Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Manual 3 > C spine > Flashcards

C spine Flashcards

1
Q

What is the law of superior motion?

A

Motion of a single vertebra is described relative to the vertebra below regardless of whether the motion occurs from above down or below up.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the rule of vertebral body motion?

A

It is the direction of the vertebral body and not the spinous process that determines the direction of vertebral motion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When an apophyseal joint opens, which direction does it glide?

A

Anterior and superior glide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When an apophyseal joint closes, which direction does it glide?

A

Posterior/ inferior glide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When an apophyseal joint gaps, which direction does it separate?

A

Perpendicularly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When the OA joint extends, there is a ______ roll and ________ glide.

A

Posterior roll

Anterior glide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When the OA joint flexes, there is a ______ roll and ________ glide.

A

Anterior roll

Posterior glide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

At the OA joint, side bending and rotation are in the (same/ opposite) direction

A

Opposite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How many degrees of flexion are in the OA joint?

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How many degrees of extension are in the OA joint?

A

15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How many degrees of lateral flexion are in the OA joint?

A

7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How many degrees of rotation are in the OA joint?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When you side bend the OA to the left, which way is the left condyle gliding? Right condyle?

A

SB left-> rot right

Left- anterior
Right- posteiror

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Pt has full extension and limited flexion (anterior/posterior) OA is the problem

A

Posterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

You find that your pt is limited in OA flexion, how do you assess which condyle is at fault?

A

Add side bending component

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When assessing the OA joint in flexion and right SB, what are you assessing?

A

The LEFT condyle’s ability to go posteriorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

True or false; when assessing an OA impairment, the limited condyle is on the contralateral side of the side bend

A

False: Generally if there is a restriction it will be on the side of the side bend because the SB will stress the condylar glide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which joint is the primary rotator and derotator of the cervical spine?

A

AA joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How many degrees of flexion is in the AA joint?

A

11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How many degrees of extension is in the AA joint?

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How many degrees of lateral flexion is in the AA joint?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How many degrees of rotation is in the AA joint?

A

45!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of AA instability and CAD ?

A

5Ds, 3Ns, and 1A

■ Dizziness 
■ Drop Attacks 
■ Diplopia 
■ Dysarthria 
■ Dysphagia 
■ Nausea 
■ Numbness 
■ Nystagmus 
■ Ataxia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the facet orientation of the lower C spine?

A

40-45 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How many degrees of flexion are in the lower c spine joints?

A

8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How many degrees of extension are in the lower c spine joints?

A

8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How many degrees of lateral flexion are in the lower c spine joints?

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How many degrees of rotation are in the lower c spine joints?

A

9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is fryette’s first rule?

A

Rule of neutral mechanics

When the vertebrae are idling in neutral (ie., facets are unloaded), side bending is associated with contralateral rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Where might you find fryette’s first rule?

A

Occurs in the thoracic and

lumbar spine; upper cervical (O-A-A) in all conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is fryette’s second rule?

A

Rule of non-neutral spinal mechanics

When the vertebrae are in a non-neutral position (i.e., flexion or extension), side bending is associated with ipsilateral rotation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Where might you find fryette’s type 2 spinal mechanics?

A

Occurs in lower cervical spine (C2 –C7), thoracic spine, and lumbar spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is fryette’s third rule?

A

When motion is introduced in one plane, other motions are reduced in range

34
Q

The OA condyles are at a ___degree angle

A

60

35
Q

Which measurement is the ADI? What is normal?

A

Atlantodental interval
3mm adults
3-5mm children

36
Q

Which ligament retracts meniscoid tissue?

A

Ligamentum flavum

37
Q

True or false; when Co SB right and rotates left, C1 also SB right and rotates left

A

True

38
Q

Co rotates L
C1 rotates __
C2 rotates __

A

Co rotates L
C1 rotates L
C2 rotates R

39
Q

At C2-C7, side bend

and rotation to (same/ opposite) side

A

Same

40
Q

True or false; In the lower c spine, there are ALWAYS neutral mechanics.

A

False, NEVER neutral mechanics

41
Q

What is the physiologic barrier?

A

End of AROM

42
Q

What is the elastic barrier?

A

End of PROM

43
Q

What is the anatomic barrier?

A

THE ABSOLUTE END

44
Q

Movement toward neutral is a/an (direct/indirect) technique

A

Indirect

45
Q

Movement toward motion barrier is a/an (direct/indirect) technique

A

Direct

46
Q

Movement toward neutral is in the direction of (ease/bind)

A

Ease

47
Q

Movement toward the motion barrier is in the direction of (ease/bind)

A

Bind

48
Q

The restrictive barrier is indicative of…

A

Somatic dysfunction (impairment)

49
Q

What are the causes of a restrictive barrier?

A

It can be secondary to joint blockage (derangement) and/or shortened articular tissue (i.e., capsule, ligament, myofascial tissue, etc.)

50
Q

Positional diagnosis: T8,9 is flexed, rotated right, side bent right = FRS right.

Motion restriction:

A

Restricted extension, rotation, and side bend left.

51
Q

Positional diagnosis: L4,5 is extended, rotated right, side bent right = ERS right.

Motion restriction:

A

Restricted flexion, rotation, and side bend left.

52
Q

Positional diagnosis: C5,6 is flexed or bilaterally flexed.

Motion restriction:

A

C5,6 is restricted in extension or bilateral extension.

53
Q

A Major Motion Loss is present when ________ of the range is restricted. This means that, positionally, there will be ___________ in neutral (mid position).

A

50% or more of the range is restricted. This means that, positionally, there will be asymmetry present in neutral (mid position).

54
Q

A Minor Motion Loss is present when ___________ of the range is restricted. This means that, positionally, there will be _______in neutral (mid position).

A

is present when less than 50% of the range is restricted. This means that, positionally, there will be no asymmetry in neutral (mid position).

55
Q

In type II dysfunctions, ___segment is involved

A

1

56
Q

Type II dysfunctions are found in (neutral/ non-neutral) spinal positions

A

Non neutral

57
Q

Type II dysfunctions are induced…

A

Traumatically

58
Q

Type II dysfunctions are a _________ dysfunctions

A

Articular

59
Q

True or false; Type II dysfunctions are usually asymptomatic

A

False; symptomatic

60
Q

Is the diagnosis of an FRS an arthrokinematic of osteokinematic term?

A

Osteokinematic

61
Q

In an FRS right, what is the osteokinematic position?

A

flexed, rotated, and side bent right (FRS right)

62
Q

In an FRS right, what is the osteokinematic restriction?

A

extension, rotation, and side bending left

63
Q

For an FRS right, what is the arthrokinematic position?

A

Left facet is open

64
Q

For an FRS right, what is the arthrokinematic restriction?

A

Left facet can’t close

65
Q

For an ERS left, what is the osteokinematic position?

A

extended, rotated, and side bent left (ERS left)

66
Q

For an ERS left, what is the osteokinematic restriction?

A

flexion, rotation, and side bending right

67
Q

For an ERS left, what is the arthrokinematic position?

A

Left facet is closed

68
Q

For an ERS left, what is the arthrokinematic restriction?

A

Left facet can’t open

69
Q

What are the 3 keys to a successful MET?

A

Localization (to feather edge)
Control
Balance

70
Q

What are the 4 components of neurophysiological theory?

A

a. Down-regulates gamma gain
b. Golgi tendon organ inhibition
c. Refractory period (muscle can’t contract)
d. Renshaw cell inhibition

71
Q

What happens during the down regulation gamma gain?

A

At the motion unit segment, the elongation lengthening allows for intramural fibers to lengthen .

72
Q

What happens during the inhibition of golgi tendon organs?

A

Exertion of strong resistance against the force of muscles causes the muscles to shut off and allow passive lengthing of the tissue

Alpha motor neuron inhibition

73
Q

How does neurophysiological theory utilize the refractory period?

A

Relaxation where the muscle cant contract (3 second rest) new lengthing can occur during PIR (post isometric relaxation)

74
Q

What is renshaw cell inhibition?

A

Happens at the spine

Protects muscle from over activity by inhibiting alpha motor neurons at the core

75
Q

What are the 3 theories of why MET works?

A

Neurophysiological theory
Mechanical theory
Sensorymotor learning theory

76
Q

Who is the father of sensorimotor learning theory?

A

Feldenkrais

77
Q

When the right SCM contracts, what happens?

A

SB R and rotates L

78
Q

Which cervical extensor can induce headaches?

A

Rectus capitus posterior minor

79
Q

Which muscles impact contralateral side rotation if they’re too tight or weak?

A

Rectus capitis posterior major

Obliques capitis inferior

80
Q

Pt comes to see you with an FRS right at C5 C6, what are the possible muscles that can help hold that into position?

A

Right anterior scalene pulling at C5 (right because they pull down in the direction on FRS and shortens) and left middle and posterior scalenes sat C6 (they help keep 6 back)

81
Q

Levator scapula attaches to which cervical vertebrae?

A

C1-C4

82
Q

True or false; although levator scap attaches to C1-C4, it often holds in place an ipsilateral ERS in the LOWER cervical spine

A

True, but it can also impact C1 translation

Manual 3 (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions