By the Numbers Flashcards

1
Q

Gross weight with fuel and two souls

A

12,800 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

One engine thrust, Mil/Max

A

2200/3300

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Fuel flow for one engine, MAX at rest and Mach 1

A

7300, 11,400 lb/hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Pushing start arms the ignition circuit for

A

30 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

One engine normal oil capacity and air expansion space

A

4qt, 1 qt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Gravity flow guaranteed to ____ altitude

A

6,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Fuel cutoff switches operated by ___ and cut off fuel in ____

A

DC, 1 second

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Fuel low level light comes on after ____ sec below ____ amount

A

7.5, 250 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Gearbox shift occurs at ____ range

A

65-75%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Voltage of battery is ___ V and DC rectifiers is ____ V

A

24, 28

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

AC system provides ___/___ V

A

115/200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

AC generators cut-in between

A

43-48%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Min battery voltage of ___ is required to close battery relay

A

18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Left engine provides ____ psi for ____ system

A

3200, utility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Right engine provides ____ psi for ____ system

A

3200, flight control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Hyd low pressure light comes on at ____ psi, and goes back out at ____ psi

A

1500, 1800

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Rudder limited to ____ deg each side when nosegear out 3/4 or less

A

6 deg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Landing gear extension/retraction takes approximately ___ sec

A

6 sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Gear horn and warning light come on when gear not down and locked and ____ kts or less, altitude ____ or below, and both throttles below ____

A

210kts, 10,000, 96%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When accelerating, gear light may not go out until ____

A

240 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Landing gear alt release pulled out ____ inches, and requires ____ sec

A

10 in, 15-35 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Rear canopy follows front by ___ after canopy jettisons

A

1 sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Aneroid delays parachute opening until between

A

15,000 to 11,500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Seat ejection occurs at ____ after canopy jettison

A

0.3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Fuel for left engine is ____ gal serviced/usable and ____ lbs usable

A

293/286 gal, 1916 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Fuel for right engine is ____ gal serviced/usable and ____ lbs usable

A

305/297 gal, 1990 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Total fuel is ____ gal serviced/usable and ____ lbs usable

A

598/583 gal, 3906 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

With single-engine and less than ____ in either system, leave both boost pumps on and crossfeed on

A

250 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

A minimum of ____ RPM is required to achieve any engine fuel flow

A

12-14%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

____% RPM is the heart of the air start envelope at any altitude

A

18-20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Ignition must occur before fuel flow reaches ____

A

360 lb/hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

After aborted start, wait ____ min before attempting another start

A

2 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

If EGT doesn’t rise within ____ sec of fuel flow indication, abort start

A

12 sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Flaps should be +/- _____ of 60% position

A

5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Normal rotation speed on initial takeoff is ____

A

141 KIAS (This is rounded to 145)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Normal liftoff speed on initial takeoff is ____

A

164 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Delay takeoff a min of ____ behind large aircraft and ____ heavy aircraft

A

2, 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

With a crosswind greater than ____, spacing behind large/heavy aircraft can be reduced

A

5 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Abort takeoff if either afterburner doesn’t light within ____ sec

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Final turn airspeed is ____ plus 1 knot for every 100 lbs of fuel over 1000 lbs

A

180 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Final approach airspeed is ____ plus 1 knot for every 100 lbs of fuel over 1000 lbs

A

160 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Touchdown speed is ____ plus 1 knot for every 100 lbs of fuel over 1000 lbs

A

135 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Minimum hydraulic pressure is ____

A

1500 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Each generator is ____ phase

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The O2 light comes on at or below ____ liter, may blink at or below ____

A

1, 3 liters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Below ____, the engine anti ice is always open, regardless of switch position

A

65%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

There are ____ rotating beacons, located ____

A

2, tail and lower fuselage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

There are ____ position lights, located ____

A

4, tail, lower fuselage, and each wing

49
Q

Battery energizes the DC bus for ____

A

15 minutes at 80% power

50
Q

If oil pressure is high during cold weather, should be in limits within ____

A

6 minutes

51
Q

The radio attenuation switch reduces UHF and VHF volume by ____

A

66%

52
Q

IDENT sends a pulse with transponder replies for ____ seconds

A

15

53
Q

Standby ADI provides ____ deg climb, ____ deg dive, ____ deg roll capacity, and provides ____ minutes of useful info within +/- ____ after DC failure

A

92, 78, 360 deg, 9 min, +/-6 deg

54
Q

Maintain a minimum of ____ RPM to ensure effective anti-ice operation

A

80%

55
Q

Due to oil supply restriction, zero G flight restricted to ____

A

10 sec

56
Q

Rudder system failure may push rudder to ____ deg

A

30

57
Q

Stab aug system failure may push rudder to ____ deg

A

2

58
Q

Touchdown greater than ____ KCAS should not be attempted

A

200

59
Q

With asymmetric flaps, maintain ____ kts above final appr/touchdown speed

A

20

60
Q

Do not touchdown with less than ____ kts with asymmetric flaps

A

165

61
Q

On SE go-around, climb only as necessary until reaching ____ kts

A

200

62
Q

When landing with all gear up, touch down ____ kts faster than normal

A

10

63
Q

Maximum for nosewheel on the runway is

A

174 knots

64
Q

Estimation for landing roll is ____ ft plus fuel (not including 1000 ft down)

A

2500

65
Q

Landing roll approximately ____ for no flap landing

A

Doubled

66
Q

Anti-ice will cause a loss of ____ % thrust in MIL and ____ in MAX

A

8.5%, 5.5%

67
Q

If flap-slap interconnect fails and flaps are needed for landing, ____% flaps provides adequate control authority and controllable stick forces

A

30-45%

68
Q

Pressure reg. maintain cabin altitude of ____ +/- ____ from ____ altitude to ____ altitude

A

8000 +/-2, 8,000 to 23,000

69
Q

Avoid MAX thrust dives when below ____ lb in either tank

A

650

70
Q

Use ____ knots as a go/no go speed for simple tire failure

A

100 kts

71
Q

Increase final approach speed and touchdown speed by ____ gust factor

A

1/2

72
Q

Increase final turn, approach, and touchdown speed by ____ kts for a no flap landing

A

15 knots

73
Q

How many seconds until full parachute deployment?

A

3.42 seconds

74
Q

Landing light retraction takes ____ seconds

A

10 seconds

75
Q

AOA max range is ____. Max endurance/best angle of climb is ____

A

.18, .3

76
Q

Nozzles should stabilize within ____ sec after rapid throttle movements

A

10 seconds

77
Q

Max allowable sink rate for landing: ___ fpm normal landing and ____ fpm crab landing (>1700 lbs fuel) and ____, _____ for

A

340, 200, 590, 395

78
Q

First 4.25” of stick travel provides ____ aileron deflection

A

50%

79
Q

Next 1.5” of stick travel provides ____ aileron deflection

A

Full

80
Q

Crossfeed recommended with fuel imbalance of ____ or greater

A

200 lbs

81
Q

Holding airspeed:

A

250-265 kts

82
Q

Radar pattern typically burns ____ fuel

A

325 lbs

83
Q

Turbulent air/thunderstorm penetration speed is ____ kts

A

280 kts

84
Q

Climb possible at SETOS is ____ fpm

A

100

85
Q

Climb increased by ___ fpm each kt between SETOS - SETOS+10

A

8-50

86
Q

Gear retraction may take ____ when retracted between SETOS+10 and 200

A

1 min

87
Q

If unable to retract gear, best climb at ____ for 60% flaps, ____ at 0% flaps

A

200 kts, 220 kts

88
Q

Optimum pitch for ejection zoom:

A

20 deg

89
Q

With loss of canopy, slow to ____ kts, min drag occurs at ____ kts

A

300, 225

90
Q

If on hydraulic system reads zero, hydraulic system transfer may occur, and flight time could be limited to _____ min

A

35

91
Q

Controllability check should be accomplished at ____ AGL or higher

A

6,000 ft

92
Q

Maintain ____ kts above min controllable airspeed in descent/landing approach

A

20 kts

93
Q

Best glide speed is ____ kts + 1 knot/100 lbs fuel

A

230

94
Q

Multiply altitude in thousands of feet by ____ for glide distance in NM

A

1.7

95
Q

Max crosswind, dry runway

A

30

96
Q

Max crosswind, wet runway

A

20

97
Q

Max crosswind, icy or standing water

A

10

98
Q

Max crosswind, dry runway, single ship touch & go

A

25 kts

99
Q

Max crosswind for solo students (dry/wet)

A

15/10 kts

100
Q

Minimum runway length for takeoff/landing is ____

A

8,000 ft

101
Q

No flap landings are not accomplished with ____ lbs or greater of fuel

A

2500 lbs

102
Q

Low level min and max airseed

A

300, 420

103
Q

Simulated single engine go-around must be accomplished by ___ (____ full flap)

A

100 ft, 300 ft AGL

104
Q

Perform all aerobatic maneuvers above ____

A

8,000 ft AGL

105
Q

Stall and slow flight must be performed between ____

A

8,000 ft - FL 200

106
Q

Min power setting for stalls and slow flight:

A

80%

107
Q

Nose high recoveries must be accomplished below ____

A

FL240

108
Q

Do not perform supersonic flight below ____ unless in an authorized airspace

A

FL300

109
Q

Solo students will not perform patterns and landings with ____ fuel or more

A

2500 lbs

110
Q

Normal minimum fuel for solo students is ____

A

800 lbs

111
Q

Minimum fuel:

A

600 lbs

112
Q

Emergency fuel:

A

400 lbs

113
Q

Min taxi interval is ____ staggered, ____ in trail

A

150 ft, 300 ft

114
Q

Restricted low approach must be initiated by ____ unless otherwise directed

A

500 ft AGL

115
Q

Chase aircraft in emergency can low approach down to ____

A

300 ft AGL

116
Q

For practice S/E approach, set “inop” engine at ____ rmp

A

60%

117
Q

Begin closed pull up with min of ____ kts, and maintain min of ____ kts

A

240 kts, 200 kts

118
Q

RPM of ____ should be sufficient for taxi

A

80%

119
Q

Rolling takeoffs may increase takeoff distance ____

A

150-300 ft