Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Rotation: Chemistry > C 8000 IVEEE > Flashcards

C 8000 IVEEE Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Periodic Table flashcards Chemistry 101 flashcards AP® Chemistry flashcards Organic Chemistry 101 flashcards
1
Q

What are the principles of electrochemiluminescence (ECL)?

A

highly reactive species are generated from stable precursors that react with one another to produce light; initiation of reaction occurs with an electrical stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are examples of compounds that can be used in the electrochemiluminescence process?

A
  • ruthenium chelate, tripropylamine
  • TPA, osmium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How are the reactions that lead to the emission of light initiated?

A

applying a voltage to the palladium electrode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the advantages of electrochemiluminescence technology?

A
  • highly sensitive and selective
  • combines analytical methods of chemiluminescence with ease of reaction control
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the sandwich test principle?

A
  • a solid phase with a known antigen is incubated with patient serum and a known anti immunoglobulin is added with a tag
  • the amount of tag is proportional to the concentration of the patient antibody
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the competitive test principle?

A
  • indirectly related to the concentration of the analyte
  • a second antibody is added with a label and competes with patient antigen so if the patient has a low concentration of antibody, the signal will be more intense
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the difference between Pro Clean and Cell Clean?

A
  • Pro Clean: wash particle and flush reagent
  • Cell Clean: wash away paramagnetic particles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the physiological action of PTH?

A
  • maintains calcium homeostasis
  • inhibits phosphate reabsorption from kidney (increases excretion of phosphate, net loss of phosphate plasma from PTH)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the role of PTH in calcium and phosphorus metabolism?

A

increases calcium in the blood, decreases phosphorus reabsorption and enhances uptake from intestine and bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is DHEAS and its clinical significance?

A
  • dehydroepianodrosterone sulfate
  • a natural steroid prohormone produced form cholesterol by adrenal glands, the gonads, adipose tissue, brain and in the skin (by an autocrine mechanism)
  • the precursor of androstenedione, which can undergo further conversion to produce the androgen testosterone and the estrogens estrone and estradiol
  • a potent sigma-1 agonist
  • elevated levels in hirsutism, virilism, useful in detection of adrenocortical function
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the clinical significance of testing CA125?

A

response to treatment/predicting prognosis/recurrence screen for ovarian cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the clinical significance of testing CA19-9?

A

helps distinguish pancreatic cancer from pancreatitis and other diseases of the pancreas; also good for monitoring treatment and detecting recurrence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the clinical significance of CA15-3?

A

response to treatment/predicting prognosis/recurrence screen for breast cancer; also seen in lactating mammary glands, lung epithelium, ovarian cancer, pancreatic cancer, lung cancer, stomach cancer, liver cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the clinical significance of an elevated serum IgE level?

A

could conclude a parasitic infection, allergies, hay fever, bronchitis, dermatitis, or any Type I hypersensitivity reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What hours of the day are cortisol levels at their highest and lowest?

A
  • highest: morning (7-8 am)
  • lowest: afternoon (4-5 pm)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How are cortisol levels related to Cushing’s Disease and Addison’s Disease?

A
  • overproduction of cortisol: Cushing’s Disease
  • underproduction of cortisol: Addison’s Disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the function and clinical significance of testosterone?

A
  • development of male reproductive tissues and secondary sexual characteristics such as growth of muscle mass, bone mass, body hair
  • useful in monitoring fertility, bone density, replacement therapy and anemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the function and clinical significance of progesterone?

A
  • lactation
  • preparation of uterus for ovum implantation
  • maintenance of pregnancy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the function and clinical significance of estradiol?

A
  • responsible for growth of female sexual reproduction organs/tissues
  • prominent female sex hormone
  • abnormal levels seen in osteoporosis, blood clotting, breast cancer, ovarian cancer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the function and clinical significance of LH?

A
  • regulates menstrual cycles and ovulation
  • high levels seen in abnormally functioning ovaries
  • low levels seen in patients with no ovulation, infertility and abnormal function testes in males
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the function and clinical significance of FSH?

A
  • follicle stimulating hormone
  • regulates development, growth, reproduction
  • elevated FSH seen in premature menopause
  • decreased levels seen in polycystic ovary syndrome, infertility and hypopituitarism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the function and clinical significance of prolactin?

A
  • hormone associated with lactation
  • proliferation of mammary glands
  • menstrual cycle regulation
  • increased in pregnancy, liver/kidney disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the function and clinical significance of cortisol?

A
  • aids in the metabolism of food for energy
  • helps manage stress
  • elevated levels seen in Cushing’s and depression and obesity
  • low levels seen in Addison’s
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the function and clinical significance of AFP?

A
  • produced by a fetus’ liver
  • aids int he diagnosis of spina bifida, anencephaly, Down’s
  • increased AFP is also seen in hepatocellular carcinoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the function and clinical significance of CEA?

A
  • glycoprotein of the embryonic endodermic epithelium
  • absent unless carcinoma is present
  • seen in cancers of the colon, pancreas, liver, lung
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the function and clinical significance of PSA?

A
  • prostate specific antigen
  • produced in the prostate
  • often elevated in men developing prostate cancer
  • most effective test for early diagnosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the function and clinical significance of TSH?

A
  • thyroid stimulating hormone
  • produced by anterior pituitary
  • stimulates thyroid to secrete T3 and T4
  • clinically significant in diagnosing hyperthyroidism and hypothyroidism
28
Q

What is the function and clinical significance of TT3?

A
  • total T3
  • development of the effects on thyroid hormones on various target organs
  • useful test for aiding in diagnosis of thyroid diseases
29
Q

What is the function and clinical significance of TT4?

A
  • total T4
  • thyroxine stimulated by thyroid
  • most abundant iodinated hormone
  • useful in detection of hyperthyroidism, primary and secondary hypothyroidism and monitoring TSH suppression treatment
30
Q

What is the function and clinical significance of FT4?

A
  • a measure of T4 in relation to the amount of thyroxine binding globulin present
  • FT4 is calculated from the T4 and T3 uptake values
  • the value can indicate when an abnormal level of T4 is caused by an abnormal level of thyroxine binding globulin in the blood
31
Q

What is the function and clinical significance of T3U?

A
  • measurement of T3 (not bound to TBG) in the serum
  • increased levels are seen when there is a greater than normal amount of T3 bound
  • increased levels in a male can be caused by testicular tumors
  • high levels in a woman can be masculinization
  • decreased in hypogonadism
32
Q

What is the function and clinical significance of ferritin?

A
  • storage form of iron
  • decreased in iron deficiency anemia
  • increased in hemochromatosis
33
Q

What is the function and clinical significance of ACTH?

A
  • stimulates formation and secretion of glucocorticoids (especially cortisol) by the adrenal cortex
  • plasma ACTH measurements are useful in the differential diagnosis of pituitary Cushing’s (ACTH hypersecretion), autonomous ACTH producing pituitary tumors (Nelson’s), hypopituitarism with ACTH deficiency and ectopic ACTH syndrome
  • in addition to cortisol measurement, ACTH determinations can be used together with functional or stimulation tests to diagnose the origin of glucocorticoid overproduction
  • ACTH measurements can be employed to facilitate differential diagnosis of adrenocortical insufficiency (Addison’s)
34
Q

What are the clinical names for T3 and T4?

A
  • T3: triiodothyronine
  • T4: thyroxine
35
Q

What differentiates FT4 from T4?

A
  • FT4 is not protein bound and is biologically active
  • T4 is protein bound and gets converted into T3
36
Q

What are the normal reference ranges for T3, T4, FT4, and TSH?

A
  • T3: 65-170 ng/dL
  • T4: 4.6-12.0 ug/dL
  • FT4: 0.86-2.26 ng/dL
  • TSH: 0.47-4.53 uU/mL
37
Q

What is the lab evaluation in terms of thyroid hormone changes for Grave’s Disease?

A
  • most common cause of overactive thyroid gland (hyperthyroidism)
  • caused by an autoantibody (called thyroid stimulating immunoglobulin, TSI) that acts like thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and that causes the thyroid gland to produced excess thyroid hormone
  • laboratory tests to determine thyroid function include increase in T3 and T4 with a decrease in TSH
38
Q

What is the lab evaluation in terms of thyroid hormone changes for Hashimoto’s Disease?

A
  • most common form of thyroiditis and the most frequent cause of hypothyroidism
  • free T4 will be low, serum TSH will be high, T3 will be low or normal
  • thyroid autoantibodies like antithyroid peroxidase antibody (TPOAB) and antithyroglobulin (TGAB) will be at an increased level
39
Q

What are the symptoms of hyperthyroidism?

A

caused by an excess of thyroid hormone; heat intolerance, nervousness, muscle weakness, insomnia, palpitations, breathlessness, increased bowel movements, light or absent menstrual periods, fatigue, fast heart rate, trembling hands, warm moist skin, weight loss with a normal appetite, hair loss, staring gaze

40
Q

What are the symptoms of hypothyroidism?

A

conditions characterized by too little thyroid hormone; fatigue, weakness, weight gain, increased difficulty losing weight, coarse dry hair, dry rough pale skin, hair loss, cold intolerance, muscle cramps, frequent muscle aches, constipation, depression, irritability, memory loss, abnormal menstrual cycles, decreased libido

41
Q

What hormones are present in the anterior pituitary?

A

FSH, LH, TSH, prolactin

42
Q

What hormones are present in the thyroid?

A

T3, T4

43
Q

What hormones are present in the ovaries?

A

estrogen, progesterone

44
Q

What hormones are present in the testes?

A

testosterone

45
Q

When do you need to calibrate hepatitis assays?

A
  • new lot of reagents
  • calibration interval has expired
  • QC is out of range
46
Q

What types of specimens are preferred when performing hepatitis testing?

A

gold top tubes

47
Q

What are the signs of viral hepatitis?

A
  • jaundice
  • low-grade fever
  • headache
  • muscle aches
  • tiredness
  • loss of appetite
  • nausea
  • vomiting
  • diarrhea
  • dark colored urine and pale bowel movements
  • stomach pain
48
Q

What tests are included in an acute hepatitis panel?

A
  • Hepatitis A IgM antibodies
  • Hepatitis B surface antigen
  • Hepatitis B IgM core antibody
  • Hepatitis C antibodies
49
Q

How does viral hepatitis A usually occur?

A

through fecal-oral route or food/water contaminations
- eating food prepared by a person with the virus who didn’t wash their hands after using the bathroom and then touching the food
- contact with infected household members or sexual partners
- touching diaper changing tables that aren’t cleaned properly
- eating raw shellfish that came from sewage contaminated water

50
Q

What are the symptoms of hepatitis A?

A
  • fever
  • tiredness
  • loss of appetite
  • nausea
  • abdominal discomfort
  • dark urine
  • jaundice
51
Q

How long after the onset of HAV symptoms is Anti-HAV IgM detectable?

A

15-45 days

52
Q

What are the hepatitis A markers? What is the order of appearance of these markers in a hepatitis A infection?

A
  • serological: HAV-Ab, IgM at about 4 weeks post infection and may persist for up to 4 months
  • previous infection labs: HAV-Ab, IgG, about 6 weeks post infection and remains positive indefinitely
53
Q

What is the major cause of liver disease in the world?

A

Hepatitis B Virus

54
Q

How is hepatitis B virus transmitted?

A
  • parenteral (i.e. contaminated needles and blood)
  • sexual contact
  • contaminated sharps
  • needle sticks
  • environmental contamination
  • mother to baby
  • dialysis
55
Q

What are the symptoms of hepatitis B?

A

severity of clinical course - highly variable: asymptomatic to fulminant liver disease

56
Q

What is the average incubation period for hepatitis B infection?

A
  • incubation period: 45-160 days
  • onset: sudden or slow
57
Q

What is the order of appearance of the Hepatitis B markers?

A
  1. Hepatitis B surface antigen: 2-8 weeks after exposure
  2. Hepatitis Be antigen: HBeAg secreted protein unknown function sign of current viral replication
  3. Hepatitis B core antibody (IgM to core antigen) HBcAb
  4. Hepatitis Be antibody: HBeAb
  5. Hepatitis B surface antibody: HBsAb
58
Q

What is the major cause of non-A and non-B hepatitis?

A

Hepatitis C; HCV causes a milder form of acute hepatitis than HBV

59
Q

What is the average incubation period for hepatitis C infection?

A

14-180 days

60
Q

What are the symptoms of Hepatitis C infection?

A

asymptomatic

61
Q

How is hepatitis C virus transmitted?

A
  • infected needle or blood enters body
  • through contact with the blood of an infected person; usually happens when people use contaminated needles to inject drugs
  • infants born to infected mothers
62
Q

What are the long term consequences of HCV?

A
  • chronic liver disease
  • hepatocellular carcinoma
63
Q

How is hepatitis D virus transmitted?

A
  • injection drugs users
  • hemodialysis (B1 txn)
  • healthcare
  • infants born to infected mothers
64
Q

How does Hepatitis D become activated?

A
  • co-infection with HBV or as a superinfection with existing chronic HBV
  • HDV (“delta agent”) is an incomplete RNA virus that is unable to replicate by itself; needs HBV to replicate
  • can occur only as a co-infection in some patients already infected with HBV
  • cannot occur with HBsAg negative patients
65
Q

What is the difference between acute hepatitis and chronic hepatitis?

A
  • acute: presence of anti-HBc IgM and anti-HBc IgG
  • chronic/treated: presence of only anti-HBc IgG
66
Q
A

Rotation: Chemistry (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions