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C/P Flashcards

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1
Q

If salt concentration is high in the cell, what will water do?

A

Water will go out of the cell (osmosis)

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2
Q

Isotonic

A

denoting or relating to a solution having the same osmotic pressure as some other solution, especially one in a cell or a body fluid.

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3
Q

Hypertonic

A

Having a higher osmotic pressure than a particular fluid, typically a body fluid or intracellular fluid

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4
Q

Hypotonic

A

Having a lower osmotic pressure than a particular fluid, typically a body fluid or intracellular fluid

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5
Q

Osmosis

A

a process by which molecules of a solvent tend to pass through a semipermeable membrane from a less concentrated solution into a more concentrated one, thus equalizing the concentrations on each side of the membrane

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6
Q

Colligative properties

A

properties that depend upon the concentration of solute molecules or ions, but not upon the identity of the solute. Properties include vapor pressure lowering, boiling point elevation, freezing point depression, and osmotic pressure.

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7
Q

Why does ice float in water?

A

Water’s bent structure and covalently bonded H’s maximizes the hydrogen bonding that occurs producing a hexagonal structure with large empty spaces.

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8
Q

Calcium Sulfite

A

CaSO3

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9
Q

Calcium Sulfate (Gypsum)

A

CaSO4

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10
Q

Beta-minus decay

A

occurs when, in a nucleus with too many protons or too many neutrons, one of the protons or neutrons is transformed into the other. In _________decay, a neutron decays into a proton, an electron, and an antineutrino

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11
Q

What is the point of studying children over adults in a study on medicine?

A

Children weigh less and should receive a higher dose.

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12
Q

How could 2-methylundecanal and 2-methlyundecanoic acid be separated?

A

An extraction based on their differing solubilities.

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13
Q

The more ______ a compound is, the higher its solubility in aqueous solution.

A

Polar

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14
Q

The more ______ a compound is, the lower its solubility in aqueous solution.

A

Nonpolar

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15
Q

Why are boiling chips used in distillations?

A

They provide nucleation sites that give the liquid a place to start forming bubbles to prevent superheating.

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16
Q

Why is vacuum distillation used in distillations?

A

Vacuum distillation is used to lower the BP of the substances to be distilled.

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17
Q

Which would most likely be left after the vacuum distillation procedure: decanal or decanoic acid?

A

decanoic acid bc it has more H-bonding and therefore has a higher BP

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18
Q

Potential Energy is related by

A

Mass x gravity x height

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19
Q

Kinetic Energy is related by

A

1/2 mass x velocity squared

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20
Q

What is a stereocenter?

A

An atom/carbon bonded to 4 different substituents

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21
Q

What is the preferred ion configuration of many elements on the periodic table?

A

The electron configuration of the nearest noble gas (group 8 column)

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22
Q

How is torque related?

A

Torque = radius x Force x sin(theta)

SI unit: N.m

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23
Q

Sin (90)=

A

1

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24
Q

Sin 0=

A

0

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25
Q

Sin (30)=

A

1/2

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26
Q

Sin and cos (45)=

A

Square root of 2 divided by 2

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27
Q

Sin (60)=

A

Square root of 3 divided by 2

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28
Q

Cos (0)=

A

1

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29
Q

Cos (30)=

A

Square root of 3 divided by 2

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30
Q

Cos (60)=

A

1/2

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31
Q

Cos (90)=

A

0

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32
Q

Average Velocity is found by:

A

Dividing distance over time. V=d/t

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33
Q

How can we increase torque?

A

By increasing force, distance at which the force is applied, and adjusting the angle to make it as close to perpendicular as possible. T=Fdsin(theta)

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34
Q

In Competitive Inhibition: Vmax_______ and Km_______

A

Vmax is unchanged, Km increases

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35
Q

In Uncompetitive Inhibition: Km_______ and Vmax_______

A

Decreases and Vmax decreases

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36
Q

In Noncompetitive Inhibition: Vmax______ and Km_______

A

Vmax decreases and Km is unaffected

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37
Q

Nitrogen is good to use in the lab because?

A

Diatomic nitrogen is relatively inert and can be used as the atmosphere in the lab to prevent unwanted side reactions.

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38
Q

What unit is power measured in?

A

Watts

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39
Q

Power=

A

Current times volume. P=IV

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40
Q

Power=

A

Current squared times R.

P=I^2R

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41
Q

Power=

A

Velocity squared/Resistance. P=V^2/R

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42
Q

LiAlH4 is used to:

A

Reduce an aldehyde to a primary alcohol

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43
Q

What does O3 do?

A

It cleaves Alkynes into 2.

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44
Q

What are aldosterone and estrogen?

A

They are steroid signaling molecules

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45
Q

The majority of steroid hormones names end in?

A

-one, -en, or -ol

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46
Q

What kind of hormone is insulin?

A

Peptide hormone

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47
Q

What is glucose?

A

It is a sugar ring. It is NOT a steroid signaling molecule.

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48
Q

What is the job of a Transferase?

A

A transferase is any one of a class of enzymes that enact the transfer of specific functional groups from one molecule to another.

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49
Q

What does a Lyase do?

A

It is an enzyme that catalyzes the breaking of various chemical bonds by means other than hydrolysis and oxidation, often forming a new double bond or a new ring structure.

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50
Q

What does an Isomerase do?

A

It is a general class of enzymes that convert a molecule from one isomer to another

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51
Q

What is an oxidoreductase?

A

It is an enzyme that catalyzes the transfer of electrons from one molecule, the reductant, also called the electron donor, to another, the oxidant, also called the electron acceptor.

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52
Q

What does a Hydrolase do?

A

It is a class of enzyme that commonly perform as biochemical catalysts that use water to break a chemical bond, which typically results in dividing a larger molecule into smaller molecules

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53
Q

What do Ligases do?

A

It is an enzyme that can catalyze the joining of two large molecules by forming a new chemical bond

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54
Q

Where is the OH (Hydroxyl) signal on the IR spectra?

A

It is a broad signal at 3000 cm-1

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55
Q

Where is the Carbonyl signal on the IR spectra?

A

The carbonyl signal is sharp at 1700 cm-1.

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56
Q

Disulfide linkages only form between the side chains of ________ residues

A

Cysteine

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57
Q

A molecule with n chiral centers will have how many stereoisomers?

A

2^n stereoisomers

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58
Q

Why does hydrolysis occur more rapidly in the body than in the lab?

A

The catalytic activity of enzymes in the body (but not in the lab), reduce the activation energy associated with the hydrolysis of ATP.

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59
Q

When Delta G is <0, what does this indicate?

A

The reaction is spontaneous under standard conditions.

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60
Q

The angle of incidence always equals?

A

The angle of reflection

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61
Q

Total internal reflection can only result when a ray begins in a ________ material and moves to a _________ material

A

Higher-index material and moves to a lower-index material.

Example: Water (1.33) to air (1).

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62
Q

The more negative the ___, the more stable it is

A

RSE (relative stabilization energy)

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63
Q

Exothermic process

A

Outside gets hot. (Exo-exiting heat)

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64
Q

Endothermic

A

Endo-(entering heat)

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65
Q

Exothermic reactions have a ______ Delta H

A

Negative

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66
Q

Endothermic reactions have a _____ Delta H

A

Positive

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67
Q

A +RSE would indicate?

A

It is destabilizing.

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68
Q

Charge (Q)=

A

Voltage (V) x Capacitance (C)

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69
Q

Capacitor

A

A device that stores electrical energy in an electric field

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70
Q

Resistor

A

a device having a designed resistance to the passage of an electric current.

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71
Q

Galvanic cell

A

galvanic cell or voltaic cell, named after the scientists Luigi Galvani and Alessandro Volta, respectively, is an electrochemical cell in which an electric current is generated from spontaneous redox reactions (GS)

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72
Q

Electrolytic cell

A

is an electrochemical cell that uses electrical energy to drive a non-spontaneous redox reaction. It is often used to decompose chemical compounds. (EN)

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73
Q

Is evaporation increased in dry heat or humid heat?

A

In dry heat. This is why you feel cooler in dry heat because you sweat more.

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74
Q

Aldehydes and carboxylic acids only form from the oxidation of

A

Primary alcohols

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75
Q

Ketones can form from the oxidation of a

A

Secondary alcohol

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76
Q

Tertiary alcohols can not be

A

Oxidized

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77
Q

Metal+bunch of oxygen=

A

Oxidizing agent (such as Chromium)

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78
Q

Silyl ether, Mesylate, and Tosylate

A

Protecting groups

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79
Q

PCC is a _____ oxidizing agent

A

Weak (this means it can oxidize an alcohol to an aldehyde without oxidizing it all the way to a carboxylic acid)

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80
Q

Sodium dichromate, potassium dichromate, and chromium trioxide are

A

Strong oxidizing agents

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81
Q

Ortho substituents

A

Groups right next to each other

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82
Q

Meta substituents

A

2 groups away

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83
Q

Para substituents

A

Across from each other

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84
Q

Phenols are more acidic than straight chain alcohols due to their

A

Aromacticity

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85
Q

The lower the pKa, the ________the acid

A

Stronger

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86
Q

The higher the pKa, the _____ the acid

A

Weaker

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87
Q

Aldehydes take priority over __________ in IUPAC naming.

A

Alcohols

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88
Q

Which has the higher precedence when naming: carboxylic acids or alcohols?

A

Carboxylic acids

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89
Q

Coenzyme Q, an essential electron carrier in cellular respiration is also known as

A

Ubiquinone

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90
Q

London dispersion forces< Hydrogen bonding

A

Bonding order from weak to strong

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91
Q

Alpha-hydrogens can be removed by a

A

Strong base. (This is because the alpha-hydrogens on the alpha carbon are weakly acidic.)

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92
Q

Ketones are ___ acidic than aldehydes

A

Less

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93
Q

Aldehydes and ketones are

A

Polar, aprotic (No H bonds to an electronegative atom such as N or O), and are hydrogen bond acceptors.

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94
Q

Acyl chlorides > acid anhydrides > esters > amides > carboxylates

A

Order of reactivity with acyl chlorides being the most reactive

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95
Q

Gases deviate from ideal activity at _______ temperature and _______ pressure

A

Low temperature and high pressure

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96
Q

gas particles have no volume

Gas particles experience no attractive or repulsive forces

A

Ideal Gas core assumptions

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97
Q

When do gases behave ideally?

A

At high temperature
At high volume
At low pressure

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98
Q

Are liquids, solids, and gases compressible?

A

No, only gases are compressible.

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99
Q

Average kinetic energy of gas particles is directly proportional to the ________ of the gas. As _______ increases, the average kinetic energy of the gas also increases.

A

Temperature

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100
Q

P1V1=P2V2

A

Boyle’s Law

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101
Q

V1/T1=V2/T2, also

V1/T1=k

A

Charles’s Law

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102
Q

V1/n1=V2/n2

Volume of a gas is directly related to the number of moles of gas particles

A

Avogadro’s Law

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103
Q

What are conditions at STP (Standard temperature and pressure)?

A

1 atm
0 degrees C=273 K
1 mole= 22.4 L

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104
Q

Standard thermodynamic conditions

A

1 atm and 25 degrees C (298 degrees K)

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105
Q

PV=nRT

A

Ideal gas law

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106
Q

Ideal gas constant

A

R

107
Q

Ptotal = Pa+Pb+Pc+P…

A

Dalton’s Law

108
Q

Pgas=

A

(Xgas)(Ptotal)

109
Q

Rate1/Rate2=

A

Square root of molar mass 2/molar mass 1 (Graham’s Law)

110
Q

Charles’s law states that as temperature increases, volume ______

A

Increases

111
Q

H

A

Structural isomers

112
Q

Structural isomers with different functional groups

A

Functional isomers

113
Q

Structural isomers that inter convert with each other

A

Tautomers

114
Q

Same side

A

Z (“Zame”)

115
Q

Opposite side

A

E (“Episite”)

116
Q

Resistance is defined as resistivity times the length of the resistor divided by the cross-sectional area of the resistor

A

R=omega looking sign x L / (cross-sectional area of the resistor)

117
Q

1 Coulomb=

A

1 ampere x 1 second

118
Q

What does a high resistivity show?

A

That charge doesn’t readily flow through a substance

119
Q

Coulomb’s Law:

A

F=kq1q2/r^2

120
Q

Mass:

A

F=Gm1m2/r^2

121
Q

Electric field (E) is related by:

A

E=Force (F)/ charge (q)

122
Q

1 volt=

A

1 joule/1 coulomb

123
Q

Electrical potential energy is related by:

A

U=kQq/r

124
Q

Which direction do negatively charged particles move with respect to the direction of electric field lines?

A

Opposite the direction of electric field lines

125
Q

If a question asks for weight, the answer will be in:

A

Newtons, not kg

126
Q

An object will remain at rest or at constant velocity unless acted upon by an external force

A

Newton’s first law

127
Q

Gives the relationship between net force and the magnitude of the resulting acceleration for an object

A

Newton’s Second Law

128
Q

If one object exerts a force on a second object, then the second object will exert an equal and opposite force on the first object

A

Newton’s Third Law

129
Q

Gravitational, electromagnetic, and friction are examples of:

A

Force

130
Q

Us x N

A

F static.

N=normal force, m x a

131
Q

-kx

A

Fspring:

132
Q

Torque=

A

rFsintheta

Sin (90)=1

133
Q

Work=

A

Fdcostheta

Cos(0)=1

134
Q

1 atm and 273 K are the temperature and pressure conditions of

A

STP (Standard temperature and pressure)

135
Q

At STP, one mole of an ideal gas occupies a volume of _____L

A

22.4 L

136
Q

What is the pH of a base?

A

Ph>7

137
Q

What is the pH of an acid?

A

Less than 7

138
Q

Acetic acid is a _____ acid

A

Weak

139
Q

NaOH is a _____ base

A

Strong

140
Q

Glycine, Alanine, Valine, Proline, Leucine, Isoleucine, Methionine

A

Non-polar, aliphatic Amino acids (GAPVLIM)

141
Q

Tyrosine (Tyr,Y), Phenylalanine (Phe, F), Tryptophan (Trp, W)

A

Aromatic Amino acids

142
Q

Serine, Threonine, Cysteine, Asparagine, and Glutamine

A

Polar, uncharged amino acids (STCNQ)

143
Q

Lysine (Lys, K), Arginine (Arg, R), and Histidine (His, H)

A

Basic, positively charged Amino acids (LRH)

144
Q

Aspartate (Asp, D) and Glutamate (Glu, E)

A

Negatively charged (acidic amino acids)

145
Q

a test result which incorrectly indicates that a particular condition or attribute is absent

A

False negative

146
Q

Reactions proceeding from solid to liquid to gas are

A

Endothermic reactions (they require heat)

147
Q

Reactions that proceed from gas to liquid to solid are

A

Exothermic reactions (they give off heat)

148
Q

Potential energy=

A

Mass x gravity x height

149
Q

Power =

A

Work/time

1 W= 1J/s

150
Q

Wavelength =

A

Hc/E

151
Q

Planck’s constant (h)=

A

6.62 x 10^-34 J.s

152
Q

E (from wavelength equation)=

A

1.6 x 10^-19

153
Q

Speed of light (c)=

A

3 x 10 ^8 m/s

154
Q

If two answers given in answer choices are in the same 1:1 ratio, what can you do?

A

Immediately can rule these two out.

155
Q

The component that is reduced but is never oxidized in the electron transport chain is

A

Oxygen

156
Q

A higher Ka value signifies a ______ acid

A

Stronger

157
Q

NADH is oxidized to form NAD+ at which point of the electron transport chain?

A

At the beginning

158
Q

O2 is _____ to produce H2O

A

Reduced

159
Q

Fc=

A

Mv^2/r

160
Q

The only achiral amino acid:

A

Glycine

161
Q

Isoelectric point (pI)=

A

1/2 (pKa 1+pKa2)

162
Q

Where will the isoelectric point be if a curve is given?

A

In the middle

163
Q

Mechanical advantage =

A

Hypotenuse/height

164
Q

Which Rf will be higher, that of a polar or non-polar substance?

A

A non-polar substance

165
Q

Solid-phase peptide synthesis proceeds in a _______ to _____ fashion, opposite to amino acids

A

C-terminus to N-terminus

166
Q

Amino acids are typically written in the ____ to _____ order

A

N-terminus to C-terminus

167
Q

Trifluoroacetic acid is a _____ acid

A

Weak

168
Q

_______ is very stable (inert) in the presence of acids and bases and won’t react with reagents

A

Benzene

169
Q

Flow rate is related by

A

Cross-sectional area x velocity

170
Q

CH4 is a common example of a

A

Tetrahedral molecule

171
Q

BF3 is a common example of a

A

Trigonal planar molecule

172
Q

NH3 is a common example of a

A

Trigonal pyramidal structure

173
Q

Beta decay does not affect atomic ____

A

Mass

174
Q

The closer an electron is to the nucleus, or s orbital, the ____ it is to eject

A

Harder

175
Q

When you’re given Vi, acceleration, displacement, use this equation

A

Vi^2=Vf^2+2ad

176
Q

A photon of electromagnetic energy, which doesn’t have mass

A

Gamma particle

177
Q

Where is the atomic mass highest in the periodic table?

A

In Group 1 elements

178
Q

Log(0.01)=

A

-2

179
Q

Log(0.1)=

A

-1

180
Q

Log(1)=

A

0

181
Q

Log(3)=

A

0.5

182
Q

Log(10)=

A

1

183
Q

Log(100)=

A

2

184
Q

This separation technique is used to separate molecules based upon their specific interaction with the stationary phase

A

Affinity chromatography

185
Q

Separates charged particles based on their affinity for charged elements of the ion exchange column

A

Ion-exchange chromatography

186
Q

Can be used to fractionated a protein sample on the basis of only molecular weight

A

SDS-PAGE

187
Q

Which mechanism does steric congestion tend to promote?

A

SN1 mechanisms

188
Q

These cells generate sufficient power and have cell potentials that are greater than 0

A

Galvanic cells

189
Q

Within a given row of the periodic table, ____ have the highest ionization energy, and ionization energies are higher toward the top of a column of the periodic table than toward the bottom

A

noble gases

190
Q

entropy change symbol

A

Delta S

191
Q

enthalpy change symbol

A

Delta H

192
Q

In order to emit a photon carrying energy, an electron must go from a ____ energy level to a _____ energy level

A

high energy level to a low energy level

193
Q

H3PO4

A

phosphoric acid

194
Q

H3PO3

A

phosphorous acid

195
Q

Ammonia’s (NH3) conjugate acid is

A

Ammonium (NH4+)

196
Q

Potential energy in a spring

A

(1/2)kx^2

197
Q

mirror images of each other

A

enantiomers

198
Q

these compounds differ at one chiral center

A

diastereomers

199
Q

the stability of DNA and RNA is largely dependent on the # of ___ base pairs contained within the folded structure

A

GC

200
Q

the temperature at which 50% of the molecules are denatured or the fraction folded is 0.5

A

melting temperature

201
Q

electric field units

A

Volt/meter

202
Q

frequency (f)=

A

speed of light (c)/ wavelength

203
Q

Chiral centers are sometimes shown by:

A

dashes and wedges

204
Q

If there are 5 chiral centers, how many stereoisomers are there?

A

2^n rule

2^5= 32

205
Q

a substance that is insoluble in neutral water, but dissolves in acid is a

A

base

206
Q

a precursor to steroid hormones, a fused four-ring system that is common to cholesterol and all of the steroid hormones

A

Squalene

207
Q

the y-intercept of a Lineweaver-Burk plot is equal to

A

1/Vmax and

1/Kcat since Vmax=Kcat[Et]

208
Q

A barometer works because the pressure outside of it is ____ than the pressure inside

A

higher

209
Q

What does hydrogen bonding do to substances?

A

It causes their boiling points to increase and lower vapor pressures

210
Q

this number is associated with the potential energy of the electron. It also is associated with the radial “size” of the electron cloud

A

principle quantum number

211
Q

Resistivity is ____ proportional to temperature

A

linearly

212
Q

Q=

A

mcDeltaT

213
Q

Where is the C=O bond located?

A

It is in the 1700-1750 region

214
Q

Where is the OH bond located?

A

In the 3200-3500 region

215
Q

Lactate dehydrogenase catalyzes the conversion of NADH to

A

NAD+

216
Q

Energy=

A

hf
h=Planck’s constant
f= frequency of the gamma photons

217
Q

Power (Watts)=

A

work (joules)/time (seconds)

also = mgh/time

218
Q

A good buffer has a pKa within __ pH unit of the desired conditions

A

1

219
Q

What is galactose?

A

a C-4 epimer of glucose, which means it is a six-carbon aldose

220
Q

catalytic efficiency=

A

Kcat/Km

Vmax/Km

221
Q

Adenine and Thymine contain

A

1 donor and 1 acceptor

222
Q

Guanine contains

A

2 donors and 1 acceptor

223
Q

Cytosine contains

A

1 donor and 2 acceptors

224
Q

Guanine has a higher/lower molecular weight than Adenosine?

A

higher

225
Q

Which amino acid has a side chain that can form a bond very similar to a peptide bond?

A

Lysine

226
Q

result in increased pI
result in reduced pI
don’t contribute to pI

A

basic amino acids (K, R, H)
negatively charged amino acids (D and E)
neutral amino acids

227
Q

Glycerol’s structure has

A

three OH groups

228
Q

What is the stabilization of glycerol binding likely due to

A

hydrogen bonding interactions

229
Q

The x-axis of a Lineweaver-Burk plot is

A

-1/Km

230
Q

Vmax=

A

Kcat[Et]

231
Q

What does it mean if ATP and glycerol occupy the catalytic cleft?

A

It means a ternary complex is formed

232
Q

If it asks which peptide is likely to form a covalently bonded dimer, look for

A

Cysteine, sine it forms disulfide links

233
Q

The unfolding of proteins is a

A

cooperative process

234
Q

Cooperative processes are marked by

A

sigmoidal curves

235
Q

Absorption of UV light results in

A

excitation of bound electrons

236
Q

increasing the polarity of the eluting molecule will increase its

A

affinity for the stationary phase and its elution time

237
Q

The half-life of a radioactive material is

A

the time it takes for half of all the radioactive nuclei to decay into their daughter nuclei

238
Q

The phosphoryl transfer from kinases comes from the

A

gamma-phosphate of ATP

239
Q

Serine, Threonine, and Tyrosine contain ____ groups in their side chains

A

hydroxyl groups, and this makes them targets for phosphorylation

240
Q

Which shape do cooperative processes have?

A

sigmoidal

241
Q

What is a higher melting temperature indicative of?

A

a more stable protein

242
Q

GC base pairs form stronger ______ interactions than AT base pairs, creating the most thermal stability

A

pi-stacking

243
Q

The boiling point of a substance will give the best estimate of its

A

vapor pressure

244
Q

Triacyclglycerols consist of

A

three fatty acid ester-linked to a single glycerol

245
Q

Where does oxidation and reduction occur in an electrochemical cell?

A

oxidation at the anode, and reduction at the cathode

246
Q

states that the pressure and volume of an ideal gas at a constant temperature are inversely related

A

Boyle’s law

247
Q

states that if a gas is heated up and the pressure does not change, the volume will.

A

Charle’s law

V1/T1=V2/T2

248
Q

Lewis base

A

is any substance, such as the OH-ion, that can donate a pair of nonbonding electrons.

249
Q

Lewis acid

A

a compound or ionic species which can accept an electron pair from a donor compound.

250
Q

_____ increase the rate of chemical reaction, which is the amount of product formed per unit time

A

Catalysts

251
Q

What does an equilibrium constant greater than 1 mean?

A

delta G is negative and the reaction is spontaneous

252
Q

What does an equilibrium constant less than 1 mean?

A

delta G is positive and the reaction is non-spontaneous

253
Q

a type of chemical interaction or linkage as a result of electrostatic attraction between oppositely charged ions or atoms having different electronegativities

A

ionic bond

254
Q

bonds occur between identical atoms or between different atoms whose difference in electronegativity is insufficient to allow transfer of electrons to form ions

A

covalent bond

255
Q

Which atom will be expected to have the smallest second ionization energy:
Na, C, O, or Ca?

A

Ca

256
Q

pH=pKa+

A 
log (base/acid)
or log (A-/HA)
257
Q

a blood pressure reading 130/85 shows

A

85 mmHg is the diastolic pressure

130 is the systolic pressure

258
Q

DNA strands of the double helix are oriented in

A

opposite directions

259
Q

sugar-phosphate backbones form the interior/exterior of the double helix

A

exterior

260
Q

which bond is the shortest?

C-H, C-O, C-C, or O-N

A

C-H

261
Q

A negative focal length means the lenses are

A

diverging lenses

262
Q

these lenses form virtual and reduced images of objects at distances larger than the focal length

A

diverging lenses

263
Q

Red litmus paper turns blue in a

A

base

264
Q

blue litmus paper turns red in a

A

acid

Chem/Phys (1 decks)

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