C-17 2019 MQF w/ Airdrop and IP Flashcards
Don't suck at flying. Be an athlete. (240 cards)
1
Q
The AP has two modes of operation; __________, and __________.
A
Normal and AP DEGRADED
2
Q
AP DEGRADED mode will not engage below Vmma with invalid aircraft weights (both MC’s inop, etc).
A
FALSE
3
Q
During Degraded Modes, _________ use the last valid altitude and heading data they received prior to the Degraded Mode. Advise ATC as necessary.
A
IFF and TCAS
4
Q
To determine an individual aircraft’s maximum payload weight…
A
Subtract Operating Weight from Maximum Zero Fuel Weight
5
Q
There are normally ____ first aid kits installed on the aircraft with provisions for ____ total
A
Normally 6
Provisions for 26 total
6
Q
There are a total of ____ fire extinguishers onboard the aircraft with ____ in the cockpit and ____ in the crewrest area
A
9 : 2 : 1
7
Q
Bank angles more than _____ degrees are not recommended. The maximum bank angle is ______ degrees.
A
Not recommended: 60°
Maximum: 70°
8
Q
On Extended Range aircraft with more than ____ pounds total fuel, delay braking until nose gear touchdown unless there is less than ____ pounds of fuel in the four extended range compartments combined
A
165,000 lbs total fuel : 4,000 lbs remaining
9
Q
The maximum allowable crosswind for landing is ____ knots
A
30 knots
10
Q
The maximum landing touchdown sink rate for a steep approach (502,100 lbs) is ____ feet/min
A
660 feet/min
11
Q
Landing is not permitted with tailwinds greater than ____ or headwinds greater than ____
A
Tail of 10 knots : Head of 40 knots
12
Q
[for the mighty C-17] (IAP) Instrument approach RVR/visibility and, if required, ceiling minimums will be as published for a category ____ aircraft.
If approach speeds exceed 165 knots, the minimums for category _____ will be used.
A
D : E
13
Q
If full flight instrumentation is not available and operational, aircraft are limited to a DH/MDA based on ____.
A
A HAT of 300 feet and RVR 4000 or ¾ mile visibility with no RVR
14
Q
The APU AUTO SHUT DN ORIDE switchlight will override all automatic shutdowns except ____
A
An indicated fire or overspeed
15
Q
The cargo compartment APU warning horn can be inhibited during ground operations by the ____ switch on the Entrance Light Panel
A
“INTL HORN INHIBIT” switch
16
Q
If APU is inoperative, ensure either a __________ is in place or __________connected before shutting down the last engine.
A
fire guard/fire extinguisher : air cart
17
Q
TheAPUstarteroperatinglimitis_____minuteandanyAPUstarterengagementisconsideredastartattempt._____starts maybeattemptedperrollingonehourcyclewithaminimumdelayof_____minutesbetweenattempts.
A
1,3,5
18
Q
ThevisualsignalforaBREAKAWAYis
A
Tanker flashes Pilot Director Lights and/or turns lower rotating beacon ON
19
Q
If the receiver overruns the tanker, the receiver will reduce airspeed to ____ , and maintain track and altitude
A
255 KCAS or minimum maneuvering speed, whichever is higher
20
Q
When the receiver pilot is closing and approaching the pre‐contact position, the receiver will do what?
A
The receiver will stabilize in the precontact position and attain a zero rate of closure
21
Q
Monitor designated A/R frequency at least ____ minutes prior to the ARCT
A
30 Minutes Prior
22
Q
A controlled tension brute force disconnect will be accomplished ____
A
Only as a last resort
23
Q
(Emergency Boom Latching Procedures) It is possible to cause structural damage to the air refueling boom and slipway by severe relative movement between the two aircraft when operating in override since the ____ are deactivated. The ____ must initiate all
A
Limit switches; receiver pilot
24
Q
During the RV Delta (Point Parallel) procedure the receiver(s) will
A
D. A and C
A. Be established at 1000 ft below the assigned base AAR altitude when departing the RVIP
C. Aid the RV, when so equipped, by remaining in electronic contact on radar, A/A TACAN, TCAS or other means as soon as possible, but no later than 50 NM range or the RVIP, whichever occurs first
25
AAR Pre‐departure Fuel Planning: Determine the minimum on‐load required. Vary the AAR on‐load amount until the _________ fuel or __________ fuel reaches zero, whichever occurs first. That amount is the minimum on‐load required.
STORED and UNID EXTRA
26
In the event of loss of visual contact with the tanker in either the contact or astern position (or astern position following a breakaway),
D.) ALL THE ABOVE
A. Immediately disconnect (if appropriate), transition to instruments, make the radio call “(Callsign) loss of visual contact”, and slow 10 knots
B. Hold tanker heading (if already straight and level) and descend 1000 ft; resume normal speed after 30 seconds
C. Roll wings level (if the tanker is turning) and descend 1000 ft; when stable turn on tanker’s heading; resume normal speed after 30 seconds
D. All of the above
27
During a breakaway, the receiver will drop aft of the tanker until
The entire tanker is in sight
28
[Block 21C] Activating a missed approach procedure prior to using TOGA (DIR‐TO) _______________.... Activating the missed approach procedure using TOGA does not.
Deletes intervening waypoints
29
[Block 21] The SC/EFC includes a fixed gains mode that is automatically enabled in the event of air data loss.
When the SCEFC FIXED GAIN mode is enabled, asymmetric outboard spoiler deflections are locked out and only symmetric spoiler deflections are com
True
30
[Block 21] Pressing the SPD NAV pushbutton engages/disengages Speed Intervention if selected while in _________ with the NAV SEL Switch not in SKE.
MSN VNAV
31
[Block 21] The value in the AFCS Altitude Window is displayed in both feet and ________ on the MCD’s CONVERT FEET/______ page
meters and meters
*i've literally never seen this page.... the heck?*
32
Select engine anti‐ice on when temperature (SAT) is ____ degrees C or below and icing conditions exist.
10° degrees or less
33
If excessive ice formations remain on the aircraft after climbing through an icing layer, level off and increase airspeed to obtain at least _____ degrees or higher
+10 °C TAT
34
(Cold weather/ ground icing conditions) Use of auto throttles for takeoff is strongly encouraged. If an EPR probe icing condition should occur, the auto throttles will ignore the erroneous EPR and maintain the correct power setting via computed throttle lev.....
True
35
(IRCM) The laser is invisible and can injure eyes or skin within _____ feet for a single aft turret or _____ feet if the two forward turrets are installed.
187 feet single and 200 feet w/ two forward turrets
36
With no source of electrical power to the aircraft and the battery switch OFF, only the __________ bus is powered since it is connected directly to the batteries.
Battery Direct Bus
37
The electrical system is normally operated in the ____ mode with generators No. 1 and No. 2 supplying left side power and generators No. 3 and No. 4 supplying right side power
Split‐parallel
38
The battery switch must be ON to provide battery power to the __________ buses.
Emergency buses
39
As a minimum, the batteries are designed to provide emergency power for up to ____ of operation
One half‐hour
40
The aircraft batteries provide power to the __________ which provides power to the AC Emergency Bus
Static inverter
41
OBIGGS II: If there is a total loss of electrical power during high pressure pneumatic air supply operation, ___________ may result. Immediately shut down the pneumatic cart.
Fuselage fire
42
During engine start, ensure engine oil pressure is a minimum of ______ psi before turning the ENG SHUT OFF switch to on.
5 psi
43
If ENG OIL PRESS X asserts on the WAP during engine start and the pressure is greater than 5 psi, you should do what...
Monitor oil pressure until idle is achieved and evaluate
44
Once an engine is stabilized at idle following a start, what is the normal fuel flow?
800 – 1200 pph
45
Low EGT margin engines are more susceptible to ENG EGT X alerts on the WAP when OAT is at or above ____ and thrust is at or near maximum thrust?
24 °C (75 °F)
46
THRUST LOSS annunciator lights (amber) will illuminate in flight when thrust of a single engine is ______ less than the average EPR of the remaining engines.
0.15 EPR
47
In the event of boost pump failure, fuel can be suction fed by the engine driven fuel pump at ____ thrust rating up to an altitude of ____ ft and at a pitch angle no greater than 21.5 degrees
MAX and 10,000
48
The starter is designed to start the engine with normal starting loads. Excessive loads are applied when the engine driven hydraulic pumps are on. A ______ may result if the pumps are on during engine start.
Hung Start
49
Engine Start Buttons: The button will stay in until engine N2 RPM reaches approximately _____ percent.
51% N2
50
If FIREX AGENT DISCHARGE 1 POWER CB on the __________ is open, the ___________will be inoperative.
Overhead panel / APU Fire Agent DISCH switch
51
Engine anti‐ice provides icing protection to the engine fan blades
False
52
Do not change the ENGINE IGNITION source during engine start. Switching sources may result in a ___________.
Tailpipe fire
53
[ pertaining to pretty much all scenarios where you want to use reverse thrust ] To prevent damage to the reverse interlock solenoids, do not move the throttle levers beyond the reverse idle detent until
Either the REV indication is illuminated on the MFD's or until the solenoids are heard to release
ie: until you hear the click or see X blue rev icons
54
If the starter valve will not close after engine start (light remains illuminated more than 30 seconds after the button pops out), which of the following actions could result in a starter failure?
Shutting down the engine before removing the bleed air supply
55
Delay engine starter re‐engagement for ____ seconds once N2 RPM indication is lost from the MFD engine display to ensure that engine rotation has stopped
40 seconds
56
In addition to an engine fire and disintegration, the EMERGENCY ENGINE SHUTDOWN Checklist will be run with ____
D. All of the above
A. Seizure
B. Engine sparking (continuous)
C. Engine/pylon fuel leak (on the ground)
D. All of the above
57
If an engine reverts to the N2 mode, all engine responses are normal except ____
That no overspeed protection is provided
58
If the N1 RPM indication drops to zero or all displays are blank, what could this indicate?
This could indicate a catastrophic engine failure
59
A Four Engine Flameout is likely to occur when flying through what?
D. All the above
A. Heavy rain
B. Hail and icing
C. Volcanic ash
D. All of the above
60
Four Engine Flameout: Wings level C‐17 glide ratio is _____.
2.6 NM/1000 ft
61
BLK 17E‐BLK 18‐>: Engine Failure During Takeoff: The MC calculates three engine climb gradient capability based on the use of_____ power, regardless of the selected takeoff EPR. After liftoff increase power on operating engines to _____ thrust as required.
MAX and MAX
62
If experiencing severe engine vibration during flight...
Immediately shut down the engine using the Emergency Engine Shutdown Checklist
63
There is a maximum of ____ engine start attempts in one hour, followed by a ____ minimum cooling period
5 attempts / hour
1 hour cooling period
64
Engine rotation will be completely stopped before the starter is re‐engaged. The exception to this is in an emergency the starter may be re‐engaged after N2 RPM has decreased below____
20% N2
65
The maximum time limit at MAX/DRT thrust is ____ minutes when not needed for engine failure on takeoff, or engine out go‐around for obstacle clearance
5 minutes
66
Maximum EGT for engine start is ______ degrees (ground) and ______ degrees (air)
495° ground and 655° in flight
67
The recommended minimum airspeed for in‐flight reverse thrust is ______ or Vmma, whichever is higher.
250 kts
68
If flight through contaminated air is experienced with the air conditioning pack(s) operating, the conditioned airflow used for avionics cooling ____
Will be contaminated
69
If the ambient temperatures are above ____ , avionics cooling air flow must be supplied from conditioned air augmentation (APU or air conditioner ground unit)
90 degrees F
70
Pitch Reference Trim is available ____
D. B and C
B. With the FCS ACTR Panel PITCH TRIM switch in EFCS
C. With the FCS ACTR Panel PITCH TRIM switch in MECH
71
If the ________________ fails, automatic ground spoilers may not deploy during a rejected takeoff or subsequent landing.
GND SPLR/LAPES switch
72
In frontside flight the default or basic mode for the AFCS pitch axis is the ____ mode
Vertical Speed/Altitude Hold
73
The Alpha Speed function provides flight guidance and/or control to limit minimum airspeed to configuration Alpha Speed, which provides safe buffet or stall margin for the existing aircraft configuration (flaps, slats, thrust level, weight and altitude).
True
*too long to be wrong*
74
When the FPV drift angle exceeds the limit of the HUD or PFD field of view, pitch information from the flashing FPV is ___________ and only the ________ FPV symbol will provide correct vertical path information.
Unusable and caged
75
The Stall Warning System provides stick shaker and aural “STALL” alerts to pilots when flight conditions (airspeed) approach what range?
1.05 ‐ 1.15 Vs
76
Which action will not re‐arm spoilers for RTO mode during touch and go landings
Moving all four throttles to the idle reverse detent.
77
(IRCM) Ground operations longer than ____ minutes with the outside air temperature above 38 degrees C / 100 degrees F may result in TX x FAIL and degraded IRCM performance
25 minutes
78
[ What should you do ] If takeoff roll or initial climbout is accompanied by unusual aircraft yaw motion or abnormal rudder movement.... the EFCS may have reverted to FROZEN GAINS.... [ so do what now? ]
D. All of the above
A. Prior to Vgo, a reject is recommended
B. If takeoff is continued, repeatedly press EFCS RESET, allowing 1 second between button presses.
C. Transition to FCC FIXED GAIN is not available until Weight‐off‐wheels and A/R Mode is not engaged
D. All of the above
79
(FCC FIXED GAIN) Large abrupt rudder inputs at speeds over ___ KCAS can overstress the vertical stabilizer and rudders
200 kts
80
The maximum airspeed for extending the slats is ____; for retracting is ____
280 kts extending
270 kts retracting
81
If a stall occurs
D. All of the above
A. Apply smooth, but positive forward stick
B. Increase thrust to MAX and retract speedbrakes (if required)
C. Roll input to level the wings
D. All of the above
82
When the reported airfield temperature is ____ degrees C or above, the EFCS can revert to FROZEN GAINS.
43° Celsius
83
If you encounter FROZEN GAINS, maintain airspeed within +/‐ ______ of the airspeed when FROZEN GAINS occurred.
30 KCAS
84
TRUE/FALSE If stabilized on approach speed and you encounter FROZEN GAINS, land in FROZEN GAINS.
TRUE
*land that beezy and talk about it later*
85
What is the fuel allowance for a typical approach and landing?
3,800 lbs
86
The desired fuel imbalance between left and right wings is _____ pounds and between inboard and outboard tanks is _______ pounds.
1,000 lbs and 1,000 lbs
87
If an individual fuel tank indicator on the overhead is inoperative, the totalizer shows
Correct total fuel
88
When fuel quantities drop below approximately ____ lbs for the inboard tanks and ____ lbs for the outboard tanks, the respective transfer pumps become uncovered and ineffective
28,000 lbs inboard
12,000 lbs outboard
89
Fuel dump above ____ feet may cause engine flameout due to loss of fuel pressure
20,000 feet
90
Normally fuel dump is accomplished with the center separation valve closed. Confirm that both lights illuminate OR.......
Open the separation valve immediately
91
OBIGGS II with ASM ALERT WCC(s) will fail when electrically powered for greater than _____ continuous hours with both left and right OBIGGS systems selected OFF or Failed/Disabled
17 continuous hours
92
GPWS Mode 4C (gear down, flaps 1/2 detent or less and below 500 feet radar altitude) is inoperative when ____.
TACTICAL mode is selected
93
During taxi with speed greater than 20 knots with symmetric thrust (15 knots with asymmetric thrust), a 20 degree nose wheel steering angle limit applies if gross weight exceeds ____ lbs or with more than ____ lbs of fuel.
490,000 lbs gross weight
OR
165,000 lbs of fuel
94
The maximum taxi speed for paved taxiways is ____ knots; maximum taxiway speed for semi‐prepared taxiways is ____ knots with gross weight/fuel weight less than or equal to 435,000/82,000 lbs respectively.
40 kts on paved
30 kts semi-prepared
95
Minimum runway/taxiway widths for C‐17 operations are:
90 ft runway
50 ft taxiway
96
Do not taxi an aircraft within ___ feet of obstructions without wing walkers monitoring clearance between aircraft and obstructions. With wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least ___ feet.
25 feet of obstructions w/o
10 feet at least w/ wing walkers
97
From the left seat an imaginary line drawn from the row of rivets inside the number ___ engine cowling at approximately the ___ o'clock position closely identifies 25‐foot wingtip clearance
Number 1 engine
4 o'clock position
98
Taxi Centerline References: While taxiing the aircraft straight ahead, the position of the nosewheel is approximated by __________.
D. all of the above
A. the inboard screw of the heads‐up display (HUD)
B. the inboard leg of the pilot flying (PF)
C. the first inboard dot of the lateral deviation indicator in the HUD
D. all of the above
99
On a dry surface with symmetric engine thrust and no differential braking, the aircraft can execute a 180‐degree turn in _____ feet
143 feet
100
True or False. Operating engines in idle reverse thrust for extended periods during high OAT's may cause one or more engine FIREX bottles to discharge uncommanded?
TRUE
101
The primary purpose of the transfer pump is to ____ in the event of No. 2 or No. 3 engine loss
C. Both A and B
A. Assist in cargo door/ramp closing
B. Assist in landing gear retraction
102
The HSC determines the on demand pump operation in the following sequence of priority for hydraulic system No. 3
Primary, secondary, XFER, AUX pump
103
Do not attempt takeoff with any hydraulic reservoir temperature indicating less than ____ degrees C. Low rudder temperature indicates insufficient rate of rudder deflection to correct for an engine failure on takeoff
+7° Celsius
104
Primary flight controls are powered by how many hydraulic systems?
Two hydraulic systems
105
If steering commands from the tillers and rudder pedals are in disagreement, which one takes priority?
The rudder command will be overridden, tiller takes priority.
106
Which hydraulic system powers the normal brakes?
System No. 2
107
If ground speed on the MFD ND appears excessive...
All four IRU's should be realigned if on the ground
108
In the event of large disparity between the IRU ground speed and the anti‐skid brake controller sensed ground speed, braking capability will be reduced. If in flight, accomplish the landing using ____ .
Landing With Erroneous Ground Speed procedure.
109
What is the maximum airspeed allowable for extending the landing gear?
250 kts
110
(Tire cord limits) The maximum wear limit (MWL) is defined as the exposure of the ______ cord layer plus _____ additional landings.
THIRD cord layer plus TWO additional landings
111
True / False. After an MC Degraded Mode, the MC may generate extreme navigation errors, as indicated by PPOS‐related depictions shifting on the MFD. No sooner than 10 seconds after recovery from a Degraded Mode, perform a FLUSH ALL.
TRUE
*too long to be wrong*
112
When checking the mission computer bus controller status in the Before Taxi Checklist, if MC1/MC2 are not in proper BC/BU configuration, _____________ may occur?
Permanent Degraded Mode
113
A personnel restraining harness or parachute is required to be worn ____
When inspecting aircraft doors after an in‐flight door/hatch warning
114
What is the aircraft configuration for an emergency descent?
Throttles ‐ IDLE or IDLE REV; Speed Brakes ‐ Deployed (As Required); Airspeed ‐ As Required
115
If involved in a mishap or incident, pull the CVR power circuit breaker ____ ?
After landing and terminating the emergency
116
The TO 1C‐17A‐1 provides __________operating instructions under __________ circumstances, but it is not a substitute for __________. Multiple emergencies, adverse weather, terrain, etc. may require modification of the procedures.
the best possible / most / sound judgement
117
The C‐17A is a category _____ aircraft for turbulence. Air Force turbulence forecasts in TAFs and hazard charts are specified for category _____ aircraft.
The Moose is a cat III for turbulence
TAF's and charts are for a cat II
118
Wind component data displayed on the Map and Compass Formats of the MFDs display mission computer‐filtered solutions of air data over the past _____ seconds.
60 seconds
119
When turbulence is encountered or expected, ________ ignition will be used.
A and B
120
During a rejected takeoff ____
All four throttles to idle reverse, then only use symmetrical throttles beyond idle reverse.
121
Which of the following results in an individual being declared NMR?
D. Any of the above.
A. Fail to maintain flying currency.
B. Fail to complete semi‐annual flying continuation training requirements
C. Fail to complete ground continuation training requirements
D. Any of the above.
122
With the exception of missions launched from Alpha or Bravo alert or when self alerting, crew duty time and flight duty period both begin ____
When an aircrew reports for mission, briefing, or official duty
123
The maximum flight duty period for a basic crew (including Basic +1) is ____ hours; for an augmented crew ____ hours
16 hours for a basic crew or basic +1
24 hours for and augmented crew
124
True / False. Both pilots will VERIFY the intended changes prior to execution to include the correct mode is selected (e.g. ensure LNAV is selected when cleared to a point while on a heading).
TRUE
125
Destination Requirements (for filing purposes): File two alternates when:
The forecast visibility (intermittent or prevailing) is less than published for the available DoD/NACO precision approach
126
For RNAV approaches, ensure that the ________ is updating the MC position for civil approaches.
Selected GPS source
127
True / False. MGPS loaded with PPS keys is authorized for sole‐source navigation in civil airspace. Refer to MAJCOM guidance
TRUE
128
To select the IRU1/MGPS1 blended solution present position (PPOS) with CGPS containment for navigation, use the following configuration:
Pilot ID switch on (P) pilot side, CGPS UPDATE selected on LSK 2L of NAV SENSORS ‐ CONTROL page 6/7
129
The cabin pressurization SEMI mode controls cabin pressure according to what?
The baro‐corrected altitude set in the LDG ALT‐FT display window
130
When the CREW OXY LOW message illuminates on the WAP, it indicates what?
Oxygen quantity is less than 5 liters or supply pressure is below 60 +/‐ 5 psi
131
(Assuming the aircraft has accelerated to 250 KCAS or VMSR) During a Standard Departure Profile, the PM will engage the desired climb power on the SED _______.
During the Alternate Departure Profile, the PM will engage the desired climb power on the SED _______
standard: when directed by the PF
alternate: when directed by the PF
132
Pressing SC ZERO whenever the IRUs are in the ON position erases encryption keys, almanac and position information, forcing the __________ to reacquire. It will take much longer than normal on the next power up for the _________ to synchronize.
(M)GPS and (M)GPS
133
For an RSC greater than _____ and an RCR less than _____, the actual runway required for takeoff/landing could exceed runway available.
RSC greater than .00
RCR less than 12
134
Each successful FCC and SC/EFC preflight BITs (PFBIT) can be considered valid for a period of ____ hours provided FCC, SC/EFC, flight control or hydraulic system integrity have not been compromised during that time period. Reaccomplish the PFBIT if
maint....
72 Hours
135
In general, address malfunctions in the following order:
Aural CAWS > MASTER WARNING > MASTER CAUTION > EFCS/MISSION STATUS page
136
True / False. Land as soon as possible means a landing should be accomplished at the nearest suitable airfield, whereas land as soon as practical means landing at the nearest suitable airfield may not be necessary.
TRUE
*too long to be wrong*
137
The following rules should be followed regarding circuit breakers
D. All of the above.
A. Do not reset or cycle any fuel pump circuit breaker.
B. Never pull and reset circuit breakers as a means to recover lost components unless directed to do so.
C. Except where prohibited by specific procedures, open circuit breakers may be reset once.
D. All of the above.
138
Whenever using EFCS RESET, allow ___ seconds after pressing the button for the LRU to be reset and EFCS RESET to extinguish from the WAP, unless directed otherwise in the procedure
5 Seconds
139
The warning bell signals for Crash Landing are: Immediately after takeoff ______ ring(s), Prepare for crash landing _____ ring(s), Brace for impact ________ ring(s).
After takeoff: one long
Prepare for crash landing: six short
Brace for impact: one long
140
The Ground Evacuation checklist is designed to be run by ____________ for the Engines Not Running section and by ____________ for the Engines Running section.
engines not running: a single crew member
engines running: all crew members
141
True / False. Prior to completing a critical action, the PM shall point to the affected switch/handle/lever and verbally seek confirmation from the PF.
TRUE
142
The GROUND EVACUATION checklist is only located where?
In the Quick Reaction Guide (QRG)
143
If entering a tactical environment immediately after takeoff, TACTICAL can be selected on the GPWS/TAWS CONTROL page, but the displays will not switch to tactical until the ____
D. Either A or B
A. Aircraft is farther than 15nm from the runway
B. Aircraft is above 1500 feet AGL
144
(Thrust Reverser Status, 3L) When a SPAM runway is selected for emergency return or landing, the MC adds another thrust reverser selection for four engines (4ENG). 4ENG assumes what?
all four engines operating and in maximum reverse thrust
145
True / False. When operating into semi‐prepared runways, aircrews must input the numerical rolling friction factor (RFF) into the mission computer to calculate take‐off data prior to landing.
TRUE
146
Time Control: If there are no waypoints between the top and bottom of descent, expect to be one minute early/late per ______ feet of descents/climbs, respectively.
Per 10,000 feet of climb / descent
147
Time Control (high altitude): Take _____ percent of TAS to determine how long a 360‐degree turn will take in minutes .
1% of TAS
148
____ terrain masking is placing terrain behind the aircraft so it is difficult to distinguish the aircraft from the background. ____ terrain masking is putting the terrain between the aircraft and the threat
Indirect: putting shit behind you to mask you from threat
Direct: using the shit as a physical barrier from threat
149
Time Control (low altitude): Turn _____ degrees off course for 1 minute, then turn back to course on a _____degree intercept for 1 minute. This allows the crew to intercept the original course and lose 1 minute.
60° off course for 1 minute..... then re-intercept back using the same 60° intercept for another 1 minute
150
For low‐altitude, level slowdowns, use __ of ground speed as a general rule of thumb. Add __ if above 280KCAS to allow time to configure.
Use 1% of ground speed....... add 1 NM to slowdown distance if above 280 kts
151
What approximate descent gradient can be obtained flying 230 KCAS and configured with Slats and Speed Brakes?
525 ft/NM
152
In a tactical environment, a ____ is an established reference point from which the position of an object can be referenced by bearing (Magnetic) and range (NM)
BULLSEYE
153
Weather minimums for NVG departures for crewmembers who are non‐current and/or unqualified is ______. Current and qualified NVG aircrews may fly NVG departures weather down to _____ (OG/CC or equivalent may approve down to _____)
non-current: 1500/3 (VFR)
current / qualified: 600/2
OG/CC or equivalent waiver: 300/1
154
NVG Training: Maximum crosswind for takeoff or landing is __________ for runways 90‐120 feet wide.
15 kts
155
To back the C‐17 when all four engines overhang a prepared surface, ________.
Stagger the outboard throttles 1/4 to 3/4 knob width relative to the inboard throttles, with the outboards providing greater reverse thrust (frowney face)
156
To back the C‐17 when any outboard engine overhangs an unprepared or debris covered surface, with inboard engines completely over a prepared debris‐free surface ___________.
Modulate reverse thrust on the inboard engines while holding outboard throttles at or near idle reverse (smiley face)
157
If a GPWS/TAWS aural or visual warning is received during an approach in Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC), __________. Exceptions will be annotated in command guidance.
Execute a missed approach or go around
158
The F/D Traffic Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) SUBMODE is engaged by pressing the ____ when a TCAS Resolution Advisory (RA) is present and the A/R mode is not engaged.
AP disengage switch on either control stick
159
A target aircraft is within 6NM and could be potentially hazardous. This is ____
A Traffic Advisory (TA)
160
The PPI SKE and ND MAP formats depict only ____ altitudes for TCAS traffic.
Relative
161
The Standard Departure Profile uses a select MC data element, __________, and aero performance data, rather than an MC calculated solution, to validate the aircraft flight path meets or exceeds a given climb gradient when flown as published.
MC COF: ACT
162
BLOCK 19‐>: Use the lower of the following two altitudes to determine the planned 3‐engine acceleration altitude:
Lower of MC ACC ALT and MIN IFR Altitude
163
True / False. During high ambient air temperatures and reverse idle conditions, primary TOLD and allowable cargo load calculations may be overly restrictive. Use secondary TOLD to compare against primary TOLD to determine if allowable cargo load is overly restrictive.
TRUE
*too long to be wrong*
164
If AGS does not deploy on landing, DLC spoilers are available to manually deploy _____ of AGS effectiveness.
25%
165
Intermediate Thrust Rating (INT) is ____. This is the recommended rating for engine‐out climbs.
The maximum thrust certified for continuous use
166
Maximum Continuous Thrust (MCT) rating is ____.
The maximum thrust recommended for normal climb operation
167
Go speed (VGO) is the lowest of _____, _____, or _____.
VROT and VR and VBMAX
168
True / False. The aircraft static air temperature shall not be used for takeoff calculation since heat radiation picked up by the sensing element can cause considerable error. Using an incorrect temperature may result in an unsafe takeoff.
TRUE
*too long to be wrong*
169
A lineup distance penalty must be applied anytime the takeoff is not commenced from the beginning of the usable runway. Apply a standard distance of ____ feet to account for turning the aircraft around on the runway or accessing the runway from a taxiway.
250 feet
170
MC TOLD: If VBO LDG DIST exceeds __________ and LDG DIST is valid, VBO LDG DIST is highlighted and VBO LD DIST/nnn.nGW (MSG) is generated. If VBO GND ROLL exceeds __________ and GND ROLL is valid, VBO GND ROLL is highlighted and VBO GD
ROLL/nnn.nGW (MSG
RWY AVAIL and RWY AVAIL
171
[Block 19D] MC ACC ALT calculations may allow level‐off acceleration altitudes well below obstacle/climb gradient altitudes. Compliance with ___________ is essential in achieving computed performance capability.
Climb out procedures
172
For ¾ flap precision approaches with glide path angles steeper than 3.2 degrees, increase landing distance by _____ feet and do not exceed _____ feet per minute descent rate.
Increase by 300 feet and do not exceed 900 fpm descent rate
173
For full flap precision approaches (non‐assault) with glide path angles between 3.8 degrees and the MC calculated full flap approach angle, increase landing distance by _____ feet. This can be accomplished in the MC by reducing runway available by _____
increase by 600 feet. This can be accomplished by reducing runway available by 600 feet.
174
[Block 19D] The MC uses _____________ thrust to compute ACC ALT, including when evaluating three engine climb gradients.
The selected takeoff thrust
175
True / False. (Block 17E‐19D) When landing with a tailwind on a runway with either an RCR of 6 to 22 or an RSC greater than 0, you must correct the landing distance in accordance with checklist procedures.
TRUE
*too long to be wrong*
176
When taking off from an airfield with a pressure altitude over ________ feet, review Operations at High Altitude Airports procedures in Section VII.
8,000 feet
177
After an in‐flight Degraded Mode, the MC re‐enables ____________________, which will assert during subsequent touch‐and‐go landings or go‐around‐after‐touchdowns.
Takeoff warnings (“FLAPS,” “STABILIZER,” etc.)
178
If ALS is flashing when the aircraft reference symbol representing aircraft pitch attitude is within _____ degrees of the flight path, the ALS is erroneously activating.
8 degrees
179
During touch and go landings, takeoff warnings are inhibited.
TRUE
180
Flight through extremely heavy rain, particularly with low thrust settings (< 45% N1)
May result in flameout of one or more engines
181
____ should be used for flight in known or anticipated turbulent air.
Engine ignition
*the heck? Does it mean A and B or just A or B? this question is for the fishes... dops the mic and walks out*
182
During wind shear recovery, unless a sink rate exists, do not exceed ____ degrees of pitch below ____ feet
15° of pitch below 200 feet AGL
183
If icing conditions are present, engine anti‐ice must be used continously to help prevent _______________.
Engine damage due to ice ingestion
184
Takeoff will not be attempted with over ____ inch(es) of slush or water, over ____ inch(es) of wet snow, or over ____ inch(es) of dry snow on the runway.
1/2 inches of slush / water
1 inch of wet snow
4 or more inches of dry snow
185
Failure to periodically perform the ground ice shedding procedure can result in damage to the engines. If more than ___ minutes have expired since engine start and icing conditions persist, delay takeoff until the procedure is accomplished
15 minutes
186
Under no circumstance will flights be planned through ____ icing conditions. Aircraft operation in ____ icing conditions may be tolerated for short periods of time but evasive action should be undertaken to exit icing conditions as soon as practicable
Forecast or known severe icing
Moderate may be tolerated for short periods
187
If icing conditions are expected during the descent, engine anti‐ice, wing anti‐ice, and windshield anti‐ice will be turned on at least _____ feet above the expected icing level in order to provide adequate warm up time.
10,000 feet above
188
The Pre‐Takeoff Contamination Check is required if holdover time has expired or if freezing precipitation is occurring on an aircraft that was not anti‐iced. The contamination check must be completed from OUTSIDE the aircraft within ___ minutes prior to takeoff.
5 minutes
189
Fluid Holdover Times: The C‐17 is considered a(n) __________ aircraft.
Aluminium
190
Weather Minimums for Takeoff: What minimum visibility is required to depart on an operational mission in the absence of RVR readout?
D. B or C
B. ½ mile
C. 800 meters
191
During flight, avoid thunderstorm activity by any means available by at least ____ NM at or above FL 230 and ____ NM below FL 230
20 NM above FL230
10 NM below FL230
192
(APS‐150): What mode would be selected on the Radar Control Panel to see rainfall inside/behind areas of turbulence?
WX MAN
193
APS‐150 Weather Radar: For an aircraft cruising at or above 29,000 feet, when will existing weather be depicted as non‐relevant (striped)?
D. A and B
A. When actual weather is not within +/‐ 4,000 feet relative to aircraft’s actual/projected altitude
B. When actual weather is below 25,000 feet
194
APS150: The Magenta areas represent areas of ____________ turbulence and should always be avoided.
Moderate to Severe
195
True / False. (Airdrop) Loading the GPS keys improves SKE performance
TRUE
196
(Airdrop) Maximum troop door opening airspeed is _____.
250 KCAS/Mach 0.62
197
(Airdrop) If excessive crosstrack (greater than ______) is predicted at 15 seconds prior to the CARP/HARP, the CAWS annunciates "AUTO DROP," and the AUTO DROP annunciator on the instrument panel illuminates.
300 yards
198
(Airdrop) Formation takeoff minimums are no lower than a ____ ceiling and ____ mile(s) visibility. Formation landing minimums are ____
Formation Takeoff minimums: 200 ft 1/2 mile
Formation Landing minimums: published minimums for the airport.
199
(Airdrop) Lead will announce unplanned airspeed changes of ____ knots or more.
10 kts or more
200
(Airdrop) (Formation Holding Pattern, Holding Pattern in Lieu of Procedure Turn, or Procedure Turn Pattern) During formation recoveries lead....
D. All of the above
A. Will enter a minimum of 1,000 feet above procedure turn or GCA pickup altitude
B. Will not enter from the quadrant requiring a turn to the non‐maneuvering side
C. Will not fly 45/180 ground tracks
D. All of the above
201
(Airdrop) Offset PIs are computed from the surveyed center PI. When used, a ___ yard left/right offset will be used for 3‐ship operations and a ___ yard left/right offset will be used for 2‐ship operations.
250 and 125
202
(Airdrop) For jumpmaster‐directed airdrops, the PF must establish drop altitude and airspeed early (normally __ minutes prior to green light). At approximately __ until scheduled drop time, the loadmaster permits the jumpmaster to begin spotting
procedure
2; 2; 1
203
(Airdrop) (Formation En Route Altitude Changes) For climbs and descents greater than 2,000 feet, use _____ FPM (or previous rate if lower). For 2,000 feet or less, use _____ FPM (or previous rate if lower).
2,000 fpm for greater than 2,000 foot changes
1,000 fpm for less than 2,000 foot changes
204
(Airdrop) The minimum formation takeoff interval is ____ seconds.
30 seconds
205
(Airdrop) For visual‐in‐trail formation slowdowns, the desired spacing is ____ feet between element leads (_____ feet between all aircraft).
6,000 feet between element leads
2,000 feet between all aircraft
206
(Airdrop) (Visual Formation Airdrop) For drift angles of ____ degree(s), wingmen adjust their lateral formation position to maintain the same relative ground track as the element lead over the DZ, avoiding wake turbulence from the preceding aircraft.
4 and greater
207
(Airdrop) (Personnel Formation Airdrop Escape) If required to move back to en route crosstrack, delay post drop maneuvering to en route visual or SKE XTRK position until end of usable DZ (MC Red Light) and "load clear."
TRUE
*too long to be wrong*
208
(Airdrop) The Quick Drop Checklist may be used for:
A subsequent CDS airdrop when the cargo door and ramp remain open between passes
209
(Airdrop) Block 18 ‐ 19D. Airdrop with ____ selected on the MCD's NAV SENSORS‐CONTROL PAGE will cause numerous UNABLE RNP messages to annunciate.
CGPS
210
(Airdrop) During the airdrop slowdown checklist, the SED thrust rating is selected to MAX if:
D. Both B. and C
B. Selecting ¾ or FULL flaps
C. Dropping heavy equipment platforms
211
(Airdrop) _____________, especially with less than _______ feet spacing between aircraft, will increase the likelihood of nuisance SKE GPS DENIED messages
Unkeyed MGPS operation and 3,000 feet
212
(Instructor) What are the requirements for a touch and go (IP in the seat)?
Runway length: 7,000’
Minimum ceiling and visibility: 300’ and ¾
Wet runway‐ RCR=12
Crosswind: 25 kts or less
213
(Instructor) Training Flight Restrictions: What is the maximum brake temperature for Assault Landing Zone Operations (N/A to GOAT)?
150° C
214
(Instructor) What is the altitude at which you must initiate a visual low approach and/or planned go around?
100 ft AGL
215
(Instructor) For loss of currency up to 6 months, an aircrew member must demonstrate proficiency ____ in all delinquent items.
With an instructor (or ATS instructor for SIM creditable events)
216
(Instructor) What are the procedures if the spoilers fail to automatically retract during a touch and go?
The PF advances the throttles to MAX and the PM will manually set the Spoilers switch to Off (dearm)
217
(CHS) Charleston’s BASH Phase II Period is:
Implemented by 437 OG/CC (coordinated with 315 OG/CC) and announced by FCIF
218
(CHS) Crews will obtain the Bird Watch Condition, if available, prior to:
D. Both A and B
A. Initial departure
B. Initial arrival
219
(CHS) The AHAS Bird condition is Moderate, for a Military Training Route:
Crews will fly no faster that 250 knots on affected route segments
220
(CHS) Practice circling approaches are not authorized between:
2200-0700 local
221
(CHS) Avoid all downtown Charleston hospital complexes when flying VFR approaches to runway 33
below:
2,000’ MSL
222
(CHS) Low levels on locally developed, non-FLIP low-level routes are approved at what altitude?
500’ AGL
223
(CHS) When unable to avoid overflights of Santee Wildlife Refuge, fly no lower than:
2,000 AGL
224
(CHS) If you are flying IR-035/IR-036 and the IR route will be terminated at North Field:
Be sure to cancel IFR with ATC
225
(CHS) If there is an USAF LZSO in the tower at North Field a maximum of aircraft are allowed
in the pattern?
D. Both A and C
A. 2
C. One integral formation if traffic pattern deconfliction. landing separation and remarshaling plans are thoroughly briefed between the formation aircrews.
226
(CHS) Contact Columbia Approach (124.15) if climbing above in the vicinity of North Field.
2500’ MSL
227
(CHS) Crews are advised to file FL_____ or higher if transiting within 80 NM’s of CLT airspace.
FL 280
228
(CHS) At JB Charleston, it is permissible for a crew to block themselves into or out of parking, without
wing walkers, while aircraft are parked adjacent to their parking location?
True, unless visibility is restricted
229
(CHS) During reverse taxi operations, do not taxi within _____ of any obstruction.
25 ft with or without a marshaller/wing walker
230
(CHS) When looking from the left seat, an imaginary line drawn from the 5 o’clock position of the #1
engine cowling approximates 25 feet of wingtip clearance.
FALSE. It is 10 feet of wingtip clearance.
231
(CHS) If wingtip clearance is ever in doubt, the best course of action is to:
Deplane a crew member to verify wingtip clearance
232
(CHS) During backing operations, if the LM says “Stop” or communication is lost:
Stop the aircraft immediately
233
(CHS) A cross-cockpit 25 foot wingtip clearance reference is:
D. Both A and B
A. The large knob on the opposite HUD, if the HUD is in the up position is approximately 25 feet
B. Conservatively, the opposite side cockpit window knob
234
(CHS) An approximate reference for the outer edge of the main landing gear is:
D. Both A and C
A. The top eighth of the window approximates the outboard side of the trucks
C. From the troop door, the LM can use the MLG door to approximate 3 ft of clearance
235
(CHS) The painted boxes on the ramp at JB Charleston, provide _____ feet of wingtip clearance
provided all equipment is completely within the painted lines.
10 feet
236
(CHS) True / False. When flying the overhead pattern at North Field the pilot flying will make a level break at
1800’MSL
TRUE
237
(CHS) VOR/DME/TACAN/GPS Runway 21. In order to prevent noise complaints and damage to Medway Plantation at the Naval Weapons Station, crews are asked to delay descent to FAF altitudeor below 1600’ until established on final and inside _____ NM:
Inflight Guide page 14
8 DME
238
(CHS) True / False. It is imperative that crews on operational missions relay all information of unusual occurrences, aircraft damage, or waiver requests through their squadron operations officer and or stan/eval offices.
TRUE
239
(CHS) Maintenance will provide a (an) _____ at every jet at crew show or APEX loading time (whichever is earlier) and should have the aircraft powered up with external power. Maintenance will also provide an air conditioning/heater unit (if available) when outside air temperature is less than _____ or greater than_____ .
power cart / 50°F / 80°F
240
(CHS) Aircrew will start the APU approximately _____ minutes prior to engine start to accomplish SCEFC and FCC hydraulic preflight tests and, after landing, will delay APU start until approximately _____ minutes from block in.
15 minutes prior to engine start
4 minutes prior to block-in
