C3 - Proteins and Enzymes Flashcards

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1
Q

What is a protein?

A

A polymer made from repeating subunits of amino acids (monomers).
There are 20 naturally occurring amino acids (approx 100 overall).

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2
Q

What is the general structure of an amino acid?

A

A central carbon atom

An amino group (-NH2) which has basic properties

A carboxyl group (-COOH) which has acidic properties

A hydrogen atom (-H)

The R group - which varies between each of the 20 amino acids and makes each unique. The simplest R group is of the amino acid ‘glycine’ which is a H atom.

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3
Q

How do amino acids behave as a base or an acid in solutions like plasma or cytoplasm?

A

As a base - they accept protons (H+) to the amino group at the end of the molecule forming a positively charged amino acid ion.

As an acid - they donate protons from the carboxyl group which forms a negatively charged amino acid ion.

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4
Q

What does amphoteric mean?

A

It means that the molecule can behave as bases or acids which is important for the role of some proteins e.g. Haemoglobin which act as buffers.

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5
Q

How are amino acids joined together? (Name of reaction)

A

A condensation reaction which forms a dipeptide or polypeptide chain.

Water is removed as an -OH group is removed from the carboxyl group and a -H atom is removed from the adjacent amino acid.

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6
Q

What type of bond is formed when amino acids join together?

A

Peptide bonds

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7
Q

What is chromatography?

A

A technique used used to separate chemical substances according to their solubility.
It can be done in stationary phase (using paper, silica gel or columns) or mobile phase (liquid or gas)

Amino acids are separated using paper. Different substances have different weights, polarities and structures so move different amounts.

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8
Q

How is the Rf value (relative front) of a substance calculated?

A

Rf = distance travelled by substance / distance travelled by solvent

Different amino acids have different Rf values due to the different R groups they have.

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9
Q

What’s haemoglobin?

A

A complex protein that is essential for the transport of 98% of the oxygen.
It consists of 4 polypeptide chains.

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10
Q

What is the primary structure of a protein?

A

It is the sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide chain.
They are linked by peptide bonds.

A simple chain in a single amino acid can lead to a change in the shape and structure of the protein which may make it non-functional.

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11
Q

What is the secondary structure of a protein?

A

When the primary structure is folded or coiled into two different arrangements which are held in place by hydrogen bonds.

The -NH group has a slight + charge which is attracted to the - charge on oxygen of the -C=O group

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12
Q

What are the two different arrangements of the secondary structure of proteins?

A

Alpha helix: causes the polypeptide chain to coil into a tubular shape

Beta-pleated sheet: causes the polypeptide chain to fold back on itself in flat parallel sheets.

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13
Q

What is the tertiary structure of a protein?

A

When the secondary structure is further folded or coiled to produce a more complex 3D structure.

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14
Q

What type of interactions are present within tertiary structures of proteins?

A

Disulfide bonds - found between two cysteine amino acids. They’re very strong covalent bonds that form between a sulfur atom in each of the cysteine R groups.

Ionic bonds - weaker than above. Found between the carboxyl and amino R groups.

Hydrogen bonds - weaker than above. Found between the O of -C=O and H of -NH group.

Hydrophobic interactions - formed by non-polar R groups which are hydrophobic. They’re arranged so they’re positioned in the centre of the protein.

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15
Q

What is the quaternary structure of a protein?

A

When there is more than one polypeptide chain joined together.
E.g. Haemoglobin

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16
Q

How is haemoglobin assembled and what is it’s structure?

A

It’s made when four polypeptide chains made on the ribosomes within the cell are combined with four haem groups.
This occurs in the E.R. and Golgi apparatus.

When the haemoglobin content of the erythrocytes reaches 30% the nucleus, G.A., E.R. and mitochondria are broken down, creating space for the haemoglobin molecules to be stored and helps the formation of the biconcave discs essential for the erythrocytes functions.

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17
Q

What is an enzyme?

A

A globular protein that acts as a biological catalyst.

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18
Q

What are the four stages of enzyme activity?

A

1) The substrate collides successfully with the active site with sufficient energy and correct orientation.
2) The substrate binds to the active site of the enzyme to form an enzyme-substrate complex (ESC)
3) Once the substrates are bound to the active site the substrates are converted to the products
4) The products are released from the active site of the enzyme leaving it vacant for another substrate to bind again.

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19
Q

What are the functions of proteins?

A
Enzymes
Antibodies
Cell membranes
Structural roles
Hormones
Transport
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20
Q

How do enzymes speed up reactions?

A

Converting a substrate into its products requires energy which cannot be achieved in living cells by simply heating the molecules.
Enzymes speed up reactions as they lower activation energy by using the enzyme ‘catalase’ so that the substrate ‘hydrogen peroxide’ doesn’t need to be raised to such a high energy level and can be converted into water and oxygen easier.

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21
Q

What is an endotherm?

A

An animal which is capable of internal generation of heat.

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22
Q

What is the significant difference between enzymes and non-biological catalysts?

A

Only substrates of a particular shape will fit into the active site of an enzyme.

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23
Q

What is carbonic anhydrase?

A

An enzyme which catalyses both forward and reverse reactions of some reversible reactions.

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24
Q

How does temperature affect enzymes?

A

As temperature increases, kinetic energy increases so random motion is faster. The faster the movement, the greater the chance of a (successful) collision, increasing reaction rate.

It temp’ exceeds 40’C, more vibrations occur between the atoms within each molecule which causes the hydrogen bonds in the enzyme structure to break. This results in the loss of its 3D shape and this distortion can cause it to denature and enzyme-substrate complexes cannot form.

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25
Q

How does the substrate concentration affect the rate of reactions with enzymes?

A

If enzyme concentration remains constant and substrate concentration is increased, reaction rate is increased as there is more substrate molecules in the same volume so there are more (successful) collisions occurring.
The rate increases until the number of enzymes becomes a limiting factor.

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26
Q

How does enzyme concentration affect the rate of reactions with enzymes?

A

The rate increases if enzyme concentration increases, only if there is an excess of substrate molecules.
This rate stops once the substance concentration becomes a limiting factor.

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27
Q

How do changes in pH affect enzymes?

2

A
  • Different R groups of amino acids carry different charges which can be altered by a change of the environment’s pH. This affects amino acisd in the active site and can prevent substrates from binding to it, preventing ESC formations.
  • A change in pH can cause the hydrogen and ionic bonds holding the secondary and tertiary structure of the enzyme in place to be broken which denatures the enzyme.
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28
Q

What are inhibitors?

A

Molecules which interfere with the functioning of the active site of an enzyme directly & indirectly, permanently and temporarily.

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29
Q

What are the two types of temporary inhibitor?

A

Competitive inhibitors

Non-competitive inhibitors

30
Q

What are competitive inhibitors?

A

Molecules which have a chemical structure similar to the shape of the substrate so they occupy the active site of enzymes and block substrates.

31
Q

What are non-competitive inhibitors?

A

Molecules which attach to a binding site separate from the active site of the enzyme, known as the allosteric site.
This has an allosteric effect and changes the shape of the active site so substrates can no longer bind to it to form ESCs.

32
Q

What is a co-factor?

A

A molecule which works by altering the shape of the enzyme so that the enzyme can bind with the substrate more effectively.
The help the substrate fit better into the active site of the enzyme.

33
Q

What is coagulation?

A

Blood clotting which prevents excessive bleeding.

Clots are formed from platelets and proteins in the plasma and dissolve naturally.

34
Q

What occurs during the clotting process?

A

1) Collagen fibres are exposed due to damage of blood vessels.

2) This activates platelets which stick together and to the surfaces of damaged blood vessels and fibrin fibres.
They clump to form a plug/an initial barrier to prevent further blood loss. (Ca ions are needed)

3) Leucocytes collect at the site of damage. Tissue below the endothelium releases the enzyme ‘thromboplastin’
4) Platelets break down and release thromboplastin also.
5) Thromboplastin catalyses the conversion of prothrombin (inactive plasma protein) into thrombin (active enzyme) which requires Ca ions.
6) Thrombin hydrolysed fibrinogen (large, soluble plasma proteins) into fibrin (small & insoluble).
7) Fibrin fibres become tangled forming a mesh that traps red blood cells and forms a clot.
8) The clot is a gel but dries in air to form a scab to prevent further entry of pathogens.

35
Q

What is hypovolemic shock?

A

Shock due to severe blood and fluid loss where the heart is unable to pump enough blood around the body and can cause organs to stop working.

36
Q

What are the two diagnostic enzymes in medicine?

A

Blood Amylase

Lactic Acid dehydrogenase (LDH)

37
Q

How is amylase produced and how is it an diagnostic enzyme?

A

It is produced in the pancreas and salivary glands and hydrolyses carbohydrates.

It’s released into the blood if the pancreas is inflamed or diseased.
Testing can identify pancreatic disorders.
The pancreas insulin and glucagon which can become active and digest pancreatic tissue and cause haemorrhaging.

Acute pancreatitis can be indicated by increased blood and urine amylase and serum blood lipase.

38
Q

What is lactic acid dehydrogenase and how is it an diagnostic enzyme?

A

LDH lactic acid dehydrogenase is an enzyme released into the blood when tissues are damaged.

It can be screened for tissue damage (e.g. From liver disease, cancer, anaemia, muscle trauma etc.) obtained from veins.

It can also determine the effectivity of chemotherapy when treating lymphoma.

LDH comes in five different forms.

39
Q

What are the three enzyme inhibitor treatments?

A

Aspirin

Warfarin

Streptokinase

40
Q

What is aspirin?

How does it work?

A

An enzyme inhibitor medication with two main actions:

  • an anti platelet agent
  • an anti prostaglandin (treats fever and pain relief)

These are due to how aspirin inhibits the enzyme cyclo-oxygenase (COX) which catalyses the formation of prostaglandins. (Anti inflammatory chemicals)

The inhibiting effect is achieved by the addition of an acetyl group on to an amino acid near to the COX.
This stops the arachidonate from binding to the active site and preventing prostaglandin formation.

COX also activates thromboxane A2 which causes platelets to stick together/aggregate and plug wounds so, when it’s active site is filled and the arachidonate can’t bind to COX, less clots are produced, giving aspirin the ‘blood thinning’ effect.

41
Q

What gives aspirin the ‘blood thinning’ effect?

A

Aspirin inhibits the enzyme cyclo-oxygenase (COX) which catalyses the formation of prostaglandins. (Anti inflammatory chemicals)

The inhibiting effect is achieved by the addition of an acetyl group on to an amino acid near to the COX.
This stops the arachidonate from binding to the active site and preventing prostaglandin formation.

However COX also activates thromboxane A2 which causes platelets to stick together/aggregate and plug wounds so, when it’s active site is filled and the arachidonate (fatty acid) can’t bind to COX, less clots are produced, giving aspirin the ‘blood thinning’ effect.

42
Q

What are the two actions of aspirin?

A

An enzyme inhibitor medication with two main actions:

  • an anti platelet agent
  • an anti prostaglandin (treats fever and pain relief)
43
Q

What is warfarin?

How does it work?

A

A soluble compound with anticoagulant properties used in the treatment of thrombosis and pulmonary embolism.

It inhibits vitamin K-dependent synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX and X.
It inhibits the enzyme ‘epoxide reductase’, causing a decrease in the amount of vitamin K available and vitamin K hydroquinone in tissues.

This inhibits the carboxylation activity of the glutamyl carboxylase and prevents formation of thrombin in liver cells.

Therefore it prevents blood clot formation.

44
Q

What is streptokinase?

How does it work?

A

An enzyme secreted as a toxin by streptococcus bacteria.
It’s a clot dissolving medication.

It is a fibrinolytic drug that hydrolyses plasminogen to plasmin which breaks fibrin down and dissolves clots.
It’s given intravenously.

Being a bacterial enzyme, immunity can be developed so it cannot be over prescribed.

45
Q

What is coagulation?

A

Blood clotting which prevents excessive bleeding.

Clots are formed from platelets and proteins in the plasma and dissolve naturally.

46
Q

What occurs during the clotting process?

A

1) Collagen fibres are exposed due to damage of blood vessels.

2) This activates platelets which stick together and to the surfaces of damaged blood vessels and fibrin fibres.
They clump to form a plug/an initial barrier to prevent further blood loss. (Ca ions are needed)

3) Leucocytes collect at the site of damage. Tissue below the endothelium releases the enzyme ‘thromboplastin’
4) Platelets break down and release thromboplastin also.
5) Thromboplastin catalyses the conversion of prothrombin (inactive plasma protein) into thrombin (active enzyme) which requires Ca ions.
6) Thrombin hydrolysed fibrinogen (large, soluble plasma proteins) into fibrin (small & insoluble).
7) Fibrin fibres become tangled forming a mesh that traps red blood cells and forms a clot.
8) The clot is a gel but dries in air to form a scab to prevent further entry of pathogens.

47
Q

What is hypovolemic shock?

A

Shock due to severe blood and fluid loss where the heart is unable to pump enough blood around the body and can cause organs to stop working.

48
Q

What are the two diagnostic enzymes in medicine?

A

Blood Amylase

Lactic Acid dehydrogenase (LDH)

49
Q

How is amylase produced and how is it an diagnostic enzyme?

A

It is produced in the pancreas and salivary glands and hydrolyses carbohydrates.

It’s released into the blood if the pancreas is inflamed or diseased.
Testing can identify pancreatic disorders.
The pancreas insulin and glucagon which can become active and digest pancreatic tissue and cause haemorrhaging.

Acute pancreatitis can be indicated by increased blood and urine amylase and serum blood lipase.

50
Q

What is lactic acid dehydrogenase and how is it an diagnostic enzyme?

A

LDH lactic acid dehydrogenase is an enzyme released into the blood when tissues are damaged.

It can be screened for tissue damage (e.g. From liver disease, cancer, anaemia, muscle trauma etc.) obtained from veins.

It can also determine the effectivity of chemotherapy when treating lymphoma.

LDH comes in five different forms.

51
Q

What are the three enzyme inhibitor treatments?

A

Aspirin

Warfarin

Streptokinase

52
Q

What are the two actions of aspirin?

A

An enzyme inhibitor medication with two main actions:

  • an anti platelet agent
  • an anti prostaglandin (treats fever and pain relief)
53
Q

What determines the different types of blood?

A

The presence or absence of certain antigens on the cells.

54
Q

What are the 4 main blood types and what does each contain?

A

A - only has A antigens on the erythrocytes and anti-B / B antibodies in the plasma

B - only has B antigens on the erythrocytes and anti-A / A antibodies in the plasma

AB - has A and B antigens on the erythrocytes but neither A nor B antibodies in the plasma

O - has no antigens on the erythrocytes but both A and B antibodies in the plasma

55
Q

What is the third type of antigen on the surface of erythrocytes?

A

Rhesus (Rh) which can be positive (can recieve + & - blood types) or negative (can receive - blood types only).

56
Q

What are the different forms of blood used for transfusion?

A

Whole blood

Leuco-depleted blood

Packed red cells

Platelets

Clotting factors

Plasma

57
Q

What’s whole blood?

A

Blood containing plasma, leucocytes and erythrocytes used for severe blood loss

58
Q

What’s leuco-depleted blood?

A

Whole blood without leucocytes for people with regular transfusions.

59
Q

What blood with packed red cells?

A

A.k.a red cell concentrate is the erythrocytes removed from the rest of blood, diluted with a solution of NaCl, adenine, glucose and mannitol.
There are no leucocytes or plasma.
Used after childbirth, surgery or anaemia.

60
Q

What are platelets (used for transfusions)?

A

Separated platelets for patients with bone marrow failure or transplants.

61
Q

What is plasma (for transfusion)?

A

Blood with all cells and platelets removed.

62
Q

What chemicals sprayed on the chromatogram helps visualise the amino acid?

A

Ninhydrin

It reacts with any amino acids present to form a blue violet compound

63
Q

What substrate does catalase act upon?

A

Hydrogen peroxide.

64
Q

Why may chloride ions be used within enzyme activity reactions?

A

As a co factor to help the active site work better

65
Q

What occurs during protein synthesis?

A

mRNA formed by transcription from the nuclear DNA passes through pores in the nuclear membrane and attaches to the ribosomes on the rough endoplasmic reticulum.

Specific amino acids are brought to the mRNA my molecules of tRNA which attach to the codons of mRNA by their anticodons.

Adjacent amino acids then join together by peptide bonds to form a polypeptide. This is then released and passes to the Golgi body where is associates with other similar molecules to make a protein.

66
Q

Describe a method students could use to confirm the presence of protein in a drink:

A

Burette test

Add NaOH / burette solution
Observe colour change if present from blue to lilac.

67
Q

What’s the role of calcium ions in the clotting cascade?

A

They’re a cofactor.

68
Q

Proteins in skeletal muscle myofibrils are arranged in groups to form a repeating pattern, which changes as the muscle contracts.

Describe how the pattern within a myofibril changes when skeletal muscles contract:

A

Z lines move closer

The sarcomeres shortens

I bands and H zones shorten

The A band stays the same length

69
Q

Explain how a gene mutation can lead to a protein malfunctioning:

A

A mutation causes a change in DNA sequencing / triplets, thus resulting in a change in mRNA and tRNA.

This means different amino acids will be used in the primary structure, containing different R groups.

R groups are responsible for the types of bonding in the tertiary structure, therefore there’s a change in the tertiary structure.

The overall protein shape will be different, therefore ESCs cannot form.

70
Q

Describe the differences in globular and fibrous proteins, referring to haemoglobin and collagen:

A

Haemoglobin is globular:

  • It has a spherical shape with 4 haem groups and 4 polypeptide chains.
  • Hydrophilic regions are on the outside, hydrophobic is on the inside.
  • Forms H bonds with water
  • Soluble
  • Hb carries O2

Collagen is fibrous:

  • Long chains
  • Forms H bonds with adjacent chains
  • Insoluble
  • Strong
  • Has a structural role
  • Collagen forms cross links between molecules