C715 OB Part 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is personality?

A

Characteristics that describe an individual’s behavior.

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2
Q

What are personality traits?

A

Characteristics that describe an individual’s behavior in a large number of situations.

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3
Q

What is the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI)?

A

A personality test that taps four characteristics and classifies behavior.

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4
Q

What is the Big Five Model?

A

A personality assessment model that taps five basic dimensions: extraversion, agreeableness, openness, conscientiousness, and neuroticism.

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5
Q

What does extraversion describe?

A

A personality describing someone who is sociable and assertive.

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6
Q

What does agreeableness describe?

A

A personality that describes someone who is good-natured, cooperative, and trusting.

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7
Q

What does conscientiousness describe?

A

A personality that describes someone who is responsible, dependable, persistent, and organized.

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8
Q

What is emotional stability?

A

A personality that characterizes someone as calm, self-confident, and secure.

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9
Q

What does openness to experience characterize?

A

A personality that characterizes someone in terms of imagination, sensitivity, and curiosity.

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10
Q

What is core self-evaluation?

A

Bottom-line conclusions individuals have about their capabilities, competence, and worth as a person.

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11
Q

What is Machiavellianism?

A

The degree to which an individual is pragmatic, maintains emotional distance, and believes that ends can justify means.

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12
Q

What is narcissism?

A

The tendency to be arrogant, self-important, require excessive admiration, and have a sense of entitlement.

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13
Q

What is self-monitoring?

A

The ability of an individual to adjust his or her behavior to external, situational factors.

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14
Q

What is a proactive personality?

A

People who identify opportunities, show initiative, take action, and persevere until meaningful change occurs.

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15
Q

What are values?

A

Basic convictions that a specific mode of conduct or end-state of existence is personally or socially preferable to an opposite or converse mode of conduct or end-state of existence.

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16
Q

What is a value system?

A

A hierarchy based on a ranking of an individual’s values in terms of their intensity.

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17
Q

What are terminal values?

A

Desirable end-states of existence; the goals a person would like to achieve during his or her lifetime.

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18
Q

What are instrumental values?

A

Preferable modes of behavior or means of achieving one’s terminal values.

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19
Q

What is the personality Job-fit theory?

A

A theory that identifies six personality types and proposes that the fit between personality type and occupational environment determines satisfaction and turnover.

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20
Q

What is power distance?

A

Where society accepts that power in institutions and organizations is distributed unequally.

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21
Q

What is individualism?

A

Where people prefer to act as individuals rather than as members of groups.

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22
Q

What is collectivism?

A

A national culture attribute that describes a tight social framework in which people expect others in groups of which they are a part to look after them and protect them.

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23
Q

What does masculinity refer to in culture?

A

Where culture favors traditional masculine work roles of achievement, power, and control.

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24
Q

What does femininity indicate in culture?

A

Indicates little differentiation between male and female roles; where women are treated as the equals of men in all aspects of society.

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25
What is uncertainty avoidance?
A national culture attribute that describes the extent to which a society feels threatened by uncertain and ambiguous situations and tries to avoid them.
26
What is long-term orientation?
A national culture attribute that emphasizes the future, thrift, and persistence.
27
What is short-term orientation?
A national culture attribute that emphasizes the past and present, respect for tradition, and fulfillment of social obligations.
28
What is heredity?
Factors determined at conception; one's biological, physiological, and inherent psychological makeup.
29
What is perception?
A process by which individuals organize and interpret their sensory impressions in order to give meaning to their environment.
30
What is attribution theory?
An attempt to determine whether an individual's behavior is internally or externally caused.
31
What is the fundamental attribution error?
The tendency to underestimate the influence of external factors and overestimate the influence of internal factors when making judgments about the behavior of others.
32
What is self-serving bias?
The tendency for individuals to attribute their own successes to internal factors and put the blame for failures on external factors.
33
What is selective perception?
The tendency to selectively interpret what one sees on the basis of one's interests, background, experience, and attitudes.
34
What is the halo effect?
The tendency to draw a general impression about an individual on the basis of a single characteristic.
35
What is the contrast effect?
Evaluation of a person's characteristics that is affected by comparisons with other people recently encountered who rank higher or lower on the same characteristics.
36
What is stereotyping?
Judging someone on the basis of one's perception of the group to which that person belongs.
37
What is self-fulfilling prophecy?
A situation in which a person inaccurately perceives a second person, and the resulting expectations cause the second person to behave in ways consistent with the original perception.
38
What are decisions?
Choices made from among two or more alternatives.
39
What is a problem?
A discrepancy between the current state of affairs and some desired state.
40
What is rational decision-making?
Characterized by making consistent, value-maximizing choices within specified constraints.
41
What is the rational decision-making model?
A decision-making model that describes how individuals should behave in order to maximize some outcome.
42
What are the steps in the rational decision-making model?
1. Define the problem. 2. Identify the decision criteria. 3. Allocate weights to the criteria. 4. Develop the alternatives. 5. Evaluate the alternatives. 6. Select the best alternative.
43
What is bounded rationality?
A process of making decisions by constructing simplified models that extract the essential features from problems without capturing all their complexity.
44
What is intuitive decision making?
An unconscious process created out of distilled experience.
45
What is anchoring bias?
A tendency to fixate on initial information, from which one then fails to adequately adjust for subsequent information.
46
What is confirmation bias?
The tendency to seek out information that reaffirms past choices and to discount information that contradicts past judgments.
47
What is availability bias?
The tendency for people to base their judgments on information that is readily available to them.
48
What is escalation of commitment?
An increased commitment to a previous decision in spite of negative information.
49
What is randomness error?
The tendency of individuals to believe that they can predict the outcome of random events.
50
What is risk aversion?
The tendency to prefer a sure gain of a moderate amount over a riskier outcome, even if the riskier outcome might have a higher expected payoff.
51
What is hindsight bias?
The tendency to believe falsely, after an outcome of an event is actually known, that one would have accurately predicted that outcome.
52
What is utilitarianism?
A system in which decisions are made to provide the greatest good for the greatest number.
53
Who are whistle blowers?
Individuals who report unethical practices by their employer to outsiders.
54
What is creativity?
The ability to produce novel and useful ideas.
55
What is the three-component model of creativity?
The proposition that individual creativity requires expertise, creative thinking skills, and intrinsic task motivation.
56
What is motivation?
The processes that account for an individual's intensity, direction, and persistence of effort toward attaining a goal.
57
What is Maslow's hierarchy of needs?
1. Physiological 2. Safety 3. Social 4. Esteem 5. Self-actualization
58
What is the hierarchy of needs?
Abraham Maslow's hierarchy of five needs—physiological, safety, social, esteem, and self-actualization—in which, as each need is substantially satisfied, the next need becomes dominant.
59
What are lower-order needs?
Needs that are satisfied externally, such as physiological and safety needs.
60
What is self-actualization?
The drive to become what a person is capable of becoming.
61
What are higher-order needs?
Needs that are satisfied internally, such as social, esteem, and self-actualization needs.
62
What is Theory X?
The assumption that employees dislike work, are lazy, dislike responsibility, and must be coerced to perform.
63
What is Theory Y?
The assumption that employees like work, are creative, seek responsibility, and can exercise self-direction.
64
What is the two-factor theory?
A theory that relates intrinsic factors to job satisfaction and associates extrinsic factors with dissatisfaction.
65
What are hygiene factors?
Factors—such as company policy and administration, supervision, and salary—that, when adequate in a job, placate workers.
66
What is McClelland's theory of needs?
A theory that states achievement, power, and affiliation are three important needs that help explain motivation.
67
What are McClelland's 3 needs?
1. Need for achievement (nAch) 2. Need for power (nPow) 3. Need for affiliation (nAff)
68
What is the Need for affiliation (nAff)?
The desire for friendly and close interpersonal relationships.
69
What is the Need for power (nPow)?
The need to make others behave in a way in which they would not have behaved otherwise.
70
What is the Need for achievement (nAch)?
The drive to excel, to achieve in relationship to a set of standards, and to strive to succeed.
71
What is self-determination theory?
A theory of motivation that is concerned with the beneficial effects of intrinsic motivation and the harmful effects of extrinsic motivation.
72
What is cognitive evaluation theory?
A version of self-determination theory which holds that allocating extrinsic rewards for behavior that had been previously intrinsically rewarding tends to decrease the overall level of motivation if the rewards are seen as controlling.
73
What is self-concordance?
The degree to which peoples' reasons for pursuing goals are consistent with their interests and core values.
74
What is job engagement?
The investment of an employee's physical, cognitive, and emotional energies into job performance.
75
What is goal-setting theory?
A theory that says that specific and difficult goals, with feedback, lead to higher performance.
76
What is management by objectives (MBO)?
A program that encompasses specific goals, participatively set, for an explicit time period, with feedback on goal progress.
77
What is self-efficacy?
An individual's belief that he or she is capable of performing a task.
78
What is reinforcement theory?
A theory that says that behavior is a function of its consequences.
79
What is behaviorism?
A theory that argues that behavior follows stimuli in a relatively unthinking manner.
80
What is social-learning theory?
The view that we can learn through both observation and direct experience.
81
What is equity theory?
A theory that says that individuals compare their job inputs and outcomes with those of others and then respond to eliminate any inequities.
82
What is distributive justice?
Perceived fairness of the amount and allocation of rewards among individuals.
83
What is organizational justice?
An overall perception of what is fair in the workplace, composed of distributive, procedural, and interactional justice.
84
What is procedural justice?
The perceived fairness of the process used to determine the distribution of rewards.
85
What is interactional justice?
The perceived degree to which an individual is treated with dignity, concern, and respect.
86
What is expectancy theory?
A theory that says that the strength of a tendency to act in a certain way depends on the strength of an expectation that the act will be followed by a given outcome and on the attractiveness of that outcome to the individual.
87
What is a Group?
Two or more individuals, interacting and interdependent, who have come together to achieve particular objectives.
88
What is a Formal Group?
A designated work group defined by an organization's structure.
89
What is an Informal Group?
A group that is neither formally structured nor organizationally determined; such a group appears in response to the need for social contact.
90
What is Social Identity Theory?
Perspective that considers when and why individuals consider themselves members of groups.
91
What is ingroup favoritism?
Perspective in which we see members of our ingroup as better than other people, and people not in our group as all the same.
92
What are important characteristics of a social identity?
Similarity, Distinctiveness, Status, Uncertainty reduction.
93
What is the five-stage group-development model?
The five distinct stages groups go through: forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning.
94
What are the five stages of group development?
Forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning.
95
What is the Forming Stage?
The first stage in group development, characterized by much uncertainty.
96
What is the Storming Stage?
The second stage in group development, characterized by intragroup conflict.
97
What is the Norming Stage?
The third stage in group development, characterized by close relationships and cohesiveness.
98
What is the Performing Stage?
The fourth stage in group development, during which the group is fully functional.
99
What is the Adjourning Stage?
The final stage in group development for temporary groups, characterized by concern with wrapping up activities rather than task performance.
100
What is the punctuated-equilibrium model?
A set of phases that temporary groups go through that involves transitions between inertia and activity.
101
What is role perception?
An individual's view of how he or she is supposed to act in a given situation.
102
What are role expectations?
How others believe a person should act in a given situation.
103
What is a psychological contract?
An unwritten agreement that sets out what management expects from an employee and vice versa.
104
What is role conflict?
A situation in which an individual is confronted by divergent role expectations.
105
What are norms?
Acceptable standards of behavior within a group that are shared by the group's members.
106
What is conformity?
The adjustment of one's behavior to align with the norms of the group.
107
What are reference groups?
Important groups to which individuals belong or hope to belong and with whose norms individuals are likely to conform.
108
What is deviant workplace behavior?
Voluntary behavior that violates significant organizational norms and, in so doing, threatens the well-being of the organization or its members.
109
What is status?
A socially defined position or rank given to groups or group members by others.
110
What is Status Characteristics Theory?
A theory that states that differences in status characteristics create status hierarchies within groups.
111
What are the 3 sources of Status Characteristics Theory?
1.) The power a person wields over others 2.) A person's ability to contribute to a group's goals 3.) An individual's personal characteristics.
112
What does the power a person wields over others refer to?
Because they likely control the group's resources, people who control the outcomes tend to be perceived as high status.
113
What does a person's ability to contribute to a group's goals refer to?
People whose contributions are critical to the group's success tend to have high status.
114
What do an individual's personal characteristics refer to?
Someone whose personal characteristics are positively valued by the group typically has higher status than someone with fewer valued attributes.