C12 - Fixed Income (25-30 Qs C11-C14 'Asset Classes') Flashcards
What is a repo?
A) An agreement to sell an instrument and then repurchase it later
B) A company purchasig its own shares on the market
C) Repossesing securities after counterparty default
D) A government method of raising cash by issuing more of an existing gilt
A - An agreement to sell an instrument and then repurchase it later
A repo, or repurchase agreement, is a financial agreement where one party lends money to another party in exchange for collateral. It’s a type of short-term borrowing that’s often used for government securities.
How it works
* The seller sells an asset to the buyer at a set price
* The seller agrees to buy back the asset at a later date and price
* The buyer receives collateral to protect against credit risk
Why it’s important
* Repos help move cash and securities through the financial system
* Repos provide short-term funding for investors
* Repos help central banks control interest rates and supply reserves
Types of repos
* Gilt repo: A sterling repo that uses UK government bonds as collateral
* Open repo: The seller agrees to buy back the asset on demand
* Reverse repo: The buyer buys an asset and then sells it again
Which theory of interest rates states that “in equilibrium the long-term rate is a geometric average of today’s short-term rate and the expectced short-term rates in the future”?
A) Yield curve
B) Market segmentation
C) Liquidity preference theory
D) Pure expectation theory
D - Pure Expectation Theory
In other words, if the market thinks that short-term rates are going to increase, long-term rates will be high (and vice-versa).
* A yield curve is a graph that shows how interest rates on debt instruments, like bonds, change as the bonds’ maturity dates approach. It’s a visual representation of the cost of borrowing money over different time periods.
* Market segmentation is the process of dividing a market into smaller groups, or segments, based on shared characteristics. The goal is to identify groups of people with similar needs and interests so that businesses can target them with specific marketing strategies
* Liquidity preference theory is a macroeconomic theory that explains how the supply and demand for money determines interest rates. The theory states that people prefer to hold liquid assets, like cash, over less liquid assets, like stocks, bonds, or real estate. Investors are more likely to choose assets that can be easily converted to cash without losing value and will expect a higher premium for taking on a longer-term loss of liquidity. Liquidity preference theory can help people navigate financial and economic changes, especially during crises.
Arran Malts Ltd buys a CD via the secondary market from the Training Company
The credit risk associated with this CD for the Edmonton Energy Company is:
A) The risk of the issuer defaulting
B) The risk of the Training Company defaulting
C) The risk of an increase in interest rates
D) Re-investment risk at the maturity of the CD
A certificate of deposit (CD) is a type of savings account that pays a fixed interest rate on money held for an agreed-upon period of time.
A - The risk of the issuer defaulting
The issuer of Certificates of Deposits (CDs) are banks. The credit risk lies with the issuing bank defaulting and not paying the holder of the CD the proceeds at maturity. Options C and D are not credit risk; they are interest rate risk and re-investment risk respectively.
- Interest rate risk is the possibility of financial loss that can occur when interest rates change. It can affect bond owners, banks, and other institutions.
- Reinvestment Risk is the potential risk where future proceeds, such as the coupon payments or debt principal, will need to be reinvested at a lower interest rate compared to the original yield (i.e. on a debt security).
Which of the following will be the MOST suitable investment for a non-taxpayer who is expecting interest rates to rise and who requires income?
A) Convertible Bonds
B) Low coupon gilts
C) Conventional bonds
D) FRNs
D - FRNs
FRNs are Floating Rate Notes - so the coupons are linke to interest rates.
Who is responsible for auctioning gilts?
A) Bank of England
B) DMO
C) FCA
D) The Treasury
B - DMO
Gilts are UK Government securities issued by HM Treasury. Since April 1998 gilts have been issued by the Debt Management Office (DMO) on behalf of HM Treasury.
Which of the following are TRUE of a gilt?
1. The flat yield is GREATER than the gross redemption yield (GRY) if it is priced above par
2. The flat yield is LESS than the gross redemption yield (GRY) if it is priced above the par
3. The coupon is expressed NET
4. The coupon is expressed GROSS
A) 1 and 3
B) 1 and 4
C) 2 and 3
D) 2 and 4
B - 1 (flat yield is GREATER than gross redemption yield if it is priced above par) and 4 (The coupon is expressed GROSS)
Remember the relationships:
Price > Nominal Value = Flat Yield > GRY (YTM) and vice versa
Yield to Maturity (YTM)
- The gross redemption yield (GRY) also includes the difference between the gilt’s purchase price and its face value at maturity.
- The income or running yield (sometimes also known as the flat yield) does not take into account any profit or loss made by holding the bond to redemption, and simply assumes the investor will be able to sell the bond at the same price they purchased it for.
Calculate the gross redemption yield (GRY) of a 10% bond priced at £95 with 3 years to redemption
A) 12.21%
B) 12.08%
C) 11.48%
D) 10.00%
B - 12.08%
Solve by trial and error.
The price = the present value of the future cash flows.
£95 = (£10 x annuity factor for 3 years) + (PV of £100 par). Using 12.08 as the discount rate will equate the price to the present value of the future cash flows.
What is the correct order of priority in a liquidation for the following?
1. Liquidator fees and expenses
2. Unsecured creditors
3. Subordinated loan stock
4. Floating charge debentures
A) 1, 4, 2 and 3
B) 4, 1, 2 and 3
C) 3, 1, 4 and 2
D) 1, 2, 4, and 3
A - 1 (fees & expenes), 4 (floating charge debentures), 2 (unsecured loan stock) and 3 (Subordinated loan stock
The liquidators must cover their exposure first. Unsecured creditors include trade creditors, suppliers, customers, contractors, some staff claims, plus HMRC. Prior to 2002, HMRC was ranked as a preferential creditor, but the introduction of the Enterprise Act reduced their status to that of unsecured creditor for all forms of tax.
What does modified duration measure?
A) The extent to which the gross redemption yield (GRY) of a gilt changes given a particular change in price
B) The life of the gilt to maturity
C) The extent to which a gilt price changes given any particular change in the interest rate
D) The life of the gilt to maturity in days, having adjusted for leap years
C - The extent to which a gilt price changes given any particular change in the interest rate
Modified duration is the percentage change in a bond’s price given a 100 basis point (1%) change in yields
A bond has a price of £97. If the modified duration of the bond is 1.51. What is the new price after a 2% increase in yield?
A) £99.79
B) £93.98
C) £95.06
D) £94.07
D - £94.07
Modified duration shows that percentage change in price for EVERY 1% change in yield. Here, you have 2% change in yield, so you have to work out MD X 2.
Fall in price = (2 x 0.0151) x £97 = £2.93.
£97 - £2.93 (deduct as yield went up) = £94.07
Remember, if the yield goes up, the price goes down and vice versa (SEE-SAW)
The different yield between conventional and index-linked gilts may be viewed as reflecting:
A) Long-term inflation rates
B) Future base rates
C) Foreign exchange rates
D) Unemplotment in the future
A - Long-term inflation rates
The price of which of the following is most responsive to changes in interest rates?
A) Irredeemable gilts
B) Long dated gilts
C) Medium dates gilts
D) short dates gilts
A - Irredeemable gilts
- Irredeemable gilts are British government bonds that pay interest but do not repay the original amount borrowed. They are also known as undated gilts.
- Short dated Gilt gilts that are paid back in LESS than seven years
As a gilt approaches maturity, how will its market value change?
A) Tend towards nominal value due to pull to redemption
B) Move away from nominal value due to pull to redemption
C) Flutuate more widely due to pull to redemption
D) Increase above nominal value due to its attractiveness to higher rate tax payers
A - Tend towards nominal value due to pull to redemption
Which is the best decription of a FRN?
A) A secured charge over a debenture
B) A fixed charge over the assets of a business
C) A loan stock which pays a variable rate of interest
D) A future foreign exchange contract
C - A loan stock which pays a variable rate of interest
FRNs are Floating Rate Notes - so the coupons are linke to interest rates.
Which of the following are characteristics of Eurobonds?
1. They are regulated by ICMA
2. Interest is NOT paid on them
3. Settlement is normally on the third calendar day
4. All Eurobond dealers are required to be ICMA members
A) 1 only
B) 1 and 3
C) 1, 2 and 3 but not 4
D) All of the above
A - 1 (regulated by ICMA) only
Eurobonds are T+1 settlement normally
Which of the following are characteristics of UK Treasury Bills?
1. They usually have lives of 3 months
2. They usually have lives of up to 5 years
3. They are usually issued at a discount to nominal value
4. They usually provide an income stream
A) 1 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 3 and 4 only
D) 2 and 4 only
B - 1 (3 month lives) and 3 (discount to nominal)
UK Treasury bills are short-term government bonds that are issued by the UK government. They are a type of debt security that are zero-coupon, meaning they don’t pay interest.
Which of the following BEST describes a Eurobond?
A) A corporate bond issued internationally, via a sydicate of banks
B) A government bond issued in an oversea currency
C) A bond issued internationally, underwritten by a sydicate of banks
D) A bond issued in Europe, typically denominated in Euros
C - A bond issued internationally, underwritten by a sydicate of banks
A Eurobond is a bond issued offshore by governments or corporates denominated in a currency other than that of the issuer’s country. Eurobonds are usually long-term debt instruments. Eurobonds are typically denominated in US Dollars (USD).
Liquidity preference theory implies what about yield curve?
A) People are indifferent about maturity dates
B) People want a premium for a holding longer maturity investments
C) People want a premium for shorter maturity investments
D) Maturity is only important for fixed interest stocks
B - People want a premium for a holding longer maturity investments
Liquidity preference theory is a macroeconomic theory that explains how the supply and demand for money determines interest rates. The theory states that people prefer to hold liquid assets, like cash, over less liquid assets, like stocks, bonds, or real estate. Investors are more likely to choose assets that can be easily converted to cash without losing value and will expect a higher premium for taking on a longer-term loss of liquidity. Liquidity preference theory can help people navigate financial and economic changes, especially during crises.
What is the lowest S&P bond rating, normally regarded as investment grade?
A) AA-
B) A-
C) BBB-
D) B-
C - BBB-
S&P Investment grades go AAA > AA > A > BBB
Speculative Grades then follow on with > BB > B > CCC > CC > C > D
PLUS (+) rank above just the letter ratings, and MINUS (-) rank below just the letter ranking. I.e. AA+ > AA > AA-
Tintagel Trumpet Co. buys a CD from Bugle Brass Ltd. Is the credit risk associated with this:
A) the risk of the issuer defaults
B) the risk of Bugle Brass default
C) the risk of increased interest rates
D) the risk of reinvesting the proceeds after it has matured
A certificate of deposit (CD) is a type of savings account that pays a fixed interest rate on money held for an agreed-upon period of time.
A - the risk of the issuer defaults
A CD is effectively a promissory note from the issuer.
The issuer of Certificates of Deposits (CDs) are banks. The credit risk lies with the issuing bank defaulting and not paying the holder of the CD the proceeds at maturity. Options C and D are not credit risk; they are interest rate risk and re-investment risk respectively.
- Interest rate risk is the possibility of financial loss that can occur when interest rates change. It can affect bond owners, banks, and other institutions.
- Reinvestment Risk is the potential risk where future proceeds, such as the coupon payments or debt principal, will need to be reinvested at a lower interest rate compared to the original yield (i.e. on a debt security).
Which of the following best describes stripping in relation to a bond?
A) Separating responsibility for paying redemption and interest
B) Separating coupons and redemption proceeds
C) Zero coupon bonds
D) Acquiring a mixed portfolio of bonds and selling some off to raise the risk profile of the porfolio
B - Separating coupons and redemption proceeds
A strip bond has its coupons and principal stripped off and sold separately to investors as new securities. An investment bank or dealer will usually buy a debt instrument and “strip” it, separating the coupons from the principal amount, which then becomes known as the residue.
Which of the following is the lowest investment grade as provided by Moody’s?
A) Aaa3
B) B3
C) Baa3
D) Ba3
C - Baa3
Investment grades go:
Aaa > Aa1-3 > A1-3 > Baa1-3
Then Speculative grades follow on with:
> Ba1-3 > B1-3 > Caa1-3 > Ca > C
The lower the number, the higher the rank of that rating.
If a bond is issued initially convertible into 20 shares per £100 nominal, what will be the change in conversion rate if there is a one for one scrip issue?
A) Doubled
B) No change
C) Flawed
D) 4
A - Doubled
A scrip issue (AKA scrip or capitalization issue) is an offer of free additional shares to existing shareholders.
1 for 1 means the shares will be doubled and the conversion rate reflects this.
A bond with 10% coupon has three years (payments) to redemption and is quoted at £97.56. The redemption yield is 11%
What is the (Macaulay) duration of the gilt?
A) 2.53 years
B) 2.73 years
C) 2.93 years
D) 2.13 years
B - 2.73 years
Macaulay duration = sum(PV. of each cash flow x time)/price
Macaulay duration is a measure of how long it takes to receive the cash flows from a bond, weighted by their present value. It’s used to estimate how sensitive a bond’s price is to changes in interest rates.