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C-32 MQF > C-32 MQF - 1 Mar 2016 > Flashcards

C-32 MQF - 1 Mar 2016 Flashcards

1
Q

How many minutes of oxygen are available when the PASS OXYGEN ON message is illuminated?

a. Less than Zero
b. 22 minutes
c. 30 minutes
d. More than 30

A

b. 22 minutes

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2
Q

During a CABIN ALTITUDE or Rapid Depressurization, the first action will be to accomplish:

a. OXYGEN MASKS…..ON/100%
b. CREW COMMUNICATIONS…..ESTABLISH
c. DESCENT…..INITIATE
d. VMO/MMO….MAINTAIN

A

a. OXYGEN MASKS…..ON/100%

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3
Q

During a CABIN ALTITUDE or Rapid Depressurization when an emergency descent is required, accomplish which of the following:

a. Move thrust levers to idle, extend the landing gear, extend the speedbrakes and descend at Vmo/Mmo (If structural integrity is in doubt, limit airspeed and avoid high maneuvering loads).
b. Extend the landing gear, extend the speedbrakes and descend at Vmo (If structural integrity is in doubt, limit airspeed and avoid high maneuvering loads).
c. Move thrust levers to idle, extend the speedbrakes and descend at Vmo/Mmo (If structural integrity is in doubt, limit airspeed and avoid high maneuvering loads).
d. Move thrust levers to idle, retract the speedbrakes and descend at Vmo/Mmo (If structural integrity is in doubt, limit airspeed and avoid high maneuvering loads).

A

c. Move thrust levers to idle, extend the speedbrakes and descend at Vmo/Mmo (If structural integrity is in doubt, limit airspeed and avoid high maneuvering loads).

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4
Q

When accomplishing Aborted Engine Start procedures, initially place the:

a. FUEL CONTROL SWITCH (affected side)….CUT OFF
b. throttle (affected side)…..Retard
c. ENG START selector….AUTO
d. all of the above

A

a. FUEL CONTROL SWITCH (affected side)….CUT OFF

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5
Q

When accomplishing Aborted Engine Start procedures, starter re-engagement above 30% N2 may:

a. result in a hot start
b. result in starter or gearbox damage
c. damage engine start selector switch
d. all of the above

A

b. result in starter or gearbox damage

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6
Q

If an engine start is aborted, motor the engine by selecting ENG START selector….GND, for a minimum of:

a. 15 seconds
b. 60 seconds
c. 30 seconds
d. 90 seconds

A

c. 30 seconds

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7
Q

If a Dual Engine Failure occurs because either both engines have flamed out or have no response to thrust lever movement, accomplish the following:

a. ENGINE START SELECTORS (both)….FLT
b. THRUST LEVERS (both)….IDLE
c. FUEL CONTROL SWITCHES (both)….CUT OFF, then RUN
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

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8
Q

When accomplishing the Dual Engine Failure checklist, be aware that the speedbrakes may automatically retract to the ____ % position when the airspeed exceeds 330 KIAS.

a. 30
b. 40
c. 50
d. 60

A

c. 50

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9
Q

The Engine Limit/Surge/Stall quick reaction checklist directs selecting A/T ARM switch….OFF and placing the thrust lever (affected side) Confirm….Retard until indications remain within normal limits or the thrust lever is at Idle.

a. True.
b. False.

A

a. True.

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10
Q

If Engine indications are unusual, indications are rapidly approaching or exceeding limits, unusual engine noises are heard, or there is no response to thrust lever movement or the response is abnormal, refer to the Engine Limit/Surge/Stall quick reaction checklist which will direct you to:

a. move A/T ARM switch….OFF
b. retard thrust lever (affected side) Confirm….until indications remain within normal limits or the thrust lever is at Idle
c. cycle fuel control switch to cut off then run
d. A and B above

A

d. A and B above

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11
Q

According to the Engine Failure or Shutdown checklist, one-engine inoperative landing flap position for landing is flaps ____ and speed ____.

a. 20; VREF + 80
b. 20; VREF 20
c. 25; VREF 25
d. none of the above

A

b. 20; VREF 20

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12
Q

If you get an APU fire indication, reference the APU FIRE checklist which will direct you to:

a. APU fire switch…. Confirm….Pull, rotate to the stop, and hold for 1 second
b. immediately advise the passengers to evacuate
c. immediately place the thrust lever in idle and pull the engine fire switch
d. press the cockpit panic switch

A

a. APU fire switch…. Confirm….Pull, rotate to the stop, and hold for 1 second

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13
Q

The first step in the ENGINE FIRE or Engine Severe Damage or Separation checklist is:

a. A/T ARM switch….OFF
b. Thrust lever (affected side)….Confirm…..Idle
c. FUEL CONTROL switch…..Confirm…..CUT OFF
d. Engine fire switch…..Confirm…..Pull

A

a. A/T ARM switch….OFF

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14
Q

If the engine fire warning light stays illuminated after pulling the engine fire switch:

a. start the APU (if available)
b. set transponder mode selector to TA
c. immediately increase airspeed to Vmo/Mmo
d. engine fire switch….Rotate to the stop and hold for 1 second

A

d. engine fire switch….Rotate to the stop and hold for 1 second

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15
Q

If, 30 seconds after initially rotating the engine fire switch, the engine fire warning light stays illuminated:

a. immediately increase speed to Vmo/Mmo
b. turn off associated air conditioning pack valve
c. prepare for immediate landing
d. Engine fire switch….Rotate to the other stop and hold for 1 second

A

d. Engine fire switch….Rotate to the other stop and hold for 1 second

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16
Q

The ENGINE FIRE or Engine Severe Damage or Separation checklist directs that for an engine-out landing, use flaps ____ for landing and flaps ____ for go-around.

a. 30; 20
b. 5: 1
c. 20; 30
d. 20; 5

A

d. 20; 5

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17
Q

If a tailpipe fire occurs on the ground with no engine fire warning, the Engine Tailpipe Fire checklist directs to immediately:

a. position the FUEL CONTROL switch (affected side)….CUT OFF
b. position the affected engine start selector to RUN
c. commence with passenger evacuation
d. all of the above

A

a. position the FUEL CONTROL switch (affected side)….CUT OFF

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18
Q

Should you experience stabilizer movement occurring without a signal to trim, place:

a. STABILIZER TRIM CUT OUT SWITCHES…..CUT OUT
b. throttles to maximum thrust
c. disengage autopilot
d. disconnect autothrottles

A

a. STABILIZER TRIM CUT OUT SWITCHES…..CUT OUT

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19
Q

If you discover the aircraft airspeed or Mach indications are suspected to be unreliable, the Airspeed Unreliable checklist directs that should pitch attitude and thrust not be normal for phase of flight:

a. autopilot disengage switch….Push
b. autothrottle disconnect switch….Push
c. F/D switches (both)….OFF
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

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20
Q

Simultaneous overspeed and stall warnings may be evidence of unreliable airspeed/Mach indication and require you to reference the Airspeed Unreliable checklist which will direct what initial action?

a. advance thrust levers to maximum thrust
b. reduce pitch attitude while simultaneously reducing thrust
c. check the pitch attitude and thrust
d. none of the above

A

c. check the pitch attitude and thrust

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21
Q

Which of the following EICAS messages may be evidence of unreliable airspeed/Mach indication requiring accomplishment of the Airspeed Unreliable checklist?

a. PROBE HEAT
b. CAPT PITOT
c. MACH/SPEED TRIM
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

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22
Q

Do not pressurize the airplane due to possible structural damage associated with a Tailstrike.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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23
Q

If the TRU 1 or TRU 2 OVERTEMP light illuminates on the Self Defense System annunciation panel the TRU X OVERTEMP checklist will direct:

a. CIU MODE SELECT SWITCH….OFF
b. POWER SWITCH….OFF
c. Monitor system for applicable equipment shutdown
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

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24
Q

At the first indication of a stall buffet or stick shaker:

a. Hold the control column firmly
b. Disconnect autopilot and autothrottles
c. Smoothly apply nose down elevator to reduce the angle of attack until buffet or stick shaker stops.
d. All the above

A

d. All the above

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25
Q

When performing the stall recovery maneuver, simultaneously advance thrust levers to maximum thrust, smoothly adjust pitch attitude to avoid ground contact or obstacles, level the wings and raise the gear and flaps if extended.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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26
Q

If the decision is made to abort the takeoff, the Pilot Flying must:

a. immediately apply maximum manual braking
b. immediately extend the speedbrakes and initiate maximum reverse thrust
c. without delay: close the thrust levers and verify proper operation of RTO autobrakes or apply maximum manual wheel brakes
d. A and B above

A

c. without delay: close the thrust levers and verify proper operation of RTO autobrakes or apply maximum manual wheel brakes

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27
Q

If accomplishing a terrain avoidance maneuver in response to the GPWS warning, rotate the aircraft to:

a. an initial pitch attitude of 20 degrees
b. follow flight director commands on the go-around
c. immediately to the pitch limit indicator
d. approximately 15 degrees

A

a. an initial pitch attitude of 20 degrees

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28
Q

If terrain remains a threat after initially rotating the aircraft in response to a GPWS warning:

a. immediately turn the aircraft away from perceived terrain threat
b. raise flaps and gear, if extended, to enhance climb capability
c. continue rotation up to the pitch limit indicator or stick shaker or initial buffet
d. engage the autopilot and autothrottles

A

c. continue rotation up to the pitch limit indicator or stick shaker or initial buffet

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29
Q

Which of the following configuration changes is allowed when performing the terrain avoidance maneuver?

a. retracting the landing gear
b. retracting the flaps
c. extending the flaps
d. retracting the speedbrakes

A

d. retracting the speedbrakes

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30
Q

If a resolution advisory (RA) occurs, use the autopilot to maneuver the aircraft away from the oncoming traffic.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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31
Q

For a climb resolution advisory (RA) in a landing configuration:

a. immediately retract the landing gear
b. do not change the aircraft configuration
c. advance thrust levers to ensure maximum thrust and call for “flaps 20”
d. A and C above

A

c. advance thrust levers to ensure maximum thrust and call for “flaps 20”

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32
Q

If windshear is encountered prior to V1, there may not be sufficient runway remaining to stop if an RTO is initiated at V1.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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33
Q

Unacceptable flight path deviations are recognized as uncontrolled changes from normal steady state flight conditions below 1000 feet AGL, in excess of ____ kts or vertical speed changes greater than ____ ft per minute.

a. 20; 1000
b. 10; 1000
c. 15; 500
d. 50; 5000

A

c. 15; 500

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34
Q

When encountering severe wind shear, the performance capability of the AFDS may be exceeded. In this case the pilot flying must be prepared to disconnect the autopilot and autothrottle and fly manually.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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35
Q

During a manual wind shear recovery, rotate to an initial pitch attitude of ___ :

a. 22 degrees
b. 15 degrees
c. stick shaker
d. 10 degrees

A

b. 15 degrees

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36
Q

If an engine fails between V1 and liftoff, rotate smoothly in one continuous motion to approximately 11 degrees of pitch. Maintain desired airspeed of _____ to ______.

a. V2; V2 + 10
b. V1; V2 + 30
c. V2; V2 + 15
d. V2; V2 + 50

A

c. V2; V2 + 15

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37
Q

The last step of the Evacuation checklist is:

a. Passenger Evacuation….Initiate
b. Outflow Valve….Close
c. APU Fire Switch….Rotate
d. Parking Brake….Set

A

a. Passenger Evacuation….Initiate

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38
Q

If the outflow valve is not open on the ground and an evacuation is required the Evacuation checklist directs:

a. place cabin altitude mode selector to AUTO 2 and cabin altitude manual control to CLIMB
b. place cabin altitude MODE SELECT….MAN and CABIN ALTITUDE MANUAL control….Hold in CLIMB until the outflow valve is fully open
c. place cabin altitude mode selector to AUTO
d. pull emergency depressurization T-handle

A

b. place cabin altitude MODE SELECT….MAN and CABIN ALTITUDE MANUAL control….Hold in CLIMB until the outflow valve is fully open

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39
Q

The Evacuation checklist directs which fire switches to be overridden and pulled during an evacuation?

a. APU only
b. both engines only
c. APU & both engines
d. only the engine on fire

A

c. APU & both engines

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40
Q

The maximum runway slope is:

a. 1 %
b. 2 %
c. 3 %
d. 4 %

A

b. 2 %

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41
Q

Maximum operating altitude is:

a. 39,000 ft. PA
b. 40,000 ft. PA
c. 41,000 ft. PA
d. 42,000 ft. PA

A

d. 42,000 ft. PA

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42
Q

The maximum takeoff and landing pressure altitude is:

a. 12,000 feet PA
b. 12,500 feet PA
c. 13,000 feet PA
d. 13,500 feet PA

A

d. 13,500 feet PA

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43
Q

Maximum takeoff and landing tailwind is ___ kts.

a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20

A

c. 15

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44
Q

Turbulence penetration airspeed is:

a. 270 KIAS/.76 Mach, whichever is lower
b. 280 KIAS/.76 Mach, whichever is lower
c. 290 KIAS/.78 Mach, whichever is lower
d. 300 KIAS/.78 Mach, whichever is lower

A

c. 290 KIAS/.78 Mach, whichever is lower

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45
Q

The maximum allowable in-flight difference between Captain and First Officer altitude displays for RVSM operations is:

a. 100 ft.
b. 200 ft.
c. 300 ft.
d. None allowed.

A

b. 200 ft.

46
Q

Do not operate the weather radar in a hangar or within 50 feet of any personnel or fuel spill.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

47
Q

The maximum Take Off Weight (MTOW) is:

a. 256,000 lbs
b. 255,000 lbs
c. 186,000 lbs
d. 210,000 lbs

A

b. 255,000 lbs

48
Q

The Maximum Zero Fuel Weight (MZFW) is:

a. 156,000 lbs
b. 166,000 lbs
c. 186,000 lbs
d. 187,400 lbs

A

d. 187,400 lbs

49
Q

Max operating cabin differential is 8.6 +/-.05 psi.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

50
Q

After takeoff, the autopilot must not be engaged below:

a. 100 feet AGL
b. 200 feet AGL
c. 300 feet AGL
d. 400 feet AGL

A

b. 200 feet AGL

51
Q

Use of aileron trim with the autopilot engaged:

a. may only be accomplished above 200 feet AGL
b. is prohibited
c. has no affect on the aileron trim since the autopilot is engaged
d. will not affect the longitudinal roll control when the autopilot is disengaged

A

b. is prohibited

52
Q

An autoland may not be accomplished at airports with pressure altitudes above 8,400 feet.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

53
Q

The maximum crosswind for autoland operations is ___ kts.

a. 15
b. 25
c. 40
d. 10

A

b. 25

54
Q

Engine vibration display may not be blanked by the pilots for takeoff.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

55
Q

If an engine failure occurs during takeoff, the maximum time for operating at full takeoff thrust is increased from ____ to ____ minutes.

a. 10/20
b. 5/10
c. 3/6
d. 5/15

A

b. 5/10

56
Q

Normal starter duty cycle is up to ___ minutes continuous operation then run down to zero N2.

a. 5
b. 2
c. 3
d. 10

A

b. 2

57
Q

After three consecutive 2 minute starter cycles have been accomplished without a start:

a. allow a 15 minute cooling period
b. a fourth attempt may immediately be made
c. starter may be left on indefinitely
d. set engine start switch to EMER position

A

a. allow a 15 minute cooling period

58
Q

Reverse thrust may be used while airborne to assist in descent.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

59
Q

Pilots are authorized to deviate from their current ATC clearance to the extent necessary to comply with a TCAS II resolution advisory.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

60
Q

The APU starter duty cycle is a maximum of 3 consecutive starts or attempts within a:

a. 30-minute period.
b. 45-minute period.
c. 60-minute period.
d. None of the above.

A

c. 60-minute period.

61
Q

Pilots may use the GPWS look-ahead terrain display for navigation.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

62
Q

Ground operations of the SDS is limited to ___ when outside air temperature (OAT) is at or above 44 degrees F:

a. 15 minutes
b. 30 minutes
c. 45 minutes
d. 60 minutes

A

b. 30 minutes

63
Q

When operating the SDS, exceeding roll, pitch or yaw maneuver rate of 10 degrees per second may degrade performance.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

64
Q

For all flights, a full IRS alignment is recommended.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

65
Q

Pressing the passenger oxygen (PASS OXY) switch during preflight causes deployment of the passenger oxygen masks.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

66
Q

Pressing the ram air turbine (RAM AIR TURB) switch during preflight will not cause deployment of the ram air turbine.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

67
Q

Do not transmit of HF frequencies when the aircraft is on the ground and personnel are working on the external skin.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

68
Q

During the DV Arrival Normal Procedure, HYDRAULIC Panel….Set, a note states, “Pressurize the _______ hydraulic system first to prevent fluid transfer between systems.”

a. center two
b. left
c. right
d. none of the above

A

c. right

69
Q

During engine start, which pilot normally positions start selector to GND?

a. Captain (left seat pilot)
b. First Officer (right seat pilot)
c. Jump seat pilot
d. all of the above

A

b. First Officer (right seat pilot)

70
Q

If there is no EGT rise within 20 seconds after selecting the FUEL CONTROL switch to RUN:

a. have crew chief/scanner manually open start valve
b. continue engine start normally
c. abort the engine start
d. none of the above

A

c. abort the engine start

71
Q

Do not advance thrust beyond that required for taxi until oil temperature reaches ____ degrees c.

a. 40
b. 80
c. 50
d. 143

A

c. 50

72
Q

Set AUTO BRAKES selector to _____ during the Before Taxi Procedure.

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. RTO

A

d. RTO

73
Q

When accomplishing the flight control check:

a. make slow and deliberate inputs, one direction at a time
b. displace the rudders, control wheel and control column in both directions
c. turn nose wheel tiller to check nose wheel movement while stationary
d. both A and B

A

d. both A and B

74
Q

After the gear handle is raised and the gear and door lights extinguish:

a. leave gear handle in UP position
b. Place gear lever back to DOWN
c. position landing gear lever OFF
d. verify flaps are still in a gated position

A

c. position landing gear lever OFF

75
Q

The After Takeoff Checklist is required after accomplishing a go-around.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

76
Q

After reverse thrust is initiated on landing roll, the landing may be rejected at that point and go-around thrust may be applied.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

77
Q

Which of the following is true concerning use of the vertical speed mode?

a. it provides automatic low speed protection
b. it permits flight away from MCP selected altitude
c. both of the above
d. none of the above

A

b. it permits flight away from MCP selected altitude

78
Q

When flying an instrument approach using VNAV:

a. Set DA/DDA only when approx 2 miles from the FAF
b. Set DA/DDA when established on a published segment of the approach with ALT HOLD or VNAV PTH/VNAV ALT annunciated and cleared for the approach.
c. Set missed approach altitude once in VNAV PTH and at the FAF
d. None of the above

A

b. Set DA/DDA when established on a published segment of the approach with ALT HOLD or VNAV PTH/VNAV ALT annunciated and cleared for the approach.

79
Q

If during an assumed temperature takeoff roll and full thrust is then desired after 80 kts (autothrottle in THR HOLD mode):

a. thrust levers cannot be physically moved
b. thrust levers must be adjusted manually to achieve full takeoff thrust
c. pressing TO/GA will advance the thrust levers to full thrust
d. none of the above

A

b. thrust levers must be adjusted manually to achieve full takeoff thrust

80
Q

If operating into an airport requiring QFE altitudes and altimeter settings:

a. do not use FLCH below transition altitude
b. do not use vertical speed (V/S) below transition altitude/level
c. do not use the metric altimeter below 10,000 ft
d. do not use LNAV or VNAV below transition altitude/level

A

d. do not use LNAV or VNAV below transition altitude/level

81
Q

If the QFE altimeter setting is beyond the range of the altimeters:

a. QNH procedures must be used
b. QNE procedures must be used
c. set appropriate QNH setting in the altimeters
d. A and C above

A

d. A and C above

82
Q

If combined operating time from last full IRS alignment to the expected next destination arrival time does not exceed ___ hours, a fast realignment may be accomplished.

a. 10
b. 24
c. 18
d. 12

A

c. 18

83
Q

Takeoff with light coatings of frost, up to 1/8 inch (3mm) in thickness, on lower wing surfaces due to cold fuel is allowable; however, all leading edge devices, all control surfaces and all upper wing surfaces must be free of snow, ice and frost.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

84
Q

During cold weather operations, taxi:

a. at reduced speeds
b. using small tiller and rudder inputs
c. applying minimum thrust evenly and smoothly
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

85
Q

Taxiing on slippery taxiways or runways at excessive speed or with high crosswinds may start a skid:

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

86
Q

If taxi route is through slush or standing water in low temperatures or if precipitation is falling with temperatures below freezing, taxi out with flaps _____:

a. in desired takeoff position
b. in full down position
c. up
d. in the flaps 1 position

A

c. up

87
Q

If flaps are left up during taxi, complete the Before Takeoff checklist:

a. when normally accomplished
b. after the flaps are in a takeoff configuration
c. once cleared for takeoff
d. before starting to taxi the aircraft

A

b. after the flaps are in a takeoff configuration

88
Q

When engine anti-ice is required and the OAT is 3 degrees or below, the takeoff must be preceded by a static engine run-up to a minimum of _____ % N1 and stable engine operations must be confirmed before the start of the takeoff roll.

a. 70
b. 99
c. 40
d. 50

A

d. 50

89
Q

Engine anti-ice must be ON during all flight operations when icing conditions exist or are anticipated, except during climb and cruise when the temperature is below ____ degrees C SAT:

a. 0
b. – 20
c. – 40
d. – 50

A

c. -40

90
Q

When operating in icing conditions, do not rely on airframe visual icing cues before activating engine anti-ice. Use the temperature and visible moisture criteria because late activation of engine anti-ice may allow excessive ingestion of ice and result in engine damage or failure.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

91
Q

Do not use wing anti-ice when the total air temperature is above ___ degrees c.

a. 15
b. 13
c. 11
d. 10

A

d. 10

92
Q

A reduced thrust takeoff wll be used during wind shear conditions as long as the longest suitable runway is used.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

93
Q

The following precautionary actions are recommended if windshear is suspected:

a. use maximum takeoff thrust instead of reduced thrust.
b. use the longest suitable runway for takeoff provided it is clear of areas of known windshear.
c. for landing, use the most suitable runway that avoids the areas of suspected windshear and is compatible with crosswind or tailwind limitations.
d. all of the above.

A

d. all of the above.

94
Q

The _____ determines the minimum obstruction clearance path. All other portions of the airplane structure remain within this arc:

a. wing tip
b. aircraft nose
c. aircraft tail
d. outside main wheel truck

A

a. wing tip

95
Q

The minimum width of pavement for 180 degree turn is:

a. 100 feet
b. 120 feet
c. 150 feet
d. 180 feet

A

b. 120 feet

96
Q

Do not attempt to make a turn away from an obstacle within _____ feet of the wing tip or within _____ feet of the nose:

a. 10 / 10
b. 22 / 33
c. 25 / 25
d. 30 / 40

A

b. 22 / 33

97
Q

EICAS warnings alert the crew to a non-normal operational or system condition requiring immediate crew awareness:

a. and corrective action
b. but not immediate corrective action
c. while corrective action may be required
d. with recall items required

A

a. and corrective action

98
Q

EICAS alert messages are displayed:

a. only after the flight is complete
b. only in prioritized order
c. only in chronological order
d. in both prioritized and chronological order

A

d. in both prioritized and chronological order

99
Q

The Master WARNING lights and fire bell are inhibited for fire during part of the takeoff. The inhibit begins at nose gear extension during rotation and continues until the first of the following occur:

a. 400 feet AGL
b. 20 seconds elapsed time
c. airspeed increases past V2 + 25
d. A or B above

A

d. A or B above

100
Q

Status messages are checked during preflight to assess acceptability of the airplane for dispatch. After engine start it is not necessary to check the Status page as any message having adverse effect on safe continuation of the fight, requiring crew attention appears as an EICAS alert message.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

101
Q

Unnecessary conversation reduces crew efficiency and alertness and is not recommended when below _____ feet MSL / FL _____. At high altitude airports, adjust this altitude upward, as required.

a. 9,000/090
b. 10,000/100
c. 11,000/110
d. 12,000,/120

A

b. 10,000/100

102
Q

The takeoff briefing assumes normal operating procedures are used and therefore it”s necessary to include a review of normal or standard takeoff procedures.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

103
Q

While adjusting thrust to begin taxiing, allow time for airplane response before increasing thrust further. A maximum of _____ N1 should be adequate to initiate taxi in most situations:

a. 25%
b. 30%
c. 35%
d. 40%

A

c. 35%

104
Q

Taxi speed should be closely monitored during taxi. Normal taxi speed is approximately _____ knots, adjusted for conditions. On long straight taxi routes, speeds up to _____ knots are acceptable:

a. 10 / 20
b. 15 / 25
c. 20 / 30
d. 25 / 35

A

c. 20 / 30

105
Q

Pilots _____ refer to the particular airport”s SMGCS Low Visibility Taxi Route chart (found in Jeppesen) before attempting to taxi in low visibility conditions (RVR 1200 or less):

a. should
b. will
c. may
d. are advised to

A

b. will

106
Q

A PIC with an augmented crew may seek OG/CC approval to extend the FDP as much as 2 hours to complete a scheduled mission. This provision may be exercised during the planning phase of the mission or to recover from unscheduled/unplanned en route delays/changes.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

107
Q

Conditions permitting, a qualified and current pilot certified as an AC, IP or EP will accomplish all takeoffs, approaches and landings from the left seat under the following conditions:

a. aircraft emergencies
b. when making an actual Category II or III ILS approach
c. when operating to or from airfields requiring airfield related waivers
d. all the above.

A

d. all the above.

108
Q

Pilot Flying will announce:

a. changes to levels of automation
b. flight director an autopilot mode selections and mode transitions
c. when circumstances require deviating from normal procedures
d. all the above.

A

d. all the above.

109
Q

Without wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least_____ feet.

a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 25

A

d. 25

110
Q

VFR departures can be flown in lieu of obstacle clearance planning:

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

111
Q

On operational mission, minimum takeoff RVR is 500 feet provided:

a. the runway has a minimum of 2 functioning RVR readouts (minimum 500 RVR on all readouts)
b. runway has centerline lighting and it”s operational
c. both of the above
d. either of the above

A

c. both of the above

112
Q

Flight into areas of forecast or reported severe turbulence is prohibited

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

C-32 MQF (2 decks)

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