C-17 2019 MQF w/ Airdrop and IP

Question 1

The AP has two modes of operation; __________, and __________.

Answer 1

Normal and AP DEGRADED

Question 2

AP DEGRADED mode will not engage below Vmma with invalid aircraft weights (both MC’s inop, etc).

Answer 2

FALSE

Question 3

During Degraded Modes, _________ use the last valid altitude and heading data they received prior to the Degraded Mode. Advise ATC as necessary.

Answer 3

IFF and TCAS

Question 4

To determine an individual aircraft’s maximum payload weight…

Answer 4

Subtract Operating Weight from Maximum Zero Fuel Weight

Question 5

There are normally ____ first aid kits installed on the aircraft with provisions for ____ total

Answer 5

Normally 6

Provisions for 26 total

Question 6

There are a total of ____ fire extinguishers onboard the aircraft with ____ in the cockpit and ____ in the crewrest area

Answer 6

9 : 2 : 1

Question 7

Bank angles more than _____ degrees are not recommended. The maximum bank angle is ______ degrees.

Answer 7

Not recommended: 60°

Maximum: 70°

Question 8

On Extended Range aircraft with more than ____ pounds total fuel, delay braking until nose gear touchdown unless there is less than ____ pounds of fuel in the four extended range compartments combined

Answer 8

165,000 lbs total fuel : 4,000 lbs remaining

Question 9

The maximum allowable crosswind for landing is ____ knots

Answer 9

30 knots

Question 10

The maximum landing touchdown sink rate for a steep approach (502,100 lbs) is ____ feet/min

Answer 10

660 feet/min

Question 11

Landing is not permitted with tailwinds greater than ____ or headwinds greater than ____

Answer 11

Tail of 10 knots : Head of 40 knots

Question 12

[for the mighty C-17] (IAP) Instrument approach RVR/visibility and, if required, ceiling minimums will be as published for a category ____ aircraft.

If approach speeds exceed 165 knots, the minimums for category _____ will be used.

Answer 12

D : E

Question 13

If full flight instrumentation is not available and operational, aircraft are limited to a DH/MDA based on ____.

Answer 13

A HAT of 300 feet and RVR 4000 or ¾ mile visibility with no RVR

Question 14

The APU AUTO SHUT DN ORIDE switchlight will override all automatic shutdowns except ____

Answer 14

An indicated fire or overspeed

Question 15

The cargo compartment APU warning horn can be inhibited during ground operations by the ____ switch on the Entrance Light Panel

Answer 15

“INTL HORN INHIBIT” switch

Question 16

If APU is inoperative, ensure either a __________ is in place or __________connected before shutting down the last engine.

Answer 16

fire guard/fire extinguisher : air cart

Question 17

TheAPUstarteroperatinglimitis_____minuteandanyAPUstarterengagementisconsideredastartattempt._____starts maybeattemptedperrollingonehourcyclewithaminimumdelayof_____minutesbetweenattempts.

Answer 17

1,3,5

Question 18

ThevisualsignalforaBREAKAWAYis

Answer 18

Tanker flashes Pilot Director Lights and/or turns lower rotating beacon ON

Question 19

If the receiver overruns the tanker, the receiver will reduce airspeed to ____ , and maintain track and altitude

Answer 19

255 KCAS or minimum maneuvering speed, whichever is higher

Question 20

When the receiver pilot is closing and approaching the pre‐contact position, the receiver will do what?

Answer 20

The receiver will stabilize in the precontact position and attain a zero rate of closure

Question 21

Monitor designated A/R frequency at least ____ minutes prior to the ARCT

Answer 21

30 Minutes Prior

Question 22

A controlled tension brute force disconnect will be accomplished ____

Answer 22

Only as a last resort

Question 23

(Emergency Boom Latching Procedures) It is possible to cause structural damage to the air refueling boom and slipway by severe relative movement between the two aircraft when operating in override since the ____ are deactivated. The ____ must initiate all

Answer 23

Limit switches; receiver pilot

Question 24

During the RV Delta (Point Parallel) procedure the receiver(s) will

Answer 24

D. A and C

A. Be established at 1000 ft below the assigned base AAR altitude when departing the RVIP

C. Aid the RV, when so equipped, by remaining in electronic contact on radar, A/A TACAN, TCAS or other means as soon as possible, but no later than 50 NM range or the RVIP, whichever occurs first

Question 25

AAR Pre‐departure Fuel Planning: Determine the minimum on‐load required. Vary the AAR on‐load amount until the _________ fuel or __________ fuel reaches zero, whichever occurs first. That amount is the minimum on‐load required.

Answer 25

STORED and UNID EXTRA

Question 26

In the event of loss of visual contact with the tanker in either the contact or astern position (or astern position following a breakaway),

Answer 26

D.) ALL THE ABOVE

A. Immediately disconnect (if appropriate), transition to instruments, make the radio call “(Callsign) loss of visual contact”, and slow 10 knots
B. Hold tanker heading (if already straight and level) and descend 1000 ft; resume normal speed after 30 seconds
C. Roll wings level (if the tanker is turning) and descend 1000 ft; when stable turn on tanker’s heading; resume normal speed after 30 seconds
D. All of the above

Question 27

During a breakaway, the receiver will drop aft of the tanker until

Answer 27

The entire tanker is in sight

Question 28

[Block 21C] Activating a missed approach procedure prior to using TOGA (DIR‐TO) _______________…. Activating the missed approach procedure using TOGA does not.

Answer 28

Deletes intervening waypoints

Question 29

[Block 21] The SC/EFC includes a fixed gains mode that is automatically enabled in the event of air data loss.

When the SCEFC FIXED GAIN mode is enabled, asymmetric outboard spoiler deflections are locked out and only symmetric spoiler deflections are com

Answer 29

True

Question 30

[Block 21] Pressing the SPD NAV pushbutton engages/disengages Speed Intervention if selected while in _________ with the NAV SEL Switch not in SKE.

Answer 30

MSN VNAV

Question 31

[Block 21] The value in the AFCS Altitude Window is displayed in both feet and ________ on the MCD’s CONVERT FEET/______ page

Answer 31

meters and meters

i’ve literally never seen this page…. the heck?

Question 32

Select engine anti‐ice on when temperature (SAT) is ____ degrees C or below and icing conditions exist.

Answer 32

10° degrees or less

Question 33

If excessive ice formations remain on the aircraft after climbing through an icing layer, level off and increase airspeed to obtain at least _____ degrees or higher

Answer 33

+10 °C TAT

Question 34

(Cold weather/ ground icing conditions) Use of auto throttles for takeoff is strongly encouraged. If an EPR probe icing condition should occur, the auto throttles will ignore the erroneous EPR and maintain the correct power setting via computed throttle lev…..

Answer 34

True

Question 35

(IRCM) The laser is invisible and can injure eyes or skin within _____ feet for a single aft turret or _____ feet if the two forward turrets are installed.

Answer 35

187 feet single and 200 feet w/ two forward turrets

Question 36

With no source of electrical power to the aircraft and the battery switch OFF, only the __________ bus is powered since it is connected directly to the batteries.

Answer 36

Battery Direct Bus

Question 37

The electrical system is normally operated in the ____ mode with generators No. 1 and No. 2 supplying left side power and generators No. 3 and No. 4 supplying right side power

Answer 37

Split‐parallel

Question 38

The battery switch must be ON to provide battery power to the __________ buses.

Answer 38

Emergency buses

Question 39

As a minimum, the batteries are designed to provide emergency power for up to ____ of operation

Answer 39

One half‐hour

Question 40

The aircraft batteries provide power to the __________ which provides power to the AC Emergency Bus

Answer 40

Static inverter

Question 41

OBIGGS II: If there is a total loss of electrical power during high pressure pneumatic air supply operation, ___________ may result. Immediately shut down the pneumatic cart.

Answer 41

Fuselage fire

Question 42

During engine start, ensure engine oil pressure is a minimum of ______ psi before turning the ENG SHUT OFF switch to on.

Answer 42

5 psi

Question 43

If ENG OIL PRESS X asserts on the WAP during engine start and the pressure is greater than 5 psi, you should do what…

Answer 43

Monitor oil pressure until idle is achieved and evaluate

Question 44

Once an engine is stabilized at idle following a start, what is the normal fuel flow?

Answer 44

800 – 1200 pph

Question 45

Low EGT margin engines are more susceptible to ENG EGT X alerts on the WAP when OAT is at or above ____ and thrust is at or near maximum thrust?

Answer 45

24 °C (75 °F)

Question 46

THRUST LOSS annunciator lights (amber) will illuminate in flight when thrust of a single engine is ______ less than the average EPR of the remaining engines.

Answer 46

0.15 EPR

Question 47

In the event of boost pump failure, fuel can be suction fed by the engine driven fuel pump at ____ thrust rating up to an altitude of ____ ft and at a pitch angle no greater than 21.5 degrees

Answer 47

MAX and 10,000

Question 48

The starter is designed to start the engine with normal starting loads. Excessive loads are applied when the engine driven hydraulic pumps are on. A ______ may result if the pumps are on during engine start.

Answer 48

Hung Start

Question 49

Engine Start Buttons: The button will stay in until engine N2 RPM reaches approximately _____ percent.

Answer 49

51% N2

Question 50

If FIREX AGENT DISCHARGE 1 POWER CB on the __________ is open, the ___________will be inoperative.

Answer 50

Overhead panel / APU Fire Agent DISCH switch

Question 51

Engine anti‐ice provides icing protection to the engine fan blades

Answer 51

False

Question 52

Do not change the ENGINE IGNITION source during engine start. Switching sources may result in a ___________.

Answer 52

Tailpipe fire

Question 53

[ pertaining to pretty much all scenarios where you want to use reverse thrust ] To prevent damage to the reverse interlock solenoids, do not move the throttle levers beyond the reverse idle detent until

Answer 53

Either the REV indication is illuminated on the MFD’s or until the solenoids are heard to release

ie: until you hear the click or see X blue rev icons

Question 54

If the starter valve will not close after engine start (light remains illuminated more than 30 seconds after the button pops out), which of the following actions could result in a starter failure?

Answer 54

Shutting down the engine before removing the bleed air supply

Question 55

Delay engine starter re‐engagement for ____ seconds once N2 RPM indication is lost from the MFD engine display to ensure that engine rotation has stopped

Answer 55

40 seconds

Question 56

In addition to an engine fire and disintegration, the EMERGENCY ENGINE SHUTDOWN Checklist will be run with ____

Answer 56

D. All of the above

A. Seizure
B. Engine sparking (continuous)
C. Engine/pylon fuel leak (on the ground)
D. All of the above

Question 57

If an engine reverts to the N2 mode, all engine responses are normal except ____

Answer 57

That no overspeed protection is provided

Question 58

If the N1 RPM indication drops to zero or all displays are blank, what could this indicate?

Answer 58

This could indicate a catastrophic engine failure

Question 59

A Four Engine Flameout is likely to occur when flying through what?

Answer 59

D. All the above

A. Heavy rain
B. Hail and icing
C. Volcanic ash
D. All of the above

Question 60

Four Engine Flameout: Wings level C‐17 glide ratio is _____.

Answer 60

2.6 NM/1000 ft

Question 61

BLK 17E‐BLK 18‐>: Engine Failure During Takeoff: The MC calculates three engine climb gradient capability based on the use of_____ power, regardless of the selected takeoff EPR. After liftoff increase power on operating engines to _____ thrust as required.

Answer 61

MAX and MAX

Question 62

If experiencing severe engine vibration during flight…

Answer 62

Immediately shut down the engine using the Emergency Engine Shutdown Checklist

Question 63

There is a maximum of ____ engine start attempts in one hour, followed by a ____ minimum cooling period

Answer 63

5 attempts / hour

1 hour cooling period

Question 64

Engine rotation will be completely stopped before the starter is re‐engaged. The exception to this is in an emergency the starter may be re‐engaged after N2 RPM has decreased below____

Answer 64

20% N2

Question 65

The maximum time limit at MAX/DRT thrust is ____ minutes when not needed for engine failure on takeoff, or engine out go‐around for obstacle clearance

Answer 65

5 minutes

Question 66

Maximum EGT for engine start is ______ degrees (ground) and ______ degrees (air)

Answer 66

495° ground and 655° in flight

Question 67

The recommended minimum airspeed for in‐flight reverse thrust is ______ or Vmma, whichever is higher.

Answer 67

250 kts

Question 68

If flight through contaminated air is experienced with the air conditioning pack(s) operating, the conditioned airflow used for avionics cooling ____

Answer 68

Will be contaminated

Question 69

If the ambient temperatures are above ____ , avionics cooling air flow must be supplied from conditioned air augmentation (APU or air conditioner ground unit)

Answer 69

90 degrees F

Question 70

Pitch Reference Trim is available ____

Answer 70

D. B and C

B. With the FCS ACTR Panel PITCH TRIM switch in EFCS
C. With the FCS ACTR Panel PITCH TRIM switch in MECH

Question 71

If the ________________ fails, automatic ground spoilers may not deploy during a rejected takeoff or subsequent landing.

Answer 71

GND SPLR/LAPES switch

Question 72

In frontside flight the default or basic mode for the AFCS pitch axis is the ____ mode

Answer 72

Vertical Speed/Altitude Hold

Question 73

The Alpha Speed function provides flight guidance and/or control to limit minimum airspeed to configuration Alpha Speed, which provides safe buffet or stall margin for the existing aircraft configuration (flaps, slats, thrust level, weight and altitude).

Answer 73

True

too long to be wrong

Question 74

When the FPV drift angle exceeds the limit of the HUD or PFD field of view, pitch information from the flashing FPV is ___________ and only the ________ FPV symbol will provide correct vertical path information.

Answer 74

Unusable and caged

Question 75

The Stall Warning System provides stick shaker and aural “STALL” alerts to pilots when flight conditions (airspeed) approach what range?

Answer 75

1.05 ‐ 1.15 Vs

Question 76

Which action will not re‐arm spoilers for RTO mode during touch and go landings

Answer 76

Moving all four throttles to the idle reverse detent.

Question 77

(IRCM) Ground operations longer than ____ minutes with the outside air temperature above 38 degrees C / 100 degrees F may result in TX x FAIL and degraded IRCM performance

Answer 77

25 minutes

Question 78

[ What should you do ] If takeoff roll or initial climbout is accompanied by unusual aircraft yaw motion or abnormal rudder movement…. the EFCS may have reverted to FROZEN GAINS…. [ so do what now? ]

Answer 78

D. All of the above

A. Prior to Vgo, a reject is recommended
B. If takeoff is continued, repeatedly press EFCS RESET, allowing 1 second between button presses.
C. Transition to FCC FIXED GAIN is not available until Weight‐off‐wheels and A/R Mode is not engaged
D. All of the above

Question 79

(FCC FIXED GAIN) Large abrupt rudder inputs at speeds over ___ KCAS can overstress the vertical stabilizer and rudders

Answer 79

200 kts

Question 80

The maximum airspeed for extending the slats is ____; for retracting is ____

Answer 80

280 kts extending

270 kts retracting

Question 81

If a stall occurs

Answer 81

D. All of the above

A. Apply smooth, but positive forward stick
B. Increase thrust to MAX and retract speedbrakes (if required)
C. Roll input to level the wings
D. All of the above

Question 82

When the reported airfield temperature is ____ degrees C or above, the EFCS can revert to FROZEN GAINS.

Answer 82

43° Celsius

Question 83

If you encounter FROZEN GAINS, maintain airspeed within +/‐ ______ of the airspeed when FROZEN GAINS occurred.

Answer 83

30 KCAS

Question 84

TRUE/FALSE If stabilized on approach speed and you encounter FROZEN GAINS, land in FROZEN GAINS.

Answer 84

TRUE

land that beezy and talk about it later

Question 85

What is the fuel allowance for a typical approach and landing?

Answer 85

3,800 lbs

Question 86

The desired fuel imbalance between left and right wings is _____ pounds and between inboard and outboard tanks is _______ pounds.

Answer 86

1,000 lbs and 1,000 lbs

Question 87

If an individual fuel tank indicator on the overhead is inoperative, the totalizer shows

Answer 87

Correct total fuel

Question 88

When fuel quantities drop below approximately ____ lbs for the inboard tanks and ____ lbs for the outboard tanks, the respective transfer pumps become uncovered and ineffective

Answer 88

28,000 lbs inboard

12,000 lbs outboard

Question 89

Fuel dump above ____ feet may cause engine flameout due to loss of fuel pressure

Answer 89

20,000 feet

Question 90

Normally fuel dump is accomplished with the center separation valve closed. Confirm that both lights illuminate OR…….

Answer 90

Open the separation valve immediately

Question 91

OBIGGS II with ASM ALERT WCC(s) will fail when electrically powered for greater than _____ continuous hours with both left and right OBIGGS systems selected OFF or Failed/Disabled

Answer 91

17 continuous hours

Question 92

GPWS Mode 4C (gear down, flaps 1/2 detent or less and below 500 feet radar altitude) is inoperative when ____.

Answer 92

TACTICAL mode is selected

Question 93

During taxi with speed greater than 20 knots with symmetric thrust (15 knots with asymmetric thrust), a 20 degree nose wheel steering angle limit applies if gross weight exceeds ____ lbs or with more than ____ lbs of fuel.

Answer 93

490,000 lbs gross weight

          OR

165,000 lbs of fuel

Question 94

The maximum taxi speed for paved taxiways is ____ knots; maximum taxiway speed for semi‐prepared taxiways is ____ knots with gross weight/fuel weight less than or equal to 435,000/82,000 lbs respectively.

Answer 94

40 kts on paved

30 kts semi-prepared

Question 95

Minimum runway/taxiway widths for C‐17 operations are:

Answer 95

90 ft runway

50 ft taxiway

Question 96

Do not taxi an aircraft within ___ feet of obstructions without wing walkers monitoring clearance between aircraft and obstructions. With wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least ___ feet.

Answer 96

25 feet of obstructions w/o

10 feet at least w/ wing walkers

Question 97

From the left seat an imaginary line drawn from the row of rivets inside the number ___ engine cowling at approximately the ___ o’clock position closely identifies 25‐foot wingtip clearance

Answer 97

Number 1 engine

4 o’clock position

Question 98

Taxi Centerline References: While taxiing the aircraft straight ahead, the position of the nosewheel is approximated by __________.

Answer 98

D. all of the above

A. the inboard screw of the heads‐up display (HUD)
B. the inboard leg of the pilot flying (PF)
C. the first inboard dot of the lateral deviation indicator in the HUD
D. all of the above

Question 99

On a dry surface with symmetric engine thrust and no differential braking, the aircraft can execute a 180‐degree turn in _____ feet

Answer 99

143 feet

Question 100

True or False. Operating engines in idle reverse thrust for extended periods during high OAT’s may cause one or more engine FIREX bottles to discharge uncommanded?

Answer 100

TRUE

Question 101

The primary purpose of the transfer pump is to ____ in the event of No. 2 or No. 3 engine loss

Answer 101

C. Both A and B

A. Assist in cargo door/ramp closing
B. Assist in landing gear retraction

Question 102

The HSC determines the on demand pump operation in the following sequence of priority for hydraulic system No. 3

Answer 102

Primary, secondary, XFER, AUX pump

Question 103

Do not attempt takeoff with any hydraulic reservoir temperature indicating less than ____ degrees C. Low rudder temperature indicates insufficient rate of rudder deflection to correct for an engine failure on takeoff

Answer 103

+7° Celsius

Question 104

Primary flight controls are powered by how many hydraulic systems?

Answer 104

Two hydraulic systems

Question 105

If steering commands from the tillers and rudder pedals are in disagreement, which one takes priority?

Answer 105

The rudder command will be overridden, tiller takes priority.

Question 106

Which hydraulic system powers the normal brakes?

Answer 106

System No. 2

Question 107

If ground speed on the MFD ND appears excessive…

Answer 107

All four IRU’s should be realigned if on the ground

Question 108

In the event of large disparity between the IRU ground speed and the anti‐skid brake controller sensed ground speed, braking capability will be reduced. If in flight, accomplish the landing using ____ .

Answer 108

Landing With Erroneous Ground Speed procedure.

Question 109

What is the maximum airspeed allowable for extending the landing gear?

Answer 109

250 kts

Question 110

(Tire cord limits) The maximum wear limit (MWL) is defined as the exposure of the ______ cord layer plus _____ additional landings.

Answer 110

THIRD cord layer plus TWO additional landings

Question 111

True / False. After an MC Degraded Mode, the MC may generate extreme navigation errors, as indicated by PPOS‐related depictions shifting on the MFD. No sooner than 10 seconds after recovery from a Degraded Mode, perform a FLUSH ALL.

Answer 111

TRUE

too long to be wrong

Question 112

When checking the mission computer bus controller status in the Before Taxi Checklist, if MC1/MC2 are not in proper BC/BU configuration, _____________ may occur?

Answer 112

Permanent Degraded Mode

Question 113

A personnel restraining harness or parachute is required to be worn ____

Answer 113

When inspecting aircraft doors after an in‐flight door/hatch warning

Question 114

What is the aircraft configuration for an emergency descent?

Answer 114

Throttles ‐ IDLE or IDLE REV; Speed Brakes ‐ Deployed (As Required); Airspeed ‐ As Required

Question 115

If involved in a mishap or incident, pull the CVR power circuit breaker ____ ?

Answer 115

After landing and terminating the emergency

Question 116

The TO 1C‐17A‐1 provides __________operating instructions under __________ circumstances, but it is not a substitute for __________. Multiple emergencies, adverse weather, terrain, etc. may require modification of the procedures.

Answer 116

the best possible / most / sound judgement

Question 117

The C‐17A is a category _____ aircraft for turbulence. Air Force turbulence forecasts in TAFs and hazard charts are specified for category _____ aircraft.

Answer 117

The Moose is a cat III for turbulence

TAF’s and charts are for a cat II

Question 118

Wind component data displayed on the Map and Compass Formats of the MFDs display mission computer‐filtered solutions of air data over the past _____ seconds.

Answer 118

60 seconds

Question 119

When turbulence is encountered or expected, ________ ignition will be used.

Answer 119

A and B

Question 120

During a rejected takeoff ____

Answer 120

All four throttles to idle reverse, then only use symmetrical throttles beyond idle reverse.

Question 121

Which of the following results in an individual being declared NMR?

Answer 121

D. Any of the above.

A. Fail to maintain flying currency.
B. Fail to complete semi‐annual flying continuation training requirements
C. Fail to complete ground continuation training requirements
D. Any of the above.

Question 122

With the exception of missions launched from Alpha or Bravo alert or when self alerting, crew duty time and flight duty period both begin ____

Answer 122

When an aircrew reports for mission, briefing, or official duty

Question 123

The maximum flight duty period for a basic crew (including Basic +1) is ____ hours; for an augmented crew ____ hours

Answer 123

16 hours for a basic crew or basic +1

24 hours for and augmented crew

Question 124

True / False. Both pilots will VERIFY the intended changes prior to execution to include the correct mode is selected (e.g. ensure LNAV is selected when cleared to a point while on a heading).

Answer 124

TRUE

Question 125

Destination Requirements (for filing purposes): File two alternates when:

Answer 125

The forecast visibility (intermittent or prevailing) is less than published for the available DoD/NACO precision approach

Question 126

For RNAV approaches, ensure that the ________ is updating the MC position for civil approaches.

Answer 126

Selected GPS source

Question 127

True / False. MGPS loaded with PPS keys is authorized for sole‐source navigation in civil airspace. Refer to MAJCOM guidance

Answer 127

TRUE

Question 128

To select the IRU1/MGPS1 blended solution present position (PPOS) with CGPS containment for navigation, use the following configuration:

Answer 128

Pilot ID switch on (P) pilot side, CGPS UPDATE selected on LSK 2L of NAV SENSORS ‐ CONTROL page 6/7

Question 129

The cabin pressurization SEMI mode controls cabin pressure according to what?

Answer 129

The baro‐corrected altitude set in the LDG ALT‐FT display window

Question 130

When the CREW OXY LOW message illuminates on the WAP, it indicates what?

Answer 130

Oxygen quantity is less than 5 liters or supply pressure is below 60 +/‐ 5 psi

Question 131

(Assuming the aircraft has accelerated to 250 KCAS or VMSR) During a Standard Departure Profile, the PM will engage the desired climb power on the SED _______.

During the Alternate Departure Profile, the PM will engage the desired climb power on the SED _______

Answer 131

standard: when directed by the PF
alternate: when directed by the PF

Question 132

Pressing SC ZERO whenever the IRUs are in the ON position erases encryption keys, almanac and position information, forcing the __________ to reacquire. It will take much longer than normal on the next power up for the _________ to synchronize.

Answer 132

(M)GPS and (M)GPS

Question 133

For an RSC greater than _____ and an RCR less than _____, the actual runway required for takeoff/landing could exceed runway available.

Answer 133

RSC greater than .00

RCR less than 12

Question 134

Each successful FCC and SC/EFC preflight BITs (PFBIT) can be considered valid for a period of ____ hours provided FCC, SC/EFC, flight control or hydraulic system integrity have not been compromised during that time period. Reaccomplish the PFBIT if
maint….

Answer 134

72 Hours

Question 135

In general, address malfunctions in the following order:

Answer 135

Aural CAWS > MASTER WARNING > MASTER CAUTION > EFCS/MISSION STATUS page

Question 136

True / False. Land as soon as possible means a landing should be accomplished at the nearest suitable airfield, whereas land as soon as practical means landing at the nearest suitable airfield may not be necessary.

Answer 136

TRUE

too long to be wrong

Question 137

The following rules should be followed regarding circuit breakers

Answer 137

D. All of the above.

A. Do not reset or cycle any fuel pump circuit breaker.
B. Never pull and reset circuit breakers as a means to recover lost components unless directed to do so.
C. Except where prohibited by specific procedures, open circuit breakers may be reset once.
D. All of the above.

Question 138

Whenever using EFCS RESET, allow ___ seconds after pressing the button for the LRU to be reset and EFCS RESET to extinguish from the WAP, unless directed otherwise in the procedure

Answer 138

5 Seconds

Question 139

The warning bell signals for Crash Landing are: Immediately after takeoff ______ ring(s), Prepare for crash landing _____ ring(s), Brace for impact ________ ring(s).

Answer 139

After takeoff: one long
Prepare for crash landing: six short
Brace for impact: one long

Question 140

The Ground Evacuation checklist is designed to be run by ____________ for the Engines Not Running section and by ____________ for the Engines Running section.

Answer 140

engines not running: a single crew member

engines running: all crew members

Question 141

True / False. Prior to completing a critical action, the PM shall point to the affected switch/handle/lever and verbally seek confirmation from the PF.

Answer 141

TRUE

Question 142

The GROUND EVACUATION checklist is only located where?

Answer 142

In the Quick Reaction Guide (QRG)

Question 143

If entering a tactical environment immediately after takeoff, TACTICAL can be selected on the GPWS/TAWS CONTROL page, but the displays will not switch to tactical until the ____

Answer 143

D. Either A or B

A. Aircraft is farther than 15nm from the runway
B. Aircraft is above 1500 feet AGL

Question 144

(Thrust Reverser Status, 3L) When a SPAM runway is selected for emergency return or landing, the MC adds another thrust reverser selection for four engines (4ENG). 4ENG assumes what?

Answer 144

all four engines operating and in maximum reverse thrust

Question 145

True / False. When operating into semi‐prepared runways, aircrews must input the numerical rolling friction factor (RFF) into the mission computer to calculate take‐off data prior to landing.

Answer 145

TRUE

Question 146

Time Control: If there are no waypoints between the top and bottom of descent, expect to be one minute early/late per ______ feet of descents/climbs, respectively.

Answer 146

Per 10,000 feet of climb / descent

Question 147

Time Control (high altitude): Take _____ percent of TAS to determine how long a 360‐degree turn will take in minutes .

Answer 147

1% of TAS

Question 148

____ terrain masking is placing terrain behind the aircraft so it is difficult to distinguish the aircraft from the background. ____ terrain masking is putting the terrain between the aircraft and the threat

Answer 148

Indirect: putting shit behind you to mask you from threat

Direct: using the shit as a physical barrier from threat

Question 149

Time Control (low altitude): Turn _____ degrees off course for 1 minute, then turn back to course on a _____degree intercept for 1 minute. This allows the crew to intercept the original course and lose 1 minute.

Answer 149

60° off course for 1 minute….. then re-intercept back using the same 60° intercept for another 1 minute

Question 150

For low‐altitude, level slowdowns, use __ of ground speed as a general rule of thumb. Add __ if above 280KCAS to allow time to configure.

Answer 150

Use 1% of ground speed……. add 1 NM to slowdown distance if above 280 kts

Question 151

What approximate descent gradient can be obtained flying 230 KCAS and configured with Slats and Speed Brakes?

Answer 151

525 ft/NM

Question 152

In a tactical environment, a ____ is an established reference point from which the position of an object can be referenced by bearing (Magnetic) and range (NM)

Answer 152

BULLSEYE

Question 153

Weather minimums for NVG departures for crewmembers who are non‐current and/or unqualified is ______. Current and qualified NVG aircrews may fly NVG departures weather down to _____ (OG/CC or equivalent may approve down to _____)

Answer 153

non-current: 1500/3 (VFR)

current / qualified: 600/2

OG/CC or equivalent waiver: 300/1

Question 154

NVG Training: Maximum crosswind for takeoff or landing is __________ for runways 90‐120 feet wide.

Answer 154

15 kts

Question 155

To back the C‐17 when all four engines overhang a prepared surface, ________.

Answer 155

Stagger the outboard throttles 1/4 to 3/4 knob width relative to the inboard throttles, with the outboards providing greater reverse thrust (frowney face)

Question 156

To back the C‐17 when any outboard engine overhangs an unprepared or debris covered surface, with inboard engines completely over a prepared debris‐free surface ___________.

Answer 156

Modulate reverse thrust on the inboard engines while holding outboard throttles at or near idle reverse (smiley face)

Question 157

If a GPWS/TAWS aural or visual warning is received during an approach in Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC), __________. Exceptions will be annotated in command guidance.

Answer 157

Execute a missed approach or go around

Question 158

The F/D Traffic Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) SUBMODE is engaged by pressing the ____ when a TCAS Resolution Advisory (RA) is present and the A/R mode is not engaged.

Answer 158

AP disengage switch on either control stick

Question 159

A target aircraft is within 6NM and could be potentially hazardous. This is ____

Answer 159

A Traffic Advisory (TA)

Question 160

The PPI SKE and ND MAP formats depict only ____ altitudes for TCAS traffic.

Answer 160

Relative

Question 161

The Standard Departure Profile uses a select MC data element, __________, and aero performance data, rather than an MC calculated solution, to validate the aircraft flight path meets or exceeds a given climb gradient when flown as published.

Answer 161

MC COF: ACT

Question 162

BLOCK 19‐>: Use the lower of the following two altitudes to determine the planned 3‐engine acceleration altitude:

Answer 162

Lower of MC ACC ALT and MIN IFR Altitude

Question 163

True / False. During high ambient air temperatures and reverse idle conditions, primary TOLD and allowable cargo load calculations may be overly restrictive. Use secondary TOLD to compare against primary TOLD to determine if allowable cargo load is overly restrictive.

Answer 163

TRUE

too long to be wrong

Question 164

If AGS does not deploy on landing, DLC spoilers are available to manually deploy _____ of AGS effectiveness.

Answer 164

25%

Question 165

Intermediate Thrust Rating (INT) is ____. This is the recommended rating for engine‐out climbs.

Answer 165

The maximum thrust certified for continuous use

Question 166

Maximum Continuous Thrust (MCT) rating is ____.

Answer 166

The maximum thrust recommended for normal climb operation

Question 167

Go speed (VGO) is the lowest of _____, _____, or _____.

Answer 167

VROT and VR and VBMAX

Question 168

True / False. The aircraft static air temperature shall not be used for takeoff calculation since heat radiation picked up by the sensing element can cause considerable error. Using an incorrect temperature may result in an unsafe takeoff.

Answer 168

TRUE

too long to be wrong

Question 169

A lineup distance penalty must be applied anytime the takeoff is not commenced from the beginning of the usable runway. Apply a standard distance of ____ feet to account for turning the aircraft around on the runway or accessing the runway from a taxiway.

Answer 169

250 feet

Question 170

MC TOLD: If VBO LDG DIST exceeds __________ and LDG DIST is valid, VBO LDG DIST is highlighted and VBO LD DIST/nnn.nGW (MSG) is generated. If VBO GND ROLL exceeds __________ and GND ROLL is valid, VBO GND ROLL is highlighted and VBO GD
ROLL/nnn.nGW (MSG

Answer 170

RWY AVAIL and RWY AVAIL

Question 171

[Block 19D] MC ACC ALT calculations may allow level‐off acceleration altitudes well below obstacle/climb gradient altitudes. Compliance with ___________ is essential in achieving computed performance capability.

Answer 171

Climb out procedures

Question 172

For ¾ flap precision approaches with glide path angles steeper than 3.2 degrees, increase landing distance by _____ feet and do not exceed _____ feet per minute descent rate.

Answer 172

Increase by 300 feet and do not exceed 900 fpm descent rate

Question 173

For full flap precision approaches (non‐assault) with glide path angles between 3.8 degrees and the MC calculated full flap approach angle, increase landing distance by _____ feet. This can be accomplished in the MC by reducing runway available by _____

Answer 173

increase by 600 feet. This can be accomplished by reducing runway available by 600 feet.

Question 174

[Block 19D] The MC uses _____________ thrust to compute ACC ALT, including when evaluating three engine climb gradients.

Answer 174

The selected takeoff thrust

Question 175

True / False. (Block 17E‐19D) When landing with a tailwind on a runway with either an RCR of 6 to 22 or an RSC greater than 0, you must correct the landing distance in accordance with checklist procedures.

Answer 175

TRUE

too long to be wrong

Question 176

When taking off from an airfield with a pressure altitude over ________ feet, review Operations at High Altitude Airports procedures in Section VII.

Answer 176

8,000 feet

Question 177

After an in‐flight Degraded Mode, the MC re‐enables ____________________, which will assert during subsequent touch‐and‐go landings or go‐around‐after‐touchdowns.

Answer 177

Takeoff warnings (“FLAPS,” “STABILIZER,” etc.)

Question 178

If ALS is flashing when the aircraft reference symbol representing aircraft pitch attitude is within _____ degrees of the flight path, the ALS is erroneously activating.

Answer 178

8 degrees

Question 179

During touch and go landings, takeoff warnings are inhibited.

Answer 179

TRUE

Question 180

Flight through extremely heavy rain, particularly with low thrust settings (< 45% N1)

Answer 180

May result in flameout of one or more engines

Question 181

____ should be used for flight in known or anticipated turbulent air.

Answer 181

Engine ignition

the heck? Does it mean A and B or just A or B? this question is for the fishes… dops the mic and walks out

Question 182

During wind shear recovery, unless a sink rate exists, do not exceed ____ degrees of pitch below ____ feet

Answer 182

15° of pitch below 200 feet AGL

Question 183

If icing conditions are present, engine anti‐ice must be used continously to help prevent _______________.

Answer 183

Engine damage due to ice ingestion

Question 184

Takeoff will not be attempted with over ____ inch(es) of slush or water, over ____ inch(es) of wet snow, or over ____ inch(es) of dry snow on the runway.

Answer 184

1/2 inches of slush / water

1 inch of wet snow

4 or more inches of dry snow

Question 185

Failure to periodically perform the ground ice shedding procedure can result in damage to the engines. If more than ___ minutes have expired since engine start and icing conditions persist, delay takeoff until the procedure is accomplished

Answer 185

15 minutes

Question 186

Under no circumstance will flights be planned through ____ icing conditions. Aircraft operation in ____ icing conditions may be tolerated for short periods of time but evasive action should be undertaken to exit icing conditions as soon as practicable

Answer 186

Forecast or known severe icing

Moderate may be tolerated for short periods

Question 187

If icing conditions are expected during the descent, engine anti‐ice, wing anti‐ice, and windshield anti‐ice will be turned on at least _____ feet above the expected icing level in order to provide adequate warm up time.

Answer 187

10,000 feet above

Question 188

The Pre‐Takeoff Contamination Check is required if holdover time has expired or if freezing precipitation is occurring on an aircraft that was not anti‐iced. The contamination check must be completed from OUTSIDE the aircraft within ___ minutes prior to takeoff.

Answer 188

5 minutes

Question 189

Fluid Holdover Times: The C‐17 is considered a(n) __________ aircraft.

Answer 189

Aluminium

Question 190

Weather Minimums for Takeoff: What minimum visibility is required to depart on an operational mission in the absence of RVR readout?

Answer 190

D. B or C

B. ½ mile
C. 800 meters

Question 191

During flight, avoid thunderstorm activity by any means available by at least ____ NM at or above FL 230 and ____ NM below FL 230

Answer 191

20 NM above FL230

10 NM below FL230

Question 192

(APS‐150): What mode would be selected on the Radar Control Panel to see rainfall inside/behind areas of turbulence?

Answer 192

WX MAN

Question 193

APS‐150 Weather Radar: For an aircraft cruising at or above 29,000 feet, when will existing weather be depicted as non‐relevant (striped)?

Answer 193

D. A and B

A. When actual weather is not within +/‐ 4,000 feet relative to aircraft’s actual/projected altitude
B. When actual weather is below 25,000 feet

Question 194

APS150: The Magenta areas represent areas of ____________ turbulence and should always be avoided.

Answer 194

Moderate to Severe

Question 195

True / False. (Airdrop) Loading the GPS keys improves SKE performance

Answer 195

TRUE

Question 196

(Airdrop) Maximum troop door opening airspeed is _____.

Answer 196

250 KCAS/Mach 0.62

Question 197

(Airdrop) If excessive crosstrack (greater than ______) is predicted at 15 seconds prior to the CARP/HARP, the CAWS annunciates “AUTO DROP,” and the AUTO DROP annunciator on the instrument panel illuminates.

Answer 197

300 yards

Question 198

(Airdrop) Formation takeoff minimums are no lower than a ____ ceiling and ____ mile(s) visibility. Formation landing minimums are ____

Answer 198

Formation Takeoff minimums: 200 ft 1/2 mile

Formation Landing minimums: published minimums for the airport.

Question 199

(Airdrop) Lead will announce unplanned airspeed changes of ____ knots or more.

Answer 199

10 kts or more

Question 200

(Airdrop) (Formation Holding Pattern, Holding Pattern in Lieu of Procedure Turn, or Procedure Turn Pattern) During formation recoveries lead….

Answer 200

D. All of the above

A. Will enter a minimum of 1,000 feet above procedure turn or GCA pickup altitude
B. Will not enter from the quadrant requiring a turn to the non‐maneuvering side
C. Will not fly 45/180 ground tracks
D. All of the above

Question 201

(Airdrop) Offset PIs are computed from the surveyed center PI. When used, a ___ yard left/right offset will be used for 3‐ship operations and a ___ yard left/right offset will be used for 2‐ship operations.

Answer 201

250 and 125

Question 202

(Airdrop) For jumpmaster‐directed airdrops, the PF must establish drop altitude and airspeed early (normally __ minutes prior to green light). At approximately __ until scheduled drop time, the loadmaster permits the jumpmaster to begin spotting
procedure

Answer 202

2; 2; 1

Question 203

(Airdrop) (Formation En Route Altitude Changes) For climbs and descents greater than 2,000 feet, use _____ FPM (or previous rate if lower). For 2,000 feet or less, use _____ FPM (or previous rate if lower).

Answer 203

2,000 fpm for greater than 2,000 foot changes

1,000 fpm for less than 2,000 foot changes

Question 204

(Airdrop) The minimum formation takeoff interval is ____ seconds.

Answer 204

30 seconds

Question 205

(Airdrop) For visual‐in‐trail formation slowdowns, the desired spacing is ____ feet between element leads (_____ feet between all aircraft).

Answer 205

6,000 feet between element leads

2,000 feet between all aircraft

Question 206

(Airdrop) (Visual Formation Airdrop) For drift angles of ____ degree(s), wingmen adjust their lateral formation position to maintain the same relative ground track as the element lead over the DZ, avoiding wake turbulence from the preceding aircraft.

Answer 206

4 and greater

Question 207

(Airdrop) (Personnel Formation Airdrop Escape) If required to move back to en route crosstrack, delay post drop maneuvering to en route visual or SKE XTRK position until end of usable DZ (MC Red Light) and “load clear.”

Answer 207

TRUE

too long to be wrong

Question 208

(Airdrop) The Quick Drop Checklist may be used for:

Answer 208

A subsequent CDS airdrop when the cargo door and ramp remain open between passes

Question 209

(Airdrop) Block 18 ‐ 19D. Airdrop with ____ selected on the MCD’s NAV SENSORS‐CONTROL PAGE will cause numerous UNABLE RNP messages to annunciate.

Answer 209

CGPS

Question 210

(Airdrop) During the airdrop slowdown checklist, the SED thrust rating is selected to MAX if:

Answer 210

D. Both B. and C

B. Selecting ¾ or FULL flaps
C. Dropping heavy equipment platforms

Question 211

(Airdrop) _____________, especially with less than _______ feet spacing between aircraft, will increase the likelihood of nuisance SKE GPS DENIED messages

Answer 211

Unkeyed MGPS operation and 3,000 feet

Question 212

(Instructor) What are the requirements for a touch and go (IP in the seat)?

Answer 212

Runway length: 7,000’
Minimum ceiling and visibility: 300’ and ¾
Wet runway‐ RCR=12
Crosswind: 25 kts or less

Question 213

(Instructor) Training Flight Restrictions: What is the maximum brake temperature for Assault Landing Zone Operations (N/A to GOAT)?

Answer 213

150° C

Question 214

(Instructor) What is the altitude at which you must initiate a visual low approach and/or planned go around?

Answer 214

100 ft AGL

Question 215

(Instructor) For loss of currency up to 6 months, an aircrew member must demonstrate proficiency ____ in all delinquent items.

Answer 215

With an instructor (or ATS instructor for SIM creditable events)

Question 216

(Instructor) What are the procedures if the spoilers fail to automatically retract during a touch and go?

Answer 216

The PF advances the throttles to MAX and the PM will manually set the Spoilers switch to Off (dearm)

Question 217

(CHS) Charleston’s BASH Phase II Period is:

Answer 217

Implemented by 437 OG/CC (coordinated with 315 OG/CC) and announced by FCIF

Question 218

(CHS) Crews will obtain the Bird Watch Condition, if available, prior to:

Answer 218

D. Both A and B

A. Initial departure
B. Initial arrival

Question 219

(CHS) The AHAS Bird condition is Moderate, for a Military Training Route:

Answer 219

Crews will fly no faster that 250 knots on affected route segments

Question 220

(CHS) Practice circling approaches are not authorized between:

Answer 220

2200-0700 local

Question 221

(CHS) Avoid all downtown Charleston hospital complexes when flying VFR approaches to runway 33
below:

Answer 221

2,000’ MSL

Question 222

(CHS) Low levels on locally developed, non-FLIP low-level routes are approved at what altitude?

Answer 222

500’ AGL

Question 223

(CHS) When unable to avoid overflights of Santee Wildlife Refuge, fly no lower than:

Answer 223

2,000 AGL

Question 224

(CHS) If you are flying IR-035/IR-036 and the IR route will be terminated at North Field:

Answer 224

Be sure to cancel IFR with ATC

Question 225

(CHS) If there is an USAF LZSO in the tower at North Field a maximum of aircraft are allowed
in the pattern?

Answer 225

D. Both A and C

A. 2
C. One integral formation if traffic pattern deconfliction. landing separation and remarshaling plans are thoroughly briefed between the formation aircrews.

Question 226

(CHS) Contact Columbia Approach (124.15) if climbing above in the vicinity of North Field.

Answer 226

2500’ MSL

Question 227

(CHS) Crews are advised to file FL_____ or higher if transiting within 80 NM’s of CLT airspace.

Answer 227

FL 280

Question 228

(CHS) At JB Charleston, it is permissible for a crew to block themselves into or out of parking, without
wing walkers, while aircraft are parked adjacent to their parking location?

Answer 228

True, unless visibility is restricted

Question 229

(CHS) During reverse taxi operations, do not taxi within _____ of any obstruction.

Answer 229

25 ft with or without a marshaller/wing walker

Question 230

(CHS) When looking from the left seat, an imaginary line drawn from the 5 o’clock position of the #1
engine cowling approximates 25 feet of wingtip clearance.

Answer 230

FALSE. It is 10 feet of wingtip clearance.

Question 231

(CHS) If wingtip clearance is ever in doubt, the best course of action is to:

Answer 231

Deplane a crew member to verify wingtip clearance

Question 232

(CHS) During backing operations, if the LM says “Stop” or communication is lost:

Answer 232

Stop the aircraft immediately

Question 233

(CHS) A cross-cockpit 25 foot wingtip clearance reference is:

Answer 233

D. Both A and B

A. The large knob on the opposite HUD, if the HUD is in the up position is approximately 25 feet
B. Conservatively, the opposite side cockpit window knob

Question 234

(CHS) An approximate reference for the outer edge of the main landing gear is:

Answer 234

D. Both A and C

A. The top eighth of the window approximates the outboard side of the trucks
C. From the troop door, the LM can use the MLG door to approximate 3 ft of clearance

Question 235

(CHS) The painted boxes on the ramp at JB Charleston, provide _____ feet of wingtip clearance
provided all equipment is completely within the painted lines.

Answer 235

10 feet

Question 236

(CHS) True / False. When flying the overhead pattern at North Field the pilot flying will make a level break at
1800’MSL

Answer 236

TRUE

Question 237

(CHS) VOR/DME/TACAN/GPS Runway 21. In order to prevent noise complaints and damage to Medway Plantation at the Naval Weapons Station, crews are asked to delay descent to FAF altitudeor below 1600’ until established on final and inside _____ NM:
Inflight Guide page 14

Answer 237

8 DME

Question 238

(CHS) True / False. It is imperative that crews on operational missions relay all information of unusual occurrences, aircraft damage, or waiver requests through their squadron operations officer and or stan/eval offices.

Answer 238

TRUE

Question 239

(CHS) Maintenance will provide a (an) _____ at every jet at crew show or APEX loading time (whichever is earlier) and should have the aircraft powered up with external power. Maintenance will also provide an air conditioning/heater unit (if available) when outside air temperature is less than _____ or greater than_____ .

Answer 239

power cart / 50°F / 80°F

Question 240

(CHS) Aircrew will start the APU approximately _____ minutes prior to engine start to accomplish SCEFC and FCC hydraulic preflight tests and, after landing, will delay APU start until approximately _____ minutes from block in.

Answer 240

15 minutes prior to engine start

4 minutes prior to block-in