Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

BZF E > BZF E > Flashcards

BZF E Flashcards

1
Q

Which international organisation is of particular importance to the aeronautical radio service worldwide?

A. NATO
B. IATA
C. UNESCO
D. ITU

A

A. ITU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the legal basis for the setting-up and operation of radio installations in the Federal Republic of Germany?

A. Telecommunications Act (TKG)
B. Convention on International Civil Aviation
C. Air Traffic Act (LuftVG)
D. Ordinance on the fitting of aircraft with navigational equipment

A

A. Telecommunications Act (TKG)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Who is responsible for frequency assignments for the operation of aeronautical stations and aircraft stations in the Federal Republic of Germany?

A. Aeronautical Authorities of the Lands (federal states)
B. Federal Network Agency (Bundesnetzagentur)
C. Air traffic service (DFS)
D. Federal Minister of the Interior

A

B. Federal Network Agency (Bundesnetzagentur)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Who requires an operator’s certificate to conduct radiotelephony communication?

A. Student pilot on board a training aircraft in the traffic circuit at a controlled aerodrome
B. Sport pilot in Class D airspace
C. Student pilot on board a training aircraft in the traffic circuit at an uncontrolled aerodrome
D. Operator of an aeronautical station used exclusively for transmitting flight regularity messages

A

B. Sport pilot in Class D airspace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Who does not need an operator’s certificate to perform radiotelephony communication?

A. Chief flying instructor at glider sites
B. Air traffic controller
C. Operator of a radio station with the call sign “RETRIEVER (RÜCKHOLER)”
D. Sport pilot in Class C airspace

A

C. Operator of a radio station with the call sign “RETRIEVER (RÜCKHOLER)”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Who does not need an operator’s certificate to perform radiotelephony communication?

A. Student pilot in the traffic circuit of aerodromes with controlled/uncontrolled air traffic control
B. Aviation Safety Oversight Officer
C. Chief flying instructor at an airfield
D. Air traffic controller

A

A. Student pilot in the traffic circuit of aerodromes with controlled/uncontrolled air traffic control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The “Radiotelephone Operator’s Restricted Certificate (BZF II)” entitles its holder to perform radiotelephony communication …

A. in the English language for VFR flights
B. for IFR flights
C. in the German and English language at any German aeronautical station
D. in the German language within the Federal Republic of Germany

A

D. in the German language within the Federal Republic of Germany

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The “Radiotelephone Operator’s Restricted Certificate (BZF II)” entitles its holder to perform radiotelephony communication …

A. for IFR flights
B. in the German language for VFR flights within the Federal Republic of Germany
C. in any of the ICAO languages for VFR flights
D. in the English language for VFR flights within the Federal Republic of Germany

A

B. in the German language for VFR flights within the Federal Republic of Germany

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which operator’s certificate is required to perform radiotelephony communication in German and English during a VFR flight?

A. No operator’s certificate required if the flight instructor has issued a written flight order
B. No operator’s certificate required since it is a VFR flight
C. BZF I
D. BZF II

A

C. BZF I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is an aircraft station? A station …

A. of the aeronautical mobile service on board an aircraft
B. of the aeronautical mobile service at an airfield
C. of the aeronautical mobile service at an international airport
D. on board an aircraft carrier

A

A. of the aeronautical mobile service on board an aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is an aeronautical station?

A. Station of the aeronautical fixed telecommunication service
B. Any station used to exchange radio messages
C. Land station in the aeronautical mobile service. In certain instances it may be located on board ship or on a platform at sea
D. Station of the aeronautical telecommunication service located on land or on board a ship for the exchange of radio messages

A

C. Land station in the aeronautical mobile service. In certain instances it may be located on board ship or on a platform at sea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does the term “BLIND TRANSMISSION” mean?

A. Transmission of aeronautical information that is not addressed to a specific receiving station
B. Transmission of a message to the air traffic service in cases where radio contact cannot be established
C. Transmission of meteorological and flight operational information to aircraft over the high seas or deserts beyond the radio coverage of VHF aeronautical stations
D. Radio message to be repeated by the receiving station

A

B. Transmission of a message to the air traffic service in cases where radio contact cannot be established

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does the term “GENERAL CALL” mean?

A. Stations in the aeronautical mobile service may simultaneously call all stations maintaining listening watch on a frequency
B. Communication whose receipt has to be acknowledged
C. Radiotelephony communication from an aeronautical station to a specific aircraft station
D. Transmission of reports on meteorological phenomena which could affect the safety of flight operations, intended for one or more specific stations

A

A. Stations in the aeronautical mobile service may simultaneously call all stations maintaining listening watch on a frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does the term “HOLDING POINT” mean?

A. Unmarked position in the parking area for general aviation
B. A designated position intended to protect a runway, an obstacle limitation surface at which taxiing aircraft and vehicles shall stop and hold
C. Marked position on a runway where the take-off run is commenced
D. Marked parking area on the apron of a commercial airport

A

B. A designated position intended to protect a runway, an obstacle limitation surface at which taxiing aircraft and vehicles shall stop and hold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which abbreviation is used for the term “CONTROL ZONE”?

A. CTA
B. CTZ
C. CTR
D. CZ

A

C. CTR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does the abbreviation “IMC” mean?

A. Visual Flight
B. Instrument Flight
C. Visual Meteorological Conditions
D. Instrument Meteorological Conditions

A

D. Instrument Meteorological Conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does the abbreviation “FIR” mean?

A. Flight Information Region
B. Flight Information Requested
C. Flight Information Radar
D. Flight Information Received

A

A. Flight Information Region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does the abbreviation “H24” mean?

A. Sunset to sunrise
B. Altitude 2400 feet
C. Continuous day and night service
D. No specific working hours

A

C. Continuous day and night service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does the abbreviation “HX” mean?

A. Continuous day and night service
B. No specific working hours
C. Altitude not specified
D. Sunrise to sunset

A

B. No specific working hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does the abbreviation “HJ” mean?

A. Sunrise to sunset
B. Sunset to sunrise
C. No specific working hours
D. Continuous day and night service

A

A. Sunrise to sunset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does the abbreviation “AIS” mean?

A. All-weather Information System
B. General Information Centre
C. Airport Information System
D. Aeronautical Information Services

A

D. Aeronautical Information Services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does the abbreviation “SAR” mean?

A. Secondary Approach Radar
B. “STOP AT THE TAXI HOLDING POINT”
C. Search and Rescue
D. Standard Approach Route

A

C. Search and Rescue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which abbreviation is used for the term “COORDINATED UNIVERSAL TIME”?

A. Z time
B. UTC
C. GMT
D. CUT

A

B. UTC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What does the abbreviation “ATIS” mean?

A. Automatic Terminal Information Service
B. Automatic Information System
C. Air Traffic Information Service
D. Airport Terminal Information Service

A

A. Automatic Terminal Information Service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What does the Q Code “QFE” mean?

A. Altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain elevation when on ground
B. Atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation or at runway threshold
C. Atmospheric pressure in reference to a point on the surface of Earth
D. Atmospheric pressure in reference to the highest fixed obstacle at an aerodrome

A

B. Atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation or at runway threshold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What does the Q Code “QNH” mean?

A. Atmospheric pressure in reference to the highest obstacle at an aerodrome
B. Atmospheric pressure measured at the aerodrome reference point
C. Atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation or at runway threshold
D. Altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain aerodrome elevation when on the ground

A

D. Altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain aerodrome elevation when on the ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

If you want the altimeter to indicate the altitude above MSL, which atmospheric pressure shall the altimeter be set to?

A. QNH
B. QUJ
C. QFE
D. QDM

A

A. QNH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

If you want the altimeter to indicate the height above aerodrome, which atmospheric pressure shall the altimeter be set to?

A. QDR
B. QNH
C. QTE
D. QFE

A

D. QFE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What does the Q Code “QDM” mean?

A. True bearing from the station
B. Magnetic heading to the station
C. True heading to the station (zero wind)
D. Magnetic bearing from the station

A

B. Magnetic heading to the station

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the Q Code for “MAGNETIC HEADING TO THE STATION”?

A. QNE
B. QDR
C. QDM
D. QTE

A

C. QDM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What does the Q Code “QDR” mean?

A. Magnetic bearing from the station
B. Magnetic heading to the station (zero wind)
C. True bearing/position line from the station
D. True heading to the station

A

A. Magnetic bearing from the station

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the Q Code for “MAGNETIC BEARING FROM THE STATION”?

A. QFE
B. QDR
C. QDM
D. QTE

A

B. QDR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are Messages Relating to Direction Finding? Messages which …

A. transmit QNH values
B. transmit direction finding values to provide navigational assistance
C. relate to the failure of radio navigation equipment on board an aircraft
D. relate to the failure of radio navigation equipment on the ground

A

B. transmit direction finding values to provide navigational assistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

In order of priority, which type of message precedes a Flight Safety Message?

A. Flight Regularity Message
B. State Telegram
C. Meteorological Message
D. Messages Relating to Direction Finding

A

D. Messages Relating to Direction Finding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Messages transmitted while performing air traffic control are …

A. Flight Safety Messages
B. Flight Regularity Messages
C. Messages Relating to Direction Finding
D. Urgency Messages

A

A. Flight Safety Messages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

A message concerning the safety of an aircraft, any other vehicle or person on board is …

A. a Flight Regularity Message
B. an Urgency Message
C. a Distress Message
D. a Flight Safety Message

A

B. an Urgency Message

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

A message concerning aircraft parts urgently required is …

A. an Air Traffic Control Message
B. a Flight Safety Message
C. a Flight Regularity Message
D. an Urgency Message

A

C. a Flight Regularity Message

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which of the following messages are authorized in the aeronautical mobile service?

A. Teletype Messages
B. Messages from aircraft operators
C. Administrative Messages from the Aeronautical Authorities of the Lands (federal states)
D. Messages Relating to Direction Finding

A

D. Messages Relating to Direction Finding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

A pilot’s message to the control tower “ESTIMATED TIME OF ARRIVAL 1206, PLEASE CALL ME A TAXI” is …

A. an Urgency Message
B. an unauthorized message in the aeronautical mobile service
C. a Flight Safety Message
D. a Flight Regularity Message

A

B. an unauthorized message in the aeronautical mobile service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

A pilot’s message to the ATC service “REQUEST RADAR VECTORING TO CIRCUMFLY THE THUNDERSTORM” is …

A. a Flight Safety Message
B. a Meteorological Message
C. a Message Relating to Direction Finding
D. an Urgency Message

A

A. a Flight Safety Message

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The clearance “RUNWAY 05, CLEARED FOR TAKE-OFF” is …

A. an unauthorized message
B. a Flight Safety Message
C. an Urgency Message
D. a Flight Regularity Message

A

B. a Flight Safety Message

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The priority of a pilot’s message “REQUEST QDM” is …

A. higher than “CLEARED FOR TAKE-OFF”
B. same as “RUNWAY 32, CLEARED TO LAND”
C. lower than “REQUEST QNH”
D. lower than “CLIMB FLIGHT LEVEL 85”

A

A. higher than “CLEARED FOR TAKE-OFF”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The priority of the instruction “TAXI TO HOLDING POINT RUNWAY 12 VIA C” is …

A. higher than “CAUTION CONSTRUCTION WORK LEFT OF TAXIWAY G”
B. higher than “TRANSMIT FOR BEARING”
C. lower than “CLEARED TO LAND”
D. same as “LINE UP RUNWAY 05 AND WAIT”

A

D. same as “LINE UP RUNWAY 05 AND WAIT”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the correct way of transmitting the time in the aeronautical radio service if there is no possibility of confusion?

A. Hours and minutes
B. Minutes and seconds
C. Minutes, two digits
D. At discretion

A

C. Minutes, two digits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Numbers shall always be transmitted as single digits. Excepted from this regulation are …

A. designation of runways
B. bearings in terms of the 12-hour clock in case of traffic information
C. wind directions
D. headings

A

B. bearings in terms of the 12-hour clock in case of traffic information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the correct way of transmitting the number 4500?

A. four five hundred
B. four thousand five hundred
C. four five zero zero
D. four thousand five zero zero

A

B. four thousand five hundred

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the correct way of spelling the call sign DIJYF?

A. DELTA INDIA JULIETT YANKEE FOXTROT
B. DELTA YULIETT INDIA JANKEE FOXTROT
C. DELTA INDIA JULIETT YANKEE FOX
D. DELTA INDIA JANKEE YULIETT FOXTROT

A

A. DELTA INDIA JULIETT YANKEE FOXTROT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the correct way of transmitting “QNH 1001”?

A. QNH one nought nought one
B. QNH one thousand one
C. QNH one thousand and one
D. QNH one zero zero one

A

D. QNH one zero zero one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the correct way of transmitting the VHF frequency 120.275 MHz?

A. one twenty decimal two seven
B. one two zero decimal two seven
C. one two zero decimal two seven five
D. one two zero two seven five

A

C. one two zero decimal two seven five

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the correct way of transmitting the time 1318 in order to avoid any error or confusion?

A. thirteen one eight
B. thirteen eighteen
C. one three one eight
D. one eight past thirteen hours

A

C. one three one eight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the call sign of an aeronautical station at a controlled aerodrome for air traffic control on the manoeuvring area?

A. GROUND
B. INFORMATION
C. RADAR
D. TOWER

A

A. GROUND

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the call sign of an aeronautical station at a controlled aerodrome for air traffic control in the traffic circuit?

A. RETRIEVER (RÜCKHOLER)
B. TOWER
C. APRON
D. INFORMATION

A

B. TOWER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

The call signs of German aeronautical stations at an uncontrolled airfield comprise the name of the airfield plus the term:

A. AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL (FLUGLEITUNG)
B. TOWER (TURM)
C. AIR SUPERVISION (LUFTAUFSICHT)
D. INFO

A

D. INFO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

The call signs of German aeronautical stations at gliding sites comprise the name of the gliding site plus the term:

A. INFO
B. GROUND
C. GLIDER ACTIVITY
D. INFORMATION

A

C. GLIDER ACTIVITY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

The call sign the air traffic service uses for the Flight Information Service is:

A. INFORMATION
B. RADIO
C. INFO
D. FLIGHT INFORMATION

A

A. INFORMATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is obtained from an aeronautical station with the call sign “INFORMATION”?

A. Taxiing instructions
B. Aerodrome weather
C. Landing clearances
D. Take-off clearances

A

B. Aerodrome weather

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

When may the call sign of the aeronautical station be omitted in radiotelephony communication?

A. If confusion with any other aircraft station is ruled out
B. In any radiotelephony call
C. When the aircraft is in the traffic circuit
D. After the establishing of voice communication

A

D. After the establishing of voice communication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

The call signs of German aircraft stations comprise …

A. the aircraft type designator and the last three characters of the registration mark
B. the flight number combined with the registration mark
C. the characters of the registration mark of the aircraft
D. the letter “D” and another three letters

A

C. the characters of the registration mark of the aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

An aircraft shall not change the type of its radiotelephony call sign during flight, except temporarily …

A. on the instruction of an ATC unit in the interests of safety
B. for powered gliders when changing from powered flight to gliding
C. at the request of the pilot
D. if the IFR flight plan is cancelled and the flight continues under VFR

A

A. on the instruction of an ATC unit in the interests of safety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

The abbreviated call sign of an aircraft station comprises …

A. the last three characters of the call sign
B. the first character of the registration and at least the last two characters of the call sign
C. the last two characters of the registration mark
D. the aircraft type designator combined with the last character of the call sign

A

B. the first character of the registration and at least the last two characters of the call sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

When shall an aircraft station use its abbreviated call sign?

A. After establishment of radiotelephony contact with an aeronautical station
B. In any radiotelephony call
C. Only for flights in a traffic circuit
D. If it has already been used by the aeronautical station

A

D. If it has already been used by the aeronautical station

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

With which air traffic service can a pilot establish radio contact during a flight in Class C airspace?

A. Air Navigation Service
B. Aeronautical Telecommunication Service
C. Air Traffic Control Service
D. Aeronautical Information Service

A

C. Air Traffic Control Service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

With which air traffic service can radio contact be established during flight?

A. Flight Information Service
B. Aeronautical Telecommunication Service
C. Air Navigation Service
D. Aeronautical Information Service

A

A. Flight Information Service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Which phrase shall be used if the call sign of the calling station is not understood?

A. MONITOR YOUR CALL SIGN
B. SAY AGAIN YOUR CALL SIGN
C. VERIFY YOUR CALL SIGN
D. CONFIRM YOUR CALL SIGN

A

B. SAY AGAIN YOUR CALL SIGN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

A message is not completely repeated by a pilot, although this is required by the message type. Which phrase is used to request the pilot to repeat the message?

A. SAY AGAIN
B. CONFIRM
C. GO AHEAD
D. READ BACK

A

D. READ BACK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Which phrase shall be used for “YES”?

A. ROGER
B. CORRECT
C. AFFIRM
D. THAT’S CORRECT

A

C. AFFIRM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Which phrase shall be used for “PERMISSION NOT GRANTED”?

A. NEGATIVE
B. FALSE
C. INCORRECT
D. NO

A

A. NEGATIVE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Which phrase shall be used for “I HAVE RECEIVED ALL OF YOUR LAST TRANSMISSION”?

A. AFFIRM
B. ROGER
C. WILL COMPLY
D. WILCO

A

B. ROGER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

The content of a clearly understandable message appears doubtful to you. Which phrase do you use to dispel the doubt?

A. CORRECTION
B. SAY AGAIN
C. READ BACK
D. CONFIRM

A

D. CONFIRM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The altimeter is set to 1013.2 hPa and reads 7500 feet. The aeronautical station requests the current level of the aircraft. What shall be the pilot’s answer?

A. 7500 ft AGL
B. 7500 ft
C. FL 75
D. 7500 ft AMSL

A

C. FL 75

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Which phrase shall be used to say “AN ERROR HAS BEEN MADE IN THIS TRANSMISSION”? THE CORRECT VERSION IS …”?

A. QNH 1003 CORRECTION QNH 1002
B. QNH 1003 BREAK BREAK 1002
C. QNH 1003 NEGATIVE QNH 1002
D. QNH 1003 I SAY AGAIN 1002

A

A. QNH 1003 CORRECTION QNH 1002

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Which phrase shall be used for “AUTHORIZATION TO PROCEED UNDER CONDITIONS SPECIFIED”?

A. AFFIRM
B. CLEARED
C. APPROVED
D. CORRECT

A

B. CLEARED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Which phrase shall be used to instruct a pilot to set the transponder to a specific mode/code?

A. SQUAWK
B. OPERATE YOUR TRANSPONDER
C. TRANSPOND
D. RESPOND MODE …./CODE ….

A

A. SQUAWK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

The phrase “WILCO” means:

A. Wait and I will call you
B. I have received all of your last transmission
C. I understand your message and will comply with it
D. I repeat for clarity or emphasis

A

C. I understand your message and will comply with it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

The phrase “MONITOR” means:

A. Let me know that you have received and understood this message
B. Establish radio contact with (station)
C. Consider that transmission as not sent
D. Listen out on (frequency/channel)

A

D. Listen out on (frequency/channel)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Which phrase shall be used by a pilot to acknowledge the control tower’s instruction: “GO AROUND, RUNWAY BLOCKED”?

A. ROGER
B. GOING AROUND
C. WILCO
D. AFFIRM

A

B. GOING AROUND

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Which phrase shall be used by a pilot to acknowledge the instruction “DEKMG HOLD POSITION CANCEL TAKE-OFF, I SAY AGAIN CANCEL TAKE-OFF”?

A. DEKMG HOLDING
B. DEKMG ROGER
C. DEKMG
D. DEKMG AFFIRM

A

A. DEKMG HOLDING

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

DEHOL receives clearance for take-off on runway 24. How shall the pilot acknowledge the clearance?

A. DEHOL CLEARED FOR TAKE-OFF
B. DEHOL WILCO
C. DEHOL RUNWAY 24 CLEARED FOR TAKE-OFF
D. DEHOL I AM TAKING OFF

A

C. DEHOL RUNWAY 24 CLEARED FOR TAKE-OFF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

DEKUL has completed take-off preparations. Which phrase shall be used by the pilot to inform the TOWER?

A. DEKUL TAKING OFF
B. DEKUL READY FOR TAKE-OFF
C. DEKUL CLEARED FOR TAKE-OFF
D. DEKUL READY FOR DEPARTURE

A

D. DEKUL READY FOR DEPARTURE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What does the instruction “(call sign) SQUAWK 1352” from an ATC unit mean?

A. Count 1-3-5-2 for radio bearing
B. Switch transponder to Mode/Code 1352
C. Request test transmission on frequency 135.200 MHz
D. Switch to frequency 135.200

A

B. Switch transponder to Mode/Code 1352

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

If you receive a report from radar control “UNKNOWN TRAFFIC AT TEN O’CLOCK, DISTANCE 4 MILES”, where is the traffic in relation to your cockpit?

A. Ahead to the left
B. Abeam to the right
C. Ahead to the right
D. Directly ahead

A

A. Ahead to the left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

When shall an initial call be transmitted?

A. Only in emergencies
B. If message has not been understood
C. On establishing radio contact
D. In any radiotelephony communication

A

C. On establishing radio contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Which of the following examples is an initial call?

A. GLIDER D2468 FOR WASSERKUPPE, HOW DO YOU READ?
B. HAMBURG TOWER FROM DEMIL, GO AHEAD
C. SAARBRÜCKEN TOWER, THIS IS DIAMK
D. AACHEN INFO DELID

A

D. AACHEN INFO DELID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Does a “GENERAL CALL” require acknowledgement?

A. Yes, but only by the first pilot called
B. No
C. Yes, by all pilots in any sequence
D. Yes, by all pilots in the sequence called

A

B. No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Which of the following radiotelephony calls is a “GENERAL CALL”?

A. DEKOF, DIEBS, DKARL NÜRNBERG GROUND
B. ALL STATIONS HAMBURG TOWER … OUT
C. D8765 BERLIN INFORMATION
D. LUFTHANSA 123, LUFTHANSA 456

A

B. ALL STATIONS HAMBURG TOWER … OUT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Which of the following calls is a “MULTIPLE CALL”?

A. DEAMM ERFURT GROUND
B. ALL STATIONS THIS IS DRESDEN TOWER
C. DIENO DELLW
D. DEABC, DGIAL, DHHIA LEIPZIG TOWER

A

D. DEABC, DGIAL, DHHIA LEIPZIG TOWER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Does a “MULTIPLE CALL” require acknowledgement?

A. Yes, in any sequence
B. No
C. Yes, in the sequence used by the calling station
D. Yes, but only by the first calling station

A

C. Yes, in the sequence used by the calling station

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

A pilot receives a radiotelephony call but is uncertain whether they have been called. What is the correct procedure to be followed? The pilot shall …

A. wait until the call is repeated
B. transmit their own call sign and wait
C. transmit their own call sign using the phrase “SAY AGAIN YOUR CALL SIGN”
D. answer by using the phrase “SAY AGAIN”

A

A. wait until the call is repeated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What shall be taken into account before radiotelephony communication is commenced?

A. After selecting the correct frequency, the pilot shall ensure that no interference is caused to any ongoing radiotelephony communication
B. A radio check shall have been carried out first
C. The aircraft shall be airborne
D. The distance between the aeronautical station and the aircraft station shall not be less than 30 NM

A

A. After selecting the correct frequency, the pilot shall ensure that no interference is caused to any ongoing radiotelephony communication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Before entering Class C airspace below FL 100 in the vicinity of commercial airports, when is the latest permissible time for establishing radiotelephony communication with the competent ATC unit?

A. Upon entering the airspace
B. 5 minutes prior to entering this airspace
C. Immediately after take-off
D. Above 3500 ft AGL

A

B. 5 minutes prior to entering this airspace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Radiotelephony communication during VFR flights at and above Flight Level 100 is performed in …

A. the German or English language
B. any of the ICAO languages
C. the English language
D. the German language

A

C. the English language

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

DGIGA receives the instruction to call HAMBURG TOWER on frequency 121.280 MHz. What is the correct confirmation by the pilot?

A. DGIGA changing frequency
B. DGIGA contact 121.280
C. DGIGA will call TOWER DGIGA
D. HAMBURG TOWER DGIGA

A

B. DGIGA contact 121.280

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

A continuous air-ground voice communication watch shall be maintained during VFR flights in airspace(s):

A. E and D
B. E
C. D only
D. C and D

A

D. C and D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

A pilot flies an aircraft under VFR in the traffic circuit of a controlled aerodrome. What shall the pilot always be obliged to do?

A. Maintain a continuous air-ground voice communication watch on the aerodrome control frequency
B. Transmit a position report at every leg of the traffic circuit
C. Request a meteorological briefing
D. Always file a flight plan before commencement of the flight

A

A. Maintain a continuous air-ground voice communication watch on the aerodrome control frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Which types of flight do not require maintain continuous air-ground voice communication watch? In the case of VFR flights, …

A. at night in Class C airspace (outside the vicinity of the aerodrome)
B. at night in Class D airspace (outside the vicinity of the aerodrome)
C. at night in Class G airspace (outside RMZ)
D. at night in Class E airspace (outside the vicinity of the aerodrome)

A

C. at night in Class G airspace (outside RMZ)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Which VFR flights require a pilot to maintain a continuous air-ground voice communication watch on the assigned frequency?

A. Flights in Class F airspace
B. Flights in Class C airspace
C. Flights in Class E airspace (outside RMZ)
D. Flights in Class G airspace (outside RMZ)

A

B. Flights in Class C airspace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

A person operating an aircraft on a controlled aerodrome or in its vicinity is obliged, inter alia, to obtain by radio or visual signs prior permission for all movements …

A. preparatory to or associated with taxiing, take-off and landing
B. preparatory to take-off and landing
C. preparatory to taxiing, take-off and landing
D. preparatory to or associated with take-off and landing

A

A. preparatory to or associated with taxiing, take-off and landing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

A person operating an aircraft under VFR on a controlled aerodrome or in its vicinity shall be obliged to …

A. request a meteorological and an AIS briefing
B. always file a flight plan before commencement of the flight
C. transmit a position report at every leg of the traffic circuit
D. maintain a continuous air-ground voice communication watch on the appropriate frequency, or, if this is not possible, pay attention to instructions given by light and ground signals or signs

A

D. maintain a continuous air-ground voice communication watch on the appropriate frequency, or, if this is not possible, pay attention to instructions given by light and ground signals or signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

In a radio check, what does the message “READ YOU TWO” mean? The radio check is …

A. readable but with difficulty
B. readable
C. readable now and then
D. perfectly readable

A

C. readable now and then

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

In a radio check, what does the message “READ YOU THREE” mean? The radio check is …

A. readable now and then
B. readable but with difficulty
C. readable
D. perfectly readable

A

B. readable but with difficulty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

In a radio check, what does the message “READ YOU FOUR” mean? The radio check is …

A. readable
B. readable but with difficulty
C. unreadable
D. perfectly readable

A

A. readable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

In a radio check, what does the message “READ YOU FIVE” mean? The radio check is …

A. readable but with difficulty
B. readable now and then
C. unreadable
D. perfectly readable

A

D. perfectly readable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

A radio check is “readable”. How is this expressed in radiotelephony communication?

A. Read you
B. Read you loud and clear
C. Read you three
D. Read you four

A

D. Read you four

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

A radio check is “readable but with difficulty”. How is this expressed in radiotelephony communication?

A. Read you
B. Read you three
C. Read you two
D. Read you, GO AHEAD

A

B. Read you three

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What shall be included in a test transmission?

A. The words “ TRANSMISSION CHECK”
B. The words “TEST CHECK”
C. The words “RADIO CHECK”
D. The words “CHECK CHECK”

A

C. The words “RADIO CHECK”

106
Q

Which message shall a pilot repeat?

A. CLEARED FOR TAKE-OFF
B. CAUTION OPPOSITE-DIRECTION HELICOPTER
C. CONSTRUCTION WORK LEFT OF RUNWAY
D. SEVERE THUNDERSTORMS IN RHINE VALLEY NEAR MANNHEIM

A

A. CLEARED FOR TAKE-OFF

107
Q

Which messages shall be repeated?

A. Traffic information
B. Meteorological messages
C. Altimeter settings
D. Messages on runway condition

A

C. Altimeter settings

108
Q

Which messages shall be repeated?

A. Information concerning construction work on runways
B. Frequency in the case of a frequency change
C. Meteorological information
D. Wind direction and force

A

B. Frequency in the case of a frequency change

109
Q

How shall the receipt of an ATC clearance be acknowledged?

A. By pressing the microphone switch three times
B. By transmitting one’s own abbreviated call sign
C. By pressing the microphone switch twice
D. By reading back the clearances in full

A

D. By reading back the clearances in full

110
Q

DESEL receives the following clearance/instruction: “DEL WHEN AIRBORNE CLIMB STRAIGHT AHEAD ALTITUDE 3000 FEET; THEN TURN RIGHT, WIND 250 DEGREES, 7 KNOTS, RUNWAY 22, CLEARED FOR TAKE-OFF”. What is the correct read back from DESEL?

A. DEL CLEARED FOR TAKE-OFF, RUNWAY 22, WIND 250 DEGREES, 7 KNOTS
B. DEL WILCO, RUNWAY 22, CLEARED FOR TAKE-OFF
C. DEL CLIMB STRAIGHT AHEAD ALTITUDE 3000 FEET, THEN TURN RIGHT, RUNWAY 22, CLEARED FOR TAKE-OFF
D. DEL CLIMB 3000 FEET, CLEARED FOR TAKE-OFF

A

C. DEL CLIMB STRAIGHT AHEAD ALTITUDE 3000 FEET, THEN TURN RIGHT, RUNWAY 22, CLEARED FOR TAKE-OFF

111
Q

Which elements of the instructions or information below shall be read back?

A. Clearances, taxi instructions, runway-in-use, QNH, SSR codes, level instructions, heading and speed instructions, frequency in the case of frequency change
B. Runway in use, ground visibility, dew point, take-off clearance, frequency in the case of frequency changes
C. Clearances, wind direction/speed, heading instructions, QNH, frequency in the case of frequency changes
D. Instructions concerning heading, flight level, speed, altimeter setting, flight visibility, wind direction, take-off clearance and frequency in the case of frequency changes

A

A. Clearances, taxi instructions, runway-in-use, QNH, SSR codes, level instructions, heading and speed instructions, frequency in the case of frequency change

112
Q

Which VFR flights usually require the transmission of position reports?

A. All flights in Class E airspace
B. Entering Class D airspace
C. Night flights in Class G airspace
D. Flights above cloud in Class E airspace

A

B. Entering Class D airspace

113
Q

VFR flights to controlled aerodromes are governed by the procedures laid down in the “Aeronautical Information Publication VFR” [VFR AIP]. Position reports over compulsory reporting points shall …

A. not be made. Given the instruction to enter the traffic circuit, no further position reports over compulsory reporting points are required
B. be made only if requested by the aerodrome control tower, irrespective of the clearance given
C. be made only in the case of special VFR flights
D. be made in all cases, unless expressly stated to the contrary, irrespective of the clearance given

A

D. be made in all cases, unless expressly stated to the contrary, irrespective of the clearance given

114
Q

When, in the case of a daytime VFR flight, shall a pilot transmit position reports to the competent ATC unit?

A. When entering Class E or F airspace
B. Only when flying over radio navigation stations (e.g. VOR, NDB)
C. When leaving Class D airspace
D. When flying over compulsory reporting points

A

D. When flying over compulsory reporting points

115
Q

A position report normally comprises the radio call sign of the aircraft, position, time of crossing and altitude. Which of these can be omitted under certain conditions in the case of VFR flights?

A. The position provided it is published on the visual operation chart
B. The flight level if it does not exceed 3500 ft AGL
C. The time when the message is transmitted at the time of crossing
D. The call sign if it is a non-commercial flight

A

C. The time when the message is transmitted at the time of crossing

116
Q

What data does a position report on flights in the traffic circuit contain?

A. Radio call sign of the aircraft, position, altitude, time
B. Radio call sign of the aircraft, position, altitude
C. Radio call sign of the aircraft, position, time
D. Radio call sign of the aircraft, position

A

D. Radio call sign of the aircraft, position

117
Q

What does this symbol on the visual operation chart mean (see question 117)?

A. Compulsory reporting point
B. Aviation obstacle
C. Radio navigation facility
D. Non-compulsory reporting point (on-request reporting point)

A

A. Compulsory reporting point

118
Q

What does this symbol on the visual operation chart mean (see question 118)?

A. Non-compulsory reporting point (on-request reporting point)
B. Compulsory reporting point
C. Military aerodrome
D. Lighted obstacle

A

A. Non-compulsory reporting point (on-request reporting point)

119
Q

When may the estimated time of arrival instead of a report of arrival be transmitted to the competent ATC unit?

A. If the traffic is observed in the traffic circuit
B. If the aircraft is in the traffic circuit and the landing can be regarded as assured
C. At the aerodrome control’s request of the airfield if the landing can be regarded as assured
D. After approval from the aerodrome control of the airfield

A

B. If the aircraft is in the traffic circuit and the landing can be regarded as assured

120
Q

In the case of flight-plan filing and take-off from an uncontrolled aerodrome, the report of departure may be transmitted by radiotelephony. To whom shall it be transmitted in this case?

A. To the aeronautical station at the destination aerodrome
B. To the Aeronautical Information Service
C. To the radio navigation service for forwarding to the AIS-C
D. To the competent ATC unit or to the competent FIS for forwarding to the AIS-C

A

D. To the competent ATC unit or to the competent FIS for forwarding to the AIS-C

121
Q

Which data shall a report of departure contain if transmitted by radiotelephony?

A. Aircraft identification, departure aerodrome, time of departure, arrival aerodrome
B. Aircraft identification, departure aerodrome, time of departure
C. Aircraft identification, departure aerodrome, arrival aerodrome
D. Aircraft identification, time of departure, arrival aerodrome

A

A. Aircraft identification, departure aerodrome, time of departure, arrival aerodrome

122
Q

When the term “SCATTERED (SCT)” is used in radiotelephony in connection with meteorological conditions, the amount of cloud covering the sky is:

A. 8 oktas
B. 3 to 4 oktas
C. 5 to 7 oktas
D. 1 to 2 oktas

A

B. 3 to 4 oktas

123
Q

When the term “BROKEN (BKN)” is used in radiotelephony in connection with meteorological conditions, the amount of cloud covering the sky is:

A. 1 to 2 oktas
B. 5 to 7 oktas
C. 8 oktas
D. 3 to 4 oktas

A

B. 5 to 7 oktas

124
Q

When the term “OVERCAST (OVC)” is used in radiotelephony in connection with meteorological conditions, the amount of cloud covering the sky is:

A. 5 to 7 oktas
B. 3 to 4 oktas
C. 8 oktas
D. 1 to 2 oktas

A

C. 8 oktas

125
Q

What does “3 to 4 OKTAS” in routine meteorological reports mean? The cloud amount is …

A. SCATTERED
B. OVERCAST
C. BROKEN
D. NO SIGNIFICANT CLOUDS

A

A. SCATTERED

126
Q

What does “5 to 7 OKTAS” in routine meteorological reports mean? The cloud amount is …

A. FEW
B. OVERCAST
C. BROKEN
D. SCATTERED

127
Q

What does “1 to 2 OKTAS” in routine meteorological reports mean? The cloud amount is …

A. FEW
B. BROKEN
C. SCATTERED
D. NO SIGNIFICANT CLOUDS

128
Q

When the term “CAVOK” is used in a routine meteorological report (METAR), the values of visibility and clouds are:

A. visibility 5000 m or more, no cloud below 5000 ft AGL
B. visibility 10 km or more, no cloud below 5000 ft AGL
C. visibility 10 km or more, no cloud below 1500 ft AGL
D. visibility 5000 m or more, no cloud below 1500 ft AGL

A

B. visibility 10 km or more, no cloud below 5000 ft AGL

129
Q

How are the values for flight visibility, ground visibility and runway visual range transmitted?

A. In feet and NM
B. Less than 5 km in metres, above in kilometres
C. Up to 1500 m in metres, above in kilometres
D. In NM only

A

B. Less than 5 km in metres, above in kilometres

130
Q

Which of the following ground visibility reports is correct?

A. “VISIBILITY ONE DECIMAL EIGHT NAUTICAL MILES”
B. “VISIBILITY THREE KILOMETRES”
C. “VISIBILITY APPROXIMATELY NINE THOUSAND FEET”
D. “VISIBILITY THREE THOUSAND METRES”

A

D. “VISIBILITY THREE THOUSAND METRES”

131
Q

What is VOLMET?

A. Meteorological broadcasts for aerodrome meteorological reports for airports
B. Flight Information Service
C. Radio call sign for a unit of the DWD
D. Call sign of the Air Traffic Advisory Service

A

A. Meteorological broadcasts for aerodrome meteorological reports for airports

132
Q

During a flight a pilot shall request information on the aerodrome weather conditions via …

A. GAFOR
B. AIS-C
C. ATIS
D. UHF

133
Q

ATIS broadcasts serve to provide pilots with information. What information do they contain?

A. Meteorological reports for cross-country flights in VMC
B. Meteorological reports for several airports
C. Arrival and departure information for the safe performance of VFR and IFR flights
D. The true bearing to the aerodrome of destination

A

C. Arrival and departure information for the safe performance of VFR and IFR flights

134
Q

How is SIGMET information disseminated from 0700 (0600 during the summer period) until SS+30?

A. As an aeronautical broadcast on the FIS frequencies every half and full hour
B. As an aeronautical broadcast on the published VOLMET frequencies
C. At the request of the pilot
D. As an aeronautical broadcast on the ATC frequencies

A

A. As an aeronautical broadcast on the FIS frequencies every half and full hour

135
Q

SIGMET messages are for the safety of general aviation flights. What information do they contain?

A. Notification of the cloud base in Classes F and G airspace
B. Significant meteorological phenomena, e.g. thunderstorms, turbulence, icing
C. Routine meteorological reports
D. Meteorological data in chart form, obtainable from aeronautical meteorological offices

A

B. Significant meteorological phenomena, e.g. thunderstorms, turbulence, icing

136
Q

What information shall a distress message contain?

A. Nature of the distress condition, intention of the pilot-in-command, present position, level and heading
B. Nature of distress, cause of emergency, request to change frequency to 121.500 MHz
C. Nature of distress condition, intention of the pilot, speed
D. Intention of the pilot, TAS, position, rate of descent

A

A. Nature of the distress condition, intention of the pilot-in-command, present position, level and heading

137
Q

The distress signal MAYDAY means that …

A. a pilot has made or is about to make an unscheduled landing
B. being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance
C. an aircraft is in a difficult situation
D. a passenger on board an aircraft is seriously ill

A

B. being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance

138
Q

A distress call shall be transmitted …

A. solely on a FIS frequency
B. always on the emergency frequency 121.500 MHz
C. on the frequency used or on an emergency frequency
D. on a SAR frequency

A

C. on the frequency used or on an emergency frequency

139
Q

How shall a distress call be initiated?

A. MAYDAY EMERGENCY MAYDAY
B. PAN PAN, emitted preferably three times
C. MAYDAY, emitted preferably three times
D. EMERGENCY, emitted preferably three times

A

C. MAYDAY, emitted preferably three times

140
Q

Which of the following signals is a distress signal?

A. Repeated switching on and off of landing lights or navigation lights
B. The word PAN PAN transmitted by radiotelephony
C. The firing of green and red flares
D. The word MAYDAY transmitted by radiotelephony

A

D. The word MAYDAY transmitted by radiotelephony

141
Q

How shall an urgency call be initiated?

A. URGENCY URGENCY
B. ATTENTION, I HAVE AN URGENT MESSAGE
C. PAN PAN, emitted preferably three times
D. MAYDAY‚ emitted preferably three times

A

C. PAN PAN, emitted preferably three times

142
Q

The radiotelephony signal PAN PAN means that an aircraft …

A. has strayed into a restricted area
B. is in a difficult situation
C. has been hijacked
D. is in imminent, serious danger and requires immediate assistance

A

B. is in a difficult situation

143
Q

Which code shall be selected on an aircraft’s transponder in a distress situation?

A. A 7700
B. A 7500
C. A 7600
D. A 7000

144
Q

An aircraft squawking 7700 indicates to the aeronautical station that …

A. the aircraft has experienced radio communication failure
B. the aircraft has been hijacked
C. the aircraft is in distress
D. the aircraft is entering Class E airspace

A

C. the aircraft is in distress

145
Q

In case of radio communication failure prior to receipt or acknowledgement of a clearance to enter a control zone, the pilot shall …

A. set the transponder code to Mode A 7600, if possible; land at the nearest suitable aerodrome; and report the arrival time by the most expeditious means to the appropriate ATC unit
B. set the transponder code to Mode A 7600, if possible; and find a suitable emergency landing site
C. set the transponder code to Mode A 7600, if possible; and draw attention to the aircraft by performing circles to the left and to the right
D. set the transponder code to Mode A 7600, if possible; make a 180° turn, and return to the aerodrome of departure

A

A. set the transponder code to Mode A 7600, if possible; land at the nearest suitable aerodrome; and report the arrival time by the most expeditious means to the appropriate ATC unit

146
Q

What is a specific feature of a blind transmission?

A. At the end of the blind transmission, the aircraft station’s call sign is repeated
B. The message shall be transmitted three times
C. The message shall be transmitted twice
D. At the end of the blind transmission, the aeronautical station’s call sign is repeated

A

C. The message shall be transmitted twice

147
Q

What is a specific feature of a blind transmission?

A. The message commences with the phrase BLIND TRANSMISSION spoken three times
B. At the end of the blind transmission, the aircraft station’s call sign is repeated
C. The time of the next intended transmission is announced
D. At the end of the blind transmission, the aeronautical station’s call sign is repeated

A

C. The time of the next intended transmission is announced

148
Q

Which code shall be selected on an aircraft’s transponder in the case of radio communication failure?

A. A 7000
B. A 7500
C. A 7700
D. A 7600

149
Q

What does an aircraft indicate to the aeronautical station when it transmits the transponder code A 7600?

A. Request landing instructions
B. Radio communication failure
C. Emergency
D. Entering Class C airspace

A

B. Radio communication failure

150
Q

Upon observing a light signal directed towards the aircraft, the pilot shall take the prescribed measures. What shall the pilot take into account?

A. Audio signals can also be given
B. Instructions by radio have priority over signals and signs, with the exception of red pyrotechnic lights
C. Signals and signs have priority over radio instructions
D. Ground signals have priority over light signals

A

B. Instructions by radio have priority over signals and signs, with the exception of red pyrotechnic lights

151
Q

Radio instructions have priority over light and ground signals and visual signs. This does not apply to …

A. series of red flashes
B. steady red lights
C. steady green lights
D. red pyrotechnic lights

A

D. red pyrotechnic lights

152
Q

A pilot shall follow, on a priority basis:

A. instructions by radio
B. light signals
C. ground signals
D. flares discharged at intervals of about 10 seconds, which burst into red or green lights and stars

A

A. instructions by radio

153
Q

Which frequency band is used for radiotelephony communication in the civil aeronautical mobile service?

A. 200 - 490 kHz
B. 108.000 MHz - 117.975 MHz
C. 108.000 kHz - 136.000 kHz
D. 117.975 MHz - 137.000 MHz

A

D. 117.975 MHz - 137.000 MHz

154
Q

Which channel spacing (frequency band 117.975 MHz – 137.000 MHz) is operated in the aeronautical mobile service in lower airspace?

A. 25 MHz
B. 25 kHz + 8.33 kHz
C. 25 MHz + 8.33 MHz
D. 8.33 kHz

A

B. 25 kHz + 8.33 kHz

155
Q

Which operating mode is used for radiotelephony communication in the aeronautical mobile service?

A. Full-duplex operation
B. Simplex and duplex operation
C. Simplex operation
D. Duplex operation

A

C. Simplex operation

156
Q

Which designation does the frequency 121.500 MHz have?

A. Instruction and training frequency
B. Inter-pilot air-to-air frequency
C. International emergency frequency
D. Information frequency

A

C. International emergency frequency

157
Q

Which of the frequencies listed below corresponds to that of a German aeronautical station with the call sign “INFO”?

A. 130.780 MHz
B. 121.500 MHz
C. 109.550 MHz
D. 200 kHz

A

A. 130.780 MHz

158
Q

Which frequency is operated in 8.33 kHz channel spacing?

A. 121.500 MHz
B. 134.555 MHz
C. 109.550 MHz
D. 200 kHz

A

B. 134.555 MHz

159
Q

How can a radiotelephony frequency be blocked?

A. Speaking too loudly
B. Speaking too softly
C. Keeping the talk button depressed
D. Switching the radiotelephony unit on and off

A

C. Keeping the talk button depressed

160
Q

How do very high frequency (VHF) waves propagate?

A. The waves are reflected by the ionosphere at an altitude of about 100 km and return to the Earth’s surface as sky waves
B. The waves travel as ground waves along the surface of Earth and, therefore, also penetrate into valleys, hence they cannot be influenced by topographical obstacles
C. Similar to short waves but they are unaffected by atmospheric disturbances
D. Similar to light, i.e. “quasi optically”

A

D. Similar to light, i.e. “quasi optically”

161
Q

Which phenomena can influence the quality of VFH reception in aeronautical radio?

A. Altitude of the aircraft and topographical features
B. Day-night effect
C. Ionosphere
D. Atmospherics occurring particularly during thunderstorms

A

A. Altitude of the aircraft and topographical features

162
Q

In which of the following situations is radiotelephony communication between aircraft and the TOWER on frequency 118.250 MHz unlikely to encounter any problems?

A. When the aircraft flies at a sufficiently high altitude, and is close to the aeronautical station
B. When the aircraft performs a low-level flight in a valley, in radio shadow in the vicinity of the aeronautical station
C. When the aircraft flies at a low altitude in the radio shadow of a mountain, and is far away from the aeronautical station
D. When the aircraft flies at a low altitude, and is very far away from the aeronautical station

A

A. When the aircraft flies at a sufficiently high altitude, and is close to the aeronautical station

163
Q

What is the maximum distance at which you might expect perfect VHF radio contact over flat terrain at flight level 65?

A. Approx. 20 NM
B. Approx. 10 NM
C. Approx. 95 NM
D. Approx. 150 NM

A

C. Approx. 95 NM

164
Q

What Air Traffic Services are there?

A. Air Navigation Service, Search and Rescue, and Telecommunication Services
B. Air Traffic Control Service, Alerting Service, Flight Information Service, Air Traffic Advisory Service
C. Alerting, Rescue, Information and Advisory Services
D. Meteorological, Advisory, Search and Rescue (SAR), and Control Services

A

B. Air Traffic Control Service, Alerting Service, Flight Information Service, Air Traffic Advisory Service

165
Q

The Flight Information Service performs the following tasks:

A. organise Search and Rescue (SAR) services
B. issue clearances
C. distribute meteorological reports
D. accept and forward flight plans and flight plan following messages

A

D. accept and forward flight plans and flight plan following messages

166
Q

Who is responsible for air traffic control in the Federal Republic of Germany?

A. Air navigation provider services authorized by the Federal Supervisory Authority for Air Navigation Services (BAF)
B. Federal Aviation Administration
C. Aeronautical Authorities of the Lands (federal states)
D. DFS Deutsche Flugsicherung GmbH

A

A. Air navigation provider services authorized by the Federal Supervisory Authority for Air Navigation Services (BAF)

167
Q

When is the FIS available to a pilot?

A. During the flight but only for flights in Classes C and E airspace
B. Before commencement of a flight
C. During the flight
D. During the flight, but only for flights in Class G airspace

A

C. During the flight

168
Q

Flight preparations are the responsibility of:

A. only pilots performing cross-country flights
B. all pilots
C. only pilots of power-driven aircraft
D. inexperienced pilots

A

B. all pilots

169
Q

Meteorological briefing shall generally be requested …

A. in the event of uncertain meteorological conditions
B. for flights leaving the vicinity of the aerodrome of departure and for all IFR flights
C. for flights in respect of which flight plans must be filed
D. for commercial flights

A

B. for flights leaving the vicinity of the aerodrome of departure and for all IFR flights

170
Q

The time data used for aviation purposes are always based on …

A. CET or CEST
B. Zone time (Z time)
C. Local time
D. Coordinated Universal Time (UTC)

A

D. Coordinated Universal Time (UTC)

171
Q

What is the measurement unit for horizontal speed in aviation?

A. Metres per minute
B. Kilometres per hour
C. Miles per minute
D. Knots

172
Q

What is the measurement unit for vertical speed in aviation?

A. Feet per second
B. Knots
C. Feet per minute
D. Metres per minute

A

C. Feet per minute

173
Q

What is the measurement unit for altitudes in aviation?

A. Inches
B. Feet
C. Metres
D. Kilometres

174
Q

What is the measurement unit for distances used in aviation for navigation purposes?

A. Nautical miles and tenths
B. Knots
C. Kilometres
D. Miles

A

A. Nautical miles and tenths

175
Q

What is the measurement unit for atmospheric pressure in aviation?

A. Atmosphere above atmospheric pressure
B. Hectopascal
C. Millimetre of mercury
D. Millibar

A

B. Hectopascal

176
Q

Which minimum height shall be observed over the congested areas of cities for VFR flights?

A. 300 m (1000 ft) above ground or the highest obstacle
B. 300 m (1000 ft) above the highest obstacle and a distance of 600 m from the aircraft
C. 600 m (2000 ft) above the highest obstacle and a distance of 150 m from the aircraft
D. 600 m (2000 ft), if no contact to obstacles

A

B. 300 m (1000 ft) above the highest obstacle and a distance of 600 m from the aircraft

177
Q

What is the required minimum distance to the highest obstacle for VFR flights over ground or water at an altitude of 150 m (500 ft)?

A. No distance required
B. 1,5 km to the next obstacle
C. 300 m (1000 ft) from the aircraft
D. 150 m (500 ft) from the aircraft

A

D. 150 m (500 ft) from the aircraft

178
Q

A power-driven aircraft and a glider are approaching head-on. Who shall give way?

A. The glider
B. The faster aircraft
C. Both shall turn right
D. The power-driven aircraft

A

C. Both shall turn right

179
Q

Aircraft towing objects shall have the right of way over …

A. power-driven aircraft
B. all other aircraft
C. gliders
D. powered gliders with their engines turned off

A

A. power-driven aircraft

180
Q

A pilot observes a powered glider (engine running) converging at approximately the same level from the left that will cross the pilot’s flight path. Who shall give way?

A. The powered glider shall give way to the aircraft
B. The aircraft shall give way to the powered glider
C. The faster aircraft shall give way
D. Both aircraft shall change course

A

A. The powered glider shall give way to the aircraft

181
Q

When an aircraft is in the final stages of an approach to land …

A. an aircraft at a lower level shall make a long landing
B. a multiple-seated aircraft always shall have the right of way
C. an aircraft at a higher level shall have the right of way
D. an aircraft at a lower level shall have the right of way

A

D. an aircraft at a lower level shall have the right of way

182
Q

When shall all aircraft display navigation lights?

A. At night and in low visibility conditions
B. From SS+30 to SR
C. At night
D. From SS+30 to SR+30

A

C. At night

183
Q

All aircraft in flight and fitted with anti-collision lights shall display such lights …

A. during night only
B. during day and night
C. from take-off to landing at night in low visibility conditions
D. by aircraft operating at night and in daytime in low visibility conditions

A

B. during day and night

184
Q

A horizontal red square panel with two yellow diagonals displayed in the signal area indicates:

A. landing is prohibited for a prolonged period
B. the aerodrome is closed for a short time
C. the aerodrome is unusable for a prolonged period
D. take-off and landing are prohibited for a prolonged period

A

A. landing is prohibited for a prolonged period

185
Q

A horizontal white dumb-bell displayed in the signal area indicates:

A. aircraft is required to take off on taxiway
B. landing is prohibited for leisure aircraft
C. aircraft are required to land, take off, and taxi on runways and taxiways only
D. taxiway may not be used for the time being

A

C. aircraft are required to land, take off, and taxi on runways and taxiways only

186
Q

A white or orange “T” (landing T) which is either illuminated or outlined in white lights at night indicates:

A. take-off is prohibited
B. aircraft is required to perform take-offs and landings on runway only
C. take-offs and landings shall be executed parallel to the shaft of the landing T towards the cross arm
D. aircraft shall touch down next to the landing T

A

C. take-offs and landings shall be executed parallel to the shaft of the landing T towards the cross arm

187
Q

A set of two digits displayed vertically at or near the aerodrome control tower indicates:

A. the direction for take-off, expressed in units of ten degrees to the nearest 10° of the magnetic compass
B. the last two digits of the QNH
C. the direction for landing, rounded off to the magnetic heading
D. the temperature

A

A. the direction for take-off, expressed in units of ten degrees to the nearest 10° of the magnetic compass

188
Q

When displayed in a signal area, or horizontally at the end of the runway or strip in use, a right- hand arrow of conspicuous colour indicates:

A. taxiing manoeuvres shall be made to the right only
B. turns shall be made to the right before landing and after take-off
C. aircraft shall take off and land to the right of the runway
D. right of way shall be given to aircraft approaching from the right

A

B. turns shall be made to the right before landing and after take-off

189
Q

What does a steady green light directed toward an aircraft in flight indicate?

A. Return to aerodrome of departure
B. Give way to other aircraft and continue circling
C. Land at this aerodrome and proceed to apron
D. Cleared to land

A

D. Cleared to land

190
Q

What does a steady red light directed toward an aircraft in flight indicate?

A. Return for landing (clearances to land and to taxi will be given in due course)
B. Do not land, aerodrome unsafe
C. Give way to other aircraft and continue circling
D. Notwithstanding any previous instructions and clearances, do not land for the time being

A

C. Give way to other aircraft and continue circling

191
Q

What does a series of green flashes directed toward an aircraft in flight indicate?

A. Return for landing (clearances to land and to taxi will be given in due course)
B. Cleared to land
C. Give way to other aircraft and continue circling
D. Land at this aerodrome and proceed to apron

A

A. Return for landing (clearances to land and to taxi will be given in due course)

192
Q

What does a series of red flashes directed toward an aircraft in flight indicate?

A. Cleared to land immediately
B. Leave aerodrome traffic circuit
C. Continue aerodrome traffic circuit
D. Do not land, aerodrome unsafe

A

D. Do not land, aerodrome unsafe

193
Q

What does a series of white flashes directed toward an aircraft in flight indicate?

A. Continue traffic circuit
B. Leave traffic circuit
C. Do not land at this aerodrome
D. Land at this aerodrome and proceed to apron (clearances to land and to taxi will be given in due course)

A

D. Land at this aerodrome and proceed to apron (clearances to land and to taxi will be given in due course)

194
Q

What does a red pyrotechnic light directed toward an aircraft in flight indicate?

A. Danger! Leave traffic circuit immediately
B. Notwithstanding any previous instructions and clearances, do not land for the time being
C. Restricted area! Leave area immediately
D. Danger area! Leave area immediately

A

B. Notwithstanding any previous instructions and clearances, do not land for the time being

195
Q

What does a steady green light directed toward an aircraft on the ground indicate?

A. Cleared for take-off
B. Stop!
C. Return to starting point on the aerodrome
D. Cleared to taxi

A

A. Cleared for take-off

196
Q

What does a steady red light directed toward an aircraft on the ground indicate?

A. Taxi clear of landing area in use
B. Vacate runway
C. Stop!
D. Vacate taxiway

197
Q

What does a series of green flashes directed toward an aircraft on the ground indicate?

A. Cleared for take-off
B. Runway clear of obstacles
C. Cleared to taxi
D. Return to starting point on the aerodrome

A

C. Cleared to taxi

198
Q

What does a series of red flashes directed toward an aircraft on the ground indicate?

A. Return to starting point on the aerodrome
B. Cleared for take-off
C. Stop!
D. Taxi clear of landing area in use

A

A. Return to starting point on the aerodrome

199
Q

What does a series of white flashes directed toward an aircraft on the ground indicate?

A. Cleared for take-off
B. Notwithstanding any previous instructions and clearances, do not taxi and take off for the time being
C. Return to starting point on the aerodrome
D. Taxi clear of landing area in use

A

C. Return to starting point on the aerodrome

200
Q

Aerodrome traffic is …

A. all the traffic on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and all aircraft flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome. An aircraft operating in the vicinity of an aerodrome includes but is not limited to aircraft entering or leaving an aerodrome traffic circuit
B. all aircraft in the aerodrome traffic circuit
C. all aircraft on the runway
D. all the traffic on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and all aircraft entering the aerodrome traffic circuit

A

A. all the traffic on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and all aircraft flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome. An aircraft operating in the vicinity of an aerodrome includes but is not limited to aircraft entering or leaving an aerodrome traffic circuit

201
Q

When does an aircraft fly “downwind 16”? When it flies a heading of …

A. 340° and the aerodrome is to the left of the aircraft
B. 340° and the aerodrome is to the right of the aircraft
C. 160° and the aerodrome is to the left of the aircraft
D. 160° and the aerodrome is to the right of the aircraft

A

A. 340° and the aerodrome is to the left of the aircraft

202
Q

Changes of direction in the traffic circuit shall normally be made …

A. to the south
B. in turns to the right
C. in turns to the left
D. to the north

A

C. in turns to the left

203
Q

Changes of direction in the approach to landing and after take-off shall normally be made …

A. to the south
B. in turns to the left
C. in turns to the right
D. to the north

A

B. in turns to the left

204
Q

Whose signals and signs shall the pilot on the apron and parking areas of a controlled aerodrome follow?

A. Federal Office of Civil Aviation
B. Aeronautical Authorities of the Lands (federal states)
C. Control tower
D. Aerodrome operator

A

D. Aerodrome operator

205
Q

A pilot is performing a VFR flight to a controlled aerodrome. Radiotelephony communication with the control tower is not possible. What action shall the pilot take?

A. The pilot shall send a blind transmission and continue the flight according to the VFR entry route prescribed in the AIP
B. Under no circumstances is the pilot allowed to enter the control zone
C. The pilot shall proceed to the alternate aerodrome designated in the flight plan
D. The pilot shall land on an aerodrome outside the control zone. It is for flight operational reasons only that the pilot may continue to the CTR

A

D. The pilot shall land on an aerodrome outside the control zone. It is for flight operational reasons only that the pilot may continue to the CTR

206
Q

During a VFR flight, the pilot has been given clearance to enter the control zone and has received and acknowledged the landing instructions. A short time afterwards, the radiotelephone fails. What action shall the pilot take?

A. Land at an aerodrome outside the control zone and transmit an arrival message
B. Continue the flight to the alternate aerodrome indicated in the flight plan
C. Continue the flight in accordance with the clearance
D. Circle for 10 minutes outside the control zone and then continue the approach

A

C. Continue the flight in accordance with the clearance

207
Q

Flight visibility is defined as …

A. visibility forward from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight
B. maximum visibility forward from the cockpit of an aircraft on the ground
C. visibility from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight to the ground
D. mean slant visibility from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight

A

A. visibility forward from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight

208
Q

The minimum horizontal distance from cloud on a VFR flight in Class D airspace (CTR) is:

A. 300 m
B. 1500 m
C. 1500 ft
D. 300 ft

209
Q

VFR flights in Class E airspace below FL 100 shall be conducted so that …

A. the pilot shall have flight visibility of at least 8 km and maintain a distance from cloud of at least 500 m horizontally and at least 300 m (1000 ft) vertically
B. the pilot shall have flight visibility of at least 5 km and maintain a distance from cloud of at least 300 m horizontally and at least 300 ft vertically
C. the pilot shall have flight visibility of at least 5 km and maintain a distance from cloud of at least 1500 m horizontally and at least 300 m (1000 ft) vertically
D. the pilot shall have flight visibility of at least 8 km and maintain a distance from cloud of at least 1500 m horizontally and at least 300 m (1000 ft) vertically

A

C. the pilot shall have flight visibility of at least 5 km and maintain a distance from cloud of at least 1500 m horizontally and at least 300 m (1000 ft) vertically

210
Q

What are the requirements for VFR flights in Class G airspace at speeds of 140 kts IAS or less at and below 3000 ft AMSL/1000 ft AGL?

A. Flight visibility at least 1500 m, distance from the clouds at least 300 m horizontally and at least 2000 ft vertically
B. Ground visibility at least 5 km, ceiling at least 1500 ft
C. Ground visibility at least 1500 m, clear of cloud
D. Visual contact to the ground, flight visibility at least 1500 m, clear of cloud

A

D. Visual contact to the ground, flight visibility at least 1500 m, clear of cloud

211
Q

Is a specific distance from cloud prescribed for VFR flights in Class G airspace at and below 3000 ft AMSL/1000 ft AGL?

A. No
B. Yes, at least 1.5 km horizontally and at least 1000 ft vertically
C. Yes, at least 1.5 km horizontally
D. Yes, at least 1.5 NM horizontally

212
Q

In which class of airspace may special VFR flights be conducted?

A. In Classes C and D airspace
B. In Class D airspace (CTR)
C. In Class E airspace
D. Only at FL 100 and above

A

B. In Class D airspace (CTR)

213
Q

When shall the standard altimeter setting be used during VFR flights?

A. On flights below 5000 ft AMSL
B. On flights above 5000 ft AMSL or 2000 ft AGL, if this level exceeds 5000 ft AMSL
C. On flights up to 5000 ft AGL
D. Various regulations apply in this case

A

B. On flights above 5000 ft AMSL or 2000 ft AGL, if this level exceeds 5000 ft AMSL

214
Q

On VFR flights above an altitude of 5000 ft AMSL or 2000 ft AGL, if this level exceeds 5000 ft AMSL, the altimeter shall be set to:

A. QFF
B. QNH
C. 1013.2 hPa
D. QFE

A

C. 1013.2 hPa

215
Q

On VFR flights up to an altitude of 5000 ft AMSL or 2000 ft AGL, if this level exceeds 5000 ft AMSL, the altimeter shall be set to:

A. the QNH of the nearest airport
B. the QFE of the nearest controlled aerodrome
C. the QNH of the aerodrome with ATC unit nearest to route of flight
D. 1013.2 hPa

A

C. the QNH of the aerodrome with ATC unit nearest to route of flight

216
Q

How is the sector calculated for semi-circular cruising levels under visual flight rules? On the basis of …

A. the magnetic track
B. the true chart heading
C. the compass heading
D. the true track

A

A. the magnetic track

217
Q

Which flight level(s) shall be used on VFR flights on a magnetic track of 135° with standard altimeter setting?

A. 60, 80, 100
B. 50, 70, 90
C. 65, 85, 105
D. 55, 75, 95

A

D. 55, 75, 95

218
Q

Which Flight Information Regions (FIR) under German jurisdiction are there in the lower airspace?

A. Berlin, Hannover, Maastricht, Rhein, Langen
B. Bremen, Berlin, Hannover, Düsseldorf, Stuttgart
C. Berlin, Hamburg, Frankfurt, Munich
D. Bremen, Langen, Munich

A

D. Bremen, Langen, Munich

219
Q

A radio mandatory zone (RMZ) reaches up to an altitude of …

A. 1000 ft AMSL
B. 1000 ft AGL
C. 3000 ft AMSL
D. 2500 ft AGL

A

B. 1000 ft AGL

220
Q

A radio mandatory zone (RMZ) reaches from the ground to …

A. 1000 ft AGL
B. 1700 ft AGL
C. 1700 ft AGL
D. 2500 ft AGL

A

A. 1000 ft AGL

221
Q

Control zones in Germany are classified …

A. mainly as Class D airspace, but in a few cases as Class C airspace
B. around airports as Class C airspace, for the rest as Class D airspace
C. as Class D airspace
D. around military aerodromes as Class B airspace, around airports as Class C airspace, and for the rest as Class D airspace

A

C. as Class D airspace

222
Q

A transit flight through an “HX”-designated control zone outside the hours of operation is possible without clearance if the pilot …

A. prior to the transit flight obtains confirmation from the competent aerodrome control tower (TWR), outside the time TWR is operating, from the aerodrome flight information service INFO or from the flight information service FIS, tha the control zone is not operational
B. has obtained written authorization from the aerodrome commander
C. obtains confirmation from the military ATC prior to commencing the transit flight that the control zone is not operational
D. confirms by means of the AIP that the control zone is not operational

A

A. prior to the transit flight obtains confirmation from the competent aerodrome control tower (TWR), outside the time TWR is operating, from the aerodrome flight information service INFO or from the flight information service FIS, tha the control zone is not operational

223
Q

Which airspace classes are considered controlled airspace?

A. C,D,F
B. C,D,E
C. E,F,G
D. C,E,F

224
Q

Class E airspace extends, unless otherwise classified, …

A. from 1000 ft and 1700 ft AGL, otherwise from 5000 ft AMSL to FL 200
B. from 1000 ft AGL and 1700 ft AGL, otherwise from 2500 ft AGL to FL 100
C. from 1000 ft and 1700 ft AGL to 5000 ft AMSL
D. from 1000 ft and 1700 ft AGL, otherwise from 2500 ft AGL to FL 200

A

B. from 1000 ft AGL and 1700 ft AGL, otherwise from 2500 ft AGL to FL 100

225
Q

An “ED-R…” area is a …

A. restricted area
B. danger area
C. prohibited area
D. restricted area for gliders

A

A. restricted area

226
Q

An “ED-D…” area is a …

A. danger area
B. restricted area
C. military exercise area
D. prohibited area

A

A. danger area

227
Q

When shall aircraft performing VFR cross-country flights be equipped with a VHF transceiver?

A. Only on flights to and from aerodromes without air traffic control
B. Only on international flights
C. Always
D. Only on flights to controlled aerodromes

228
Q

VFR flights over continuous cloud cover …

A. may not be performed
B. may be performed if the aircraft is equipped with at least a VHF transceiver and a VOR receiver or with an ADF
C. may be performed only with a CVFR rating
D. may be performed only after ATC clearance

A

B. may be performed if the aircraft is equipped with at least a VHF transceiver and a VOR receiver or with an ADF

229
Q

Aircraft on VFR flights shall be equipped with an transponder …

A. in Classes C or D airspaces (non-control zone)
B. in Classes C or G airspaces
C. not require
D. in Classes G or D airspaces (non-control zone)

A

A. in Classes C or D airspaces (non-control zone)

230
Q

Which transponder mode/code shall be set unrequested by powered aircraft on VFR flights in Class airspace above 5000 ft AMSL or 3500 ft AGL, whichever is higher?

A. A/C 7700
B. A/C 7600
C. The transponder shall not be used without request
D. A/C 7000

A

D. A/C 7000

231
Q

During descent from FL 85 to 3500 ft AMSL the pilot of a powered aircraft, prior to reaching the new cruisin level, shall set the altimeter and the transponder as follows:

A. altimeter to QNH 1013.2 hPa and transponder to “STAND-BY”
B. altimeter to QNH and maintain mode A/C code 7000
C. altimeter to QNH and maintain mode A/C code 7600
D. altimeter to QNH 1013.2 hPa and transponder to mode A/C code 7600

A

B. altimeter to QNH and maintain mode A/C code 7000

232
Q

In transponder mandatory zones (TMZ), aircraft on VFR flights shall be equipped with an …

A. automatic altitude reporting transponder which emits code 7500 without request
B. automatic altitude reporting transponder which emits code 7600 without request
C. automatic altitude reporting transponder which emits code 7000 without request
D. automatic altitude reporting transponder which emits code 7700 without request

A

C. automatic altitude reporting transponder which emits code 7000 without request

233
Q

What is the meaning of the term “AIRCRAFT-TO-STATION BEARING”?

A. Position fixing by use of on-board navigation equipment
B. Terrestrial navigation
C. Position fixing by use of radar on the ground
D. Cross bearing by means of radio navigation stations

A

A. Position fixing by use of on-board navigation equipment

234
Q

Which radio navigation equipment can be used for ground direction finding?

A. VOR/DME unit
B. NDB unit
C. VHF direction-finding station (VDF)
D. TACAN unit

A

C. VHF direction-finding station (VDF)

235
Q

The identification of a VHF omnidirectional radio range (VOR) generally consists of …

A. a flashing signal
B. three Morse code letters
C. a call sign
D. two Morse code letters

A

B. three Morse code letters

236
Q

A VOR indicator is considered a “command unit” when …

A. the display reads “FROM” and the aircraft is flying away from the VOR station
B. the display reads “TO” and the aircraft is flying away from the VOR station
C. the display reads “OFF” and the aircraft is approaching the VOR station
D. the display reads “FROM” and the aircraft is approaching the VOR station

A

A. the display reads “FROM” and the aircraft is flying away from the VOR station

237
Q

What does the receiving range of a VHF omnidirectional radio range (VOR) depend on?

A. Type of aircraft’
B. Flight level of the aircraft
C. Speed of the aircraft
D. Aircraft heading

A

B. Flight level of the aircraft

238
Q

The knob marked “OBS” on the VOR indicator is the …

A. frequency selector
B. omni bearing selector
C. volume control
D. TO/FROM switch

A

B. omni bearing selector

239
Q

Which direction is the radial of a VOR station related to?

A. QTE
B. Longitudinal axis of the aircraft
C. Magnetic north
D. True north

A

C. Magnetic north

240
Q

The VHF omnidirectional radio range (VOR) operates in the frequency band …

A. 108 MHz to 117.975 MHz
B. 200 MHz to 1750 MHz
C. 200 MHz to 1750 MHz
D. 118 MHz to 137 MHz

A

A. 108 MHz to 117.975 MHz

241
Q

When does the TO/FROM indicator on the VOR indicator change from “TO” to “FROM”?

A. When the heading is changed by 90°
B. When the heading is changed by 180°
C. When the aircraft flies over the VOR station
D. When the IDENT button is activated

A

C. When the aircraft flies over the VOR station

242
Q

An aircraft approaches a VOR station which is set to 320°, and the direction displayed is “TO”. The cours deviation indicator (CDI) moves to the left. Where is the aircraft?

A. Left of the radial
B. Right of the radial
C. Over the radial
D. South of the radial

A

B. Right of the radial

243
Q

An aircraft equipped with a VOR receiver intends to fly to a VOR station on the shortest route. Which of th following statements is correct? The omni bearing selector is turned until …

A. the vertical needle with a “TO flag” deflects fully to the left. The value displayed indicates the shortest route to the station
B. the horizontal needle has reached the central position and the “OFF flag” disappears. The value displayed indicates the direct heading to the station
C. the vertical needle has reached the central position and the TO/FROM indicator reads “FROM”. The value displayed indicates the direct heading to the station
D. the vertical needle has reached the central position and the TO/FROM indicator reads “TO”. The value displaye by the VOR receiver indicates the direct heading to the station

A

D. the vertical needle has reached the central position and the TO/FROM indicator reads “TO”. The value displaye by the VOR receiver indicates the direct heading to the station

244
Q

What angular displacement from the radial is represented by each dot on the VOR indicator?

A. 2°
B. 10°
C. 5°
D. 1°

245
Q

The ICAO 1:500000 aeronautical chart contains a reference to “TRENT 108.45 TRT”. What type of radio navigation aid is this?

A. Very high frequency direction-finding station (VDF)
B. VHF omnidirectional radio range (VOR)
C. Non-directional radio beacon (NDB)
D. Instrument landing system (ILS)

A

B. VHF omnidirectional radio range (VOR)

246
Q

During the approach to a VOR station, the OFF flag appears just before the calculated time of crossing. What is the probable reason?

A. The VOR receiver has broken down
B. The VOR station has broken down
C. The aircraft is above the station
D. The TO/FROM indicator is defective

A

C. The aircraft is above the station

247
Q

The direction of a VOR radial corresponds to the …

A. QUJ
B. QTE
C. QDM
D. QDR

248
Q

What does the identification of a non-directional radio beacon (NDB) consist of?

A. Two or three Morse code letters
B. Two or three Morse code digits
C. Morse code digits and letters
D. Voice identification

A

A. Two or three Morse code letters

249
Q

Non-directional radio beacons (NDBs) generally have a designated operational range of …

A. 15 NM to 100 NM
B. 25 NM maximum
C. 60 NM minimum
D. far more than 100 NM

A

A. 15 NM to 100 NM

250
Q

Non-directional radio beacons (NDBs) operate in the …

A. VHF band
B. LW and MW band
C. SW band
D. UHF band

A

B. LW and MW band

251
Q

Which airborne navigation equipment can receive an NDB?

A. Marker receiver
B. VOR receiver
C. Automatic direction-finder (ADF)
D. ILS receiver

A

C. Automatic direction-finder (ADF)

252
Q

Which angle is displayed on the radio-bearing indicator (RBI) of the automatic direction-finder (ADF)? The angle between …

A. magnetic north and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft
B. true north and the tuned NDB
C. true and magnetic north
D. longitudinal axis of the aircraft and the direction to the tuned NDB

A

D. longitudinal axis of the aircraft and the direction to the tuned NDB

253
Q

The magnetic heading of an aircraft is 155°. The relative bearing is 025°. What is the QDM?

A. 360°
B. 130°
C. 180°
D. 025°

254
Q

Which equipment on board an aircraft is necessary for navigation by means of radio direction-finding stations?

A. VHF radiotelephone
B. Transponder
C. ADF
D. VOR receiver

A

A. VHF radiotelephone

255
Q

An aircraft flies on a magnetic heading of 090°. The QDR transmitted is 180°. Where is the radio direction- finding station?

A. To the right of the flight path
B. To the left of the flight path
C. Ahead
D. South of the flight path

A

B. To the left of the flight path

256
Q

A QDM of 225° is received from an aeronautical station equipped with a VHF direction finder. Where is the aircraft?

A. South-east of the station
B. South-east of the station
C. South-west of the station
D. North-east of the station

A

D. North-east of the station

257
Q

What is the purpose of secondary radar in air traffic control?

A. Identification of aircraft, and receipt of additional information concerning VFR flights
B. Early identification of bad-weather areas
C. Determination of the true airspeed of aircraft
D. Position fixing by the pilot

A

A. Identification of aircraft, and receipt of additional information concerning VFR flights

258
Q

What information can a pilot obtain from a radar-equipped ATC unit?

A. True airspeed of the aircraft
B. Flight attitude of the aircraft
C. Position of the aircraft
D. Intended flight path

A

C. Position of the aircraft

259
Q

In aviation, the abbreviation “GPS” stands for:

A. Geographical Point System
B. Global Positioning System
C. Great Circle Planning Screen
D. GAT Positioning System

A

B. Global Positioning System

260
Q

In aviation, the abbreviation “GNSS” stands for:

A. Ground-based Radionavigation System
B. Procedure for Aircraft Positioning on the Apron
C. Global System for the Standardisation of Terrestrial Navigation
D. Global Navigation Satellite System

A

D. Global Navigation Satellite System

261
Q

What is a GPS receiver on board an aircraft used for?

A. Evaluation and display of satellite signals for navigational purposes (e.g. position, course, speed, distance)
B. Position fixing by means of on-board radar
C. Determination of the distance to other aircraft
D. Evaluation of signals of ground-based radio navigation systems for position and course fixing

A

A. Evaluation and display of satellite signals for navigational purposes (e.g. position, course, speed, distance)

BZF E (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions