway

280
Q

yields a
single fermentation product, lactic acid.

A

homofermentative

281
Q

yields products in addition to lactate, mainly
ethanol plus CO2.

A

heterfermentative

282
Q

variant of glycolytic pathway; glucose 6-phosphate is oxidized
to 6-phosphogluconic acid and NADPH; the 6-phosphogluconic acid is dehydrated and split into pyruvate and glyceraldehyde
3-phosphate (G-3-P)

A

Entner–Doudoroff pathway

283
Q

three different acids—acetic, lactic, and succinic—are formed from the fermentation of glucose or other sugars that can be converted into
glucose. Ethanol, CO2, and H2 are also typically formed as fermentation products;utilize glycolysis

A

mixed- acid fermentation

284
Q

A number of clostridia ferment sugars, producing ??? and ??? as major fermentation products.

A

butyric acid, H2

Brock's (3 decks)

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