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C400 > C400 Quizes > Flashcards

C400 Quizes Flashcards

1
Q

What does the application of combined arms allow commanders to do?

A

Create an effect greater than using elements separately or sequentially

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2
Q

What is a location or the establishment of a favorable condition within the area of operations that provides the commander with temporary freedom of action to enhance combat power over an enemy or influence the enemy to accept risk and move to a position of disadvantage?

A

A position of relative advantage

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3
Q

Which of the following is a principle of mission command?

A

Shared understanding

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4
Q

Doctrinally, which integrating cell will develop a branch plan if the commander directs the staff to address a potential enemy counterattack during the current operation?

A

Future operations cell

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5
Q

Command Forces, Control Operations, and Drive the Operations Process are tasks associated with?

A

The command and control warfighting function

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6
Q

What term means sustained combat operations involving multiple corps and divisions?

A

Large-scale ground combat operations

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7
Q

Which of the following is a tenet of unified land operations (ULO)?

A

Depth

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8
Q

What components of the operational framework describe the operation in terms of resources and priorities of support?

A

Main effort and supporting effort

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9
Q

What are the strategic roles of the US Army?

A

Shape environments, prevent conflict, prevail in LSCO, and consolidate gains

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10
Q

Which of the following terms are tactical mission tasks? (select all that apply)

A

Block

Attack by fire

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11
Q

Why do commanders use defeat mechanisms?

A

To help commanders describe an operational approach

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12
Q

Which of the following is one of the major command and control activities performed during operations?

A

Preparing

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13
Q

When commanders have tactical control (TACON) over forces, they have the authority to do which of the following?

A

Give detailed direction to accomplish missions with the area of operations

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14
Q

What is the simultaneous execution of offense, defense, stability, and defense support of civil authorities across multiple domains to shape operational environments, prevent conflict, prevail in large-scale ground combat, and consolidate gains as part of unified action?

A

Unified land operations

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15
Q

What best describes the integrated efforts of the commander’s broad approach and the staff’s scientific approach to produce a plan?

A

Conceptual planning and detailed planning

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16
Q

Each staff section is responsible for assisting the commander with understanding the situation, assessing progress, and making decisions. This is a continuous process. What tool best supports the staff in this responsibility?

A

Running estimates

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17
Q

How does the commander drive the operations process?

A

Thru his/her activities of understanding, visualizing, describing, directing, leading, and assessing

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18
Q

What best describes the content of a doctrinally correct end state?

A

Desired condition of friendly forces with relationship to the enemy, terrain, and civilian populace

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19
Q

What type of decisions are based upon anticipated conditions (CCIRs) and captured on the unit’s decision support matrix to aid the commander?

A

Execution decisions

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20
Q

At the division level, what integration cell is most likely responsible for conducting RDSP and issuing FRAGORDs based upon a change in the plan?

A

Current operations cell

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21
Q

Which of the following is a cavalry squadron constraint?

A

Limited sustainment assets that regularly operate over protracted distances

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22
Q

What is the deliberate process of transferring information and responsibility from one element to another to facilitate observing a specific target, enemy, or NAI/TAI?

A

Reconnaissance handover

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23
Q

If the commander as part of planning considerations wants to destroy, defeat or repel all enemy reconnaissance, which tactical mission task would you assign a formation?

A

Counterreconnaissance

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24
Q

What is the main difference between security and reconnaissance operations?

A

Reconnaissance operations are enemy and terrain oriented, whereas security operations orient on the protected force or facility

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25
Q

What type of reconnaissance management should the commander employ to improve the chances the reconnaissance element collects the required information?

A

Redundancy

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26
Q

UAS platforms have limited effectiveness in locating which of the following?

A

Enemy forces that are well-covered or concealed

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27
Q

Which of the following is a form of maneuver that seeks to cause the enemy force to move out of its position?

A

Turning movement

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28
Q

The commander provides guidance to develop an offensive COA attack that focuses all of the BCT’s maneuver forces, indirect fires, joint fires, and intelligence collection on a thinly protected portion of the enemy’s defensive line. This COA best maximizes which characteristic of the offense?

A

Concentration

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29
Q

Under which condition would a BCT most likely transition from the offense?

A

The BCT reaches a culmination point

30
Q

What are the characteristics of the offense?

A

Audacity, concentration, surprise, tempo

31
Q

In opposing force tactics, what is a formation that prevents enemy reconnaissance or small groups from penetrating friendly positions and force the enemy to prematurely deploy and lose his momentum in the attack?

A

Combat security outpost (CSOP)

32
Q

What does this graphic control measure depict?

A

Support by fire

33
Q

Which element of decisive action is the most decisive form of warfare and the ultimate means of forcing your will on enemy forces?

A

Offense

34
Q

What type of offensive operation would an ABCT most likely use if the unit knows some or all of the enemy’s disposition?

A

Attack

35
Q

What type of offensive operation would an ABCT execute to disorganize the enemy in depth following a successful attack?

A

Exploitation

36
Q

Which of the following is a purpose for why the US Army conducts offensive operations?

A

To destroy enemy forces

37
Q

If your commander emphasized the criticality of making final provisions under cover and concealment before the main effort and supporting effort advance towards the objective, what control measure should be used to graphically depict the location of the provisions your commander described?

A

Assault position

38
Q

If a commander was able to select the time, place and method used by his attacking force, which of the following would the commander have?

A

Initiative

39
Q

If a commander was able to converge indirect fires, direct fires, and electronic warfare simultaneously against a heavily fortified enemy position what is the most likely result of this?

A

Fire superiority

40
Q

According to opposing force tactics, the standard functional organization of a detachment for defense is?

A

Disruption element, main defense element, support element, and reserve element

41
Q

Which of the following is a purpose of the defense?

A

Retain decisive terrain or deny a vital area to an enemy

42
Q

Increasing the enemy’s vulnerability by forcing the enemy to concentrate subordinate forces is an example of what?

A

A purpose of defensive operations

43
Q

As part of a defensive operation, a commander is directed to conduct a retrograde. What is a general consideration when conducting a retrograde?

A

Preserve the force or avoid combat under undesirable conditions.

44
Q

While in the defense, why would the BCT commander direct an uncommitted force to attack an enemy force that appears to be at a reduced strength?

A

Attacking with an uncommitted force is a preferred method of transitioning to the offense

45
Q

If information collection reports indicate the enemy is conducting information warfare and distributes their forces over a wide area during tactical offensive operations, what type offensive action is the enemy force most likely conducting?

A

The enemy is conducting a dispersed attack due to encountering a superior enemy

46
Q

Which of the following is an inherent strength of defensive operations?

A

The defender is able to occupy positions prior to being attacked and prepare defenses in the time available

47
Q

Which of the following best describes the purpose of a battle handover line (BHL)?

A

It indicates where transfer of responsibility for the close fight passes from the withdrawing force to the defending force

48
Q

Which intelligence warfighting function planning product allows a commander to better understand an attacking force’s objective and approaches?

A

Information collection plan

49
Q

During defensive operations, your commander seeks to disrupt enemy attacks. What actions would you recommend employing to desynchronize the enemy force’s preparations?

A

Deceiving or destroying enemy reconnaissance forces

50
Q

Which defensive operation concentrates on denying the enemy access to terrain for a specific time rather than destruction of the enemy by concentrating the bulk of defending forces in mutually supporting prepared positions?

A

Area defense

51
Q

Arriving in your area of operations ahead of your attacker, you study the terrain to find positions that allow the massing of fires on likely approaches and combines natural and man-made obstacles to canalize attacking forces into engagement areas. What characteristic of defense is being described?

A

Preparation

52
Q

According to OPFOR tactics, which of the following is a characteristic of a dispersed attack?

A

Massing at the last moment possible

53
Q

What might the commander be planning to do if, following a successful defense during which the enemy force suffered severe losses, the commander directs reconnaissance assets forward to maintain contact with the enemy and requests an updated status of adjacent friendly units?

A

The unit will transition to offensive operations

54
Q

As the commander visualizes the defensive operation being conducted, how can success best be measured?

A

Immediately gaining the initiative.

55
Q

What fundamental of stabilization includes gaining buy-in, coordinating training and operations, and conducting foreign military sales with the host-nation government?

A

Building host-nation capacity and capabilities

56
Q

If, at the conclusion of offensive operations, the 1/3ID ABCT commander instructs his staff to acquire additional stockage of Class I and Class VIII, and to start identifying key leaders within the host nation security forces, what tasks is he most likely preparing his unit for?

A

Minimum-essential stability tasks

57
Q

What are the two sub-categories of a fragile state?

A

The two sub-categories of a fragile state are crisis and vulnerable. A crisis state is a state the does not exert effective control over its sovereign territory. A vulnerable state is a state cannot or does not want to provide security and basic services to significant portion of its population.

58
Q

Given the inherently complex and uncertain nature of operations, particularly stability operations, what planning process assists organizations in understanding the root causes of instability?

A

Army design methodology (ADM)

59
Q

Army units must do which of the following to prevent the perception of favoritism to an ethnic or political group during the conduct of Army stability operations tasks?

A

Use approved contractors for projects

60
Q

Units assigned responsibilities for governance, law and order, and providing essential services are referred to as which of the following?

A

Transitional military authority

61
Q

Which of the following conditions would NOT initiate stability operations?

A

Civil unrest in US territory

62
Q

Doctrinally, what conditions best describe stability?

A

The populace believing their government is legitimate and their living situation is acceptable and predictable

63
Q

Whenever state National Guard forces respond in support of another state, each JFHQ-State (supporting and supported) ensures certain coordination requirements are met. Most National Guard commitments are for how long?

A

30 days

64
Q

You would like to review national response principles, partner roles, emergency support functions, and structures for coordinating a national disaster response. Identify which document would describe best practices for responding to specific incidents?

A

National Response Framework (NRF)

65
Q

What allows/authorizes a local commander to temporarily support a local community’s civil authority’s request for military assistance in an emergency situation for a limited duration without higher authority approval?

A

Immediate response authority

66
Q

During a recent natural disaster covering multiple areas and jurisdictions of Kansas and Oklahoma, National Guard forces from both states were mobilized in a Title 32 status and the President along with both governors agreed to the commitment of federal forces (Title 10 status). During a recent IPR involving all military and civilian representatives, it was determined that a lack of integration was hindering recovery efforts. To better unify military efforts what type of command status would you recommend to the governors and the President?

A

Dual status command

67
Q

Which of the following is a DSCA primary/key task?

A

Provide support for domestic CBRN incidents

68
Q

During a catastrophic event when the demand for resources exceeds the National Guard capacity, requests for federal Army forces are supported by?

A

US NORTHCOM and USINDOPACOM

69
Q

You are an advisor to the governor of a large gulf coast state dealing with a major natural disaster from a tropical storm. The storm caused significant damage to infrastructure. The governor wants to mobilize National Guard forces in support of other state agencies and is asking the federal government for funding. He wants to retain control of those forces but is concerned about the money available to pay for those forces. What type of duty status should you recommend that best meets the governor’s requirements?

A

Title 32

70
Q

USNORTHCOM does NOT conduct DSCA in which US states and territories?

A

American Samoa, Guam, Hawaii

C400 (9 decks)

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