BV Flashcards

1
Q

What 4 things must you have for normal binocular vision?

A

equal ocular images
bifoveal fixation
motor fusion
sensory fusion

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2
Q

BI prism causes __vergence which is associated with NFV/PFV?

A

divergence

NFV

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3
Q

BO prism causes __vergence which is associated with NFV/PFV?

A

convergence

PFV

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4
Q

Non strabismus (phoria) is a type of ocular deviation which is only present if ______ ______ is disrupted; _______ ________ is present under normal seeing conditions

A

sensory fusion

bifoveal fixation

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5
Q

What are the 5 characteristics of the cover tests? (things to consider/record)

A
Direction
Magnitude
Speed of recovery from dissociation
Comitancy
Zone of functional binocular vision
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6
Q

What 5 things need to be assessed and managed with an ocular devation?

A
frequency
magnitude
direction
laterality
comitancy
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7
Q

If eso increases at near then the AC/A ratio is considered?

A

above average

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8
Q

if exo increases at near by ~3 prism dioptres then the AC/A is considered?

A

normal

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9
Q

If exo increases at near by&raquo_space;>3 prism dioptres then the AC/A is considered

A

below average

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10
Q

The unilateral cover test is the only way to determine whether a deviation is?

A

manifest

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11
Q

Alternating cover test reveals what sort of devations and allows measurement of what??

A

latent deviations

magnitude

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12
Q

Measuring a deviation with each eye fixating independently (ie measuring primary and secondary deviation) helps identify what kind of strabismus?

A

paretic strabismus

primary deviation = non-strabismic eye fixating

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13
Q

There are two subtypes of calculated AC/A which are?

A

calculated stimulus AC/A

calculated response AC/A

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14
Q

Calculated stimulus AC/A assumes what?

A

accurate accommodative response to target ie no lag or lead

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15
Q

For calculated response AC/A, what do you need to do?

A

measure accommodative response as significant lead or lag will alter AC/A ratio

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16
Q

Do a calculated AC/A for someone with distance phoria 5 exoP, near phoria 5 esoP with 60mm PD.

A

Stimulus to accommodation at distance = 0
Stimulus to accommodation at near = 2.5 (40cm)
Stimulus to convergence at distance = 0 prism D
Stimulus to convergence at near = 15 prism D (60/40 x 10) = 15 prism D
Amount of vergence response:
The demand is 15 prism D but have to overcome 5 exoP in distance and also overconverges 5 prism D at near so = 25 prism D
Therefore AC/A = 25/2.5 = 10/1

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17
Q

Gradient AC/A equation =

A

(deviation with lens - original deviation) / power of lens

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18
Q

Strabismus definition

A

a type of ocular deviation in which bifoveal fixation is not present under normal seeing conditions

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19
Q

The magnitude of a strabismus which is 4 degrees is equivalent to how many prism dioptres?

A

7

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20
Q

What are the three main causes incomitancies?

A

paresis of EOM (trauma, surgery)
cranial nerve palsy (III, IV, VI)
syndrome (Brown’s Tendon Sheath, Duane’s Retraction)

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21
Q

Thorington technique, Lancaster screen and Hess-Lancaster screen are used to evaluate what?

A

incomitancies due to EOM paresis by assessing eye position in different gaze directions

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22
Q

The primary action of the medial rectus is

A

adduction

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23
Q

The tertiary action of inferior and superior rectus are?

A

adduction

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24
Q

The superior obliques primary action is?

A

incycloduction

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25
Q

A 6th nerve palsy affects which EOM?

A

lateral rectus

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26
Q

A 4th nerve palsy affects which EOM?

A

superior oblique

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27
Q

Definition of Suppression

A

The lack of perception of normally visible objects in all or part of the field of vision of one eye occurring under binocular viewing conditions and attributed to cortical inhibition

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28
Q

What is a clinical test for suppression?

A
Any of the following:
Worth 4 light
Mallet unit
Bagolini lens
Sbiza bar
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29
Q

What is the clinical sign of suppression

A

No stereopsis

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30
Q

Definition of eccentric fixation

A

Fixation not employing the central foveal area under monocular conditions

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31
Q

Clinical tests for eccentric fixation

A

Any of the following:
Visuoscopy
Monocular corneal reflex test

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32
Q

Clinical signs of eccentric fixation

A

reduced VA in affected eye
strabismus
ARC

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33
Q

Normal retinal correspondence

A

Angle A = 0

Angle H = Angle S = 0

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34
Q

Anomalous retinal correspondence

A

Angle A ≠ 0

Angle H ≠ Angle S

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35
Q

Harmonius anomalous retinal correspondence (HARC)

A

H = A
S = 0
History of strab but no surgery

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36
Q

Unharmonius anomalous retinal correspondence (unHARC)

A

H ≠ A
S ≠ 0
Px with Hx strab and eye surgery

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37
Q

Typical unHARC

A

Angle H and S have same sign
H > S
Point ‘a’ between fovea (f) and area of regard (p)

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38
Q

Paradoxical type 1 (atypical unHARC)

A

Angle H and S have opposite sign
A > H
Point ‘p’ between ‘f’ and ‘a’
Px with partially corrected deviation with surgery

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39
Q

Paradoxical type 2 (atypical unHARC)

A

Angle H and S same sign
H and A opposite sign
S > H
f between a and p

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40
Q

Covariance

A

intermittent ARC
A = eye deviation
S = 0

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41
Q

Define Angle A

A

The angle of anomaly - the angle between the anatomical fovea and the pseudo-fovea (point a)

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42
Q

Define Angle H

A

The objective angle of strabismus - the angle between the fovea and the object of regard

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43
Q

Define Angle S

A

The subjective angle of strabismus - the angle between the pseudo-fovea and the object of regard

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44
Q

What 4 questions are important to ask during Hx of a strabismic child?

A

Age of onset
Constant or intermittent
Unilateral or alternating
Torticollis or diploplia?

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45
Q

What are the aims of strabismus management?

A
  1. Maintain/restore optimal VAs BE
  2. Maintain/restore BSV
  3. Detect any serious pathology or ocular disease
  4. Achieve cosmetically satisfactory alignment of eyes
  5. Correct abnormal head posture
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46
Q

What is Essential Infantile Esotropia (EIE)?

A

EsoT present before 6 months of age which is acquired in early life and is NOT eliminated by correction of hyperopia

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47
Q

What is Dissociated vertical deviation (DVD)?

A

Vertical anomaly which occurs when eye is deprived of light.
Eye elevates and extorts when amount of light entering is reduced and returns to original position when cover removed.

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48
Q

What is Manifest-latent Nystagmus (MLN)?

A

nystagmus that is worse when the eye is covered

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49
Q

Adv and disadv of early surgery to correct infantile esoT?

A

adv - better potential for binocularity due to reduced muscle contraction
disadv - may increase risk of ambly, difficulty in obtaining accurate measurements

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50
Q

Adv and disadv of late surgery to correct infantile esoT?

A

adv - ambly management easier, more reliable measures

disadv - reduced potential for development of BSV

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51
Q

What three conditions do you not want to do strabismus operation on?

A

fully accommodative esoT
variable angle of deviation
large angles unlikely to obtain BSV

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52
Q

What is the definition of amblyopia?

A

reduced BCVA in the absence of ocular pathology and in the presence of an amblyogenic risk factor

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53
Q

Signs of amblyopia (5)

A
reduced VA
increased sensitivity to effects of contour interaction
unsteady and unstable fixation
reduced contrast sensitivity
inaccurate accommodation
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54
Q

DDx of amblyopia (4)

A

brain tumour affecting visual pathway
retinal disease
optic nerve disease
malingering

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55
Q

Risk factors for amblyopia

A
  • infants born premature, small for gestational age or have first degree relative with ambly
  • children with neuro-developmental delay
  • infants who experience form deprivation
  • ametropia, anisometropia, isometropia
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56
Q

Patching for treatment of amblyopia should be considered only after?

A

amblyogenic factor removed and adaptation to refractive correction occured

57
Q

What are the methods of penalisation for Tx of ambly?

A

Patching
Bangerter filters
Pharmacological penalisation

58
Q

Define ocular image

A

the final perceptual cortical image of the retinal image

59
Q

Define heterophoria

A

neuromuscular bias that determines the position of the eyes when no stimulus to fusion is present

60
Q

Define fixation disparity

A

residual misalignment of foveae within Panum’s fusional area that remains after vergence system compensates for neuromuscular bias

61
Q

Fixation disparity is also known as _____ _____ and is usually measured clinically with?

A

associated phoria

prisms and mallet unit

62
Q

When measuring fusional vergence reserves: What does the blur point represent?

A

limit of convergence/accommodation relationship

63
Q

When measuring fusional vergence reserves: What the break point represent?

A

limit of fusional vergence

64
Q

What is the difference between calculated and gradient AC/A ratio?

A

with calculated AC/A ratio the stimulus to accommodation is changed by changing the working distance whereas in gradient AC/A it is changed by placing plus/minus lenses in front of the Rx

65
Q

What 3 techniques can you use to evaluate incomitancies due to EOM paresis?

A
  • assessing eye position in different gaze direction
  • cover test (Park’s three step)
  • Broad H test
66
Q

Give the three muscle sequelae after EOM paresis using example of paresis of RLR

A
  1. Overaction of contralateral synergist = LMR
  2. Overaction of ipsilateral antagonist = RMR
  3. Secondary underaction of contralateral antagonist
67
Q

What is the one object method for measuring pathological diplopia

A

Thorington technique with maddox rod

68
Q

What are the two object methods for measuring pathological diplopia (3)

A
  • anaglyphic (Hess-Lancaster Test)
  • Brewster stereoscope
  • Wheatstone stereoscope
69
Q

Do Park’s Three Step Test for the following on refill:

- Right hypertropia, worse on laevo-version and left head tilt

A

LSR is the paretic muscle

70
Q

Do Park’s Three Step Test for the following on refill:

- Right hypertropia worse on dextro-version and right head tilt

A

LIO is the paretic muscle

71
Q

Do Park’s Three Step Test for the following on refill:

- Left hypertropia worse on laevo-version and left head tilt

A

RIO is the paretic muscle

72
Q

Define aniseikonia

A

a relative difference in the size and/or shape of the ocular images

73
Q

What is acquired optical aniseikonia?

A

aniseikonia due to refractive lenses worn creating a difference in ocular image size

74
Q

If antisometropia is 100% refractive then what should be used?

A

isogonal lenses or CLs

75
Q

If antisometropia is 100% axial then what should be used?

A

spectacles designed for specific vertex distance

76
Q

What is axial anisometropia?

A

axial anisometropia is a significant difference in refractive errors of the two eyes due to the difference in axial lengths

77
Q

What is the relationship between axial anisometropia and aniseikonia?

A

aniseikonia is present whether or not axial anisometropia is corrected or left uncorrected

78
Q

How can you substantially reduce aniseikonia due to axial anisometropia?

A

EBT lenses (equal base curve and thickness) placed at the appropriate vertex distance

79
Q

What is refractive anisometropia?

A

it is a significant difference in refractive errors of the two eyes due to the difference in corneal curvature and/or physiological lens power

80
Q

What is the main difference between axial anisometropia and refractive anisometropia in terms of aniseikonia?

A

refractive anisometropia does not produce aniseikonia uncorrected

81
Q

What is meridional aniseikonia?

A

aniseikonia in which there is a symmetrical merdional difference between the size of the ocular images of the two eyes, so that the ocular image in one meridian is larger or smaller than the corresponding meridian of the other eye

82
Q

What is anatomical aniseikonia?

A

aniseikonia due to an anatomical cause, such as unequal distribution of the retinal elements

83
Q

Comment on aniseikonia caused by retinally induced aniseikonia (5)

A
  • creates local aniseikonia
  • static aniseikonia is unrelated to dynamic aniseikonia
  • occasionally paradoxical aniseikonia
  • often need different lens designs for static and dynamic vision
  • classical lens design doesn’t often solve problem (occlusion usually best)
84
Q

What is local aniseikonia?

A

type of aniseikonia which is dependent on retinal location

85
Q

Sensory aniseikonia is also known as

A

static aniseikonia

86
Q

motor aniseikonia is also known as

A

dynamic aniseikonia

87
Q

Symptoms of aniseikonia are only produced if?

A

if the sensory fusion mechanisms are active

88
Q

What sort of symptoms can someone with aniseikonia present with?

A
  • HAs
  • asthenopia
  • photophobia
  • diplopia/confusion
  • reading difficulties
  • nausea
  • general fatigue and nervousness
  • space distortions
89
Q

Paediatric early onset aniseikonia can cause ____ _____ which can cause what?

A

unilateral suppression

amblyopia

90
Q

Paediatric late onset aniseikonia usually produces ____ because the cortical image in one eye is not suppressed and the aniseikonia precludes binocular fusion

A

diplopia

91
Q

What are the three major causes for amblyopia?

A
  • anisometropia producing suppression
  • strabismus producing suppression
  • monocular and/or binocular form deprivation
92
Q

What is a method for measuring the stereoscopic spatial distortion (aniseikonia)?

A

Remole Eikonometer - Px looks through eikonometer which has many rods. Rods are adjusted until they give the perception that they are all in the same plane

93
Q

Dynamic aniseikonia can be measured using what technique?

A

Robertson technique

94
Q

How much % of aniseikonia should you correct for someone with dynamic aniseikonia?

A

2/3

95
Q

Assign the correct sign (+/-) for the following directions:

  1. Right hyper
  2. Left hypo
  3. Right hypo
  4. Left hyper
A
  1. +
  2. +
  3. -
  4. -
96
Q

Why must we gradually increase the stimulus to vergence when measuring PFV and NFV?

A

Gradually increasing the retinal disparity provides a ramp stimulus

97
Q

Why must we record the first sustained blur instead of first perceived blur?

A

Because this is the point at which the vergence and accommodation systems are not able to make up for the vergence demand

98
Q

How do we measure the vergence and accommodative responses to a step stimulus (how do we measure voluntary vergence - vergence accommodation)? (3)

A
  • Recovery on unilateral cover test
  • Recovery on NPC
  • Recovery when large prism amounts are introduced before the eyes
99
Q

Sheard’s criterion is used for what sort of phoria and states?

A

exophorias

reserve must be at least twice the demand

100
Q

Percival’s criterion is used for what sort of deviations and states? (3)

A

eso deviations
the greater reserve must not be more than twice the lesser opposing reserve OR the demand point for the testing distance should fall within the middle third of the motor fusion range

101
Q

Define sensory fusion

A

the process by which stimuli is seen separately by the two eyes are combined into a single percept. Under normal binocular conditions this occurs when the same object stimulates corresponding retinal areas

102
Q

Describe tests used to assess sensory fusion

A
  1. Grade 1 sensory fusion - stereoscope or maddox rod + penlight technique - superimposition
  2. Grade 2 sensory fusion - Suppression monitors - one percept from two similar images
  3. Grade 3 sensory fusion - Titmus fly test - depth perception
103
Q

Describe the SILO effect

A

Smaller In Larger Out.
Smaller percept when eyes are turned in as with base out prisms and larger percept when eyes are turned out as with base in prisms.
Occurs due to retinal image size constancy - as you diverge you expect the retinal image size to get smaller but because it is not changing it appears to become larger and move further away

104
Q

Describe suppression

A

the lack or inability of perception of normally visible objects in all or part of the field of vision of one eye, occurring only on simultaneous stimulation of both eyes and attributed to cortical inhibition

105
Q

How is the 4 prism dioptre test useful in assessing binocular vision?

A

Tests for suppression scotoma

  • eye with BO prism in front of it should adduct 4 prism dioptres
  • eye without prism should come back to the same position
106
Q

What 6 aspects of accommodation should be tested in an accommodative work-up?

A
  1. equal stimuli to accommodation
  2. AC/A ratios
  3. AOA - monocular and binocular
  4. Accuracy (lag/lead)
  5. Accommodative facility
  6. Sustained accommodation (fatigue)
107
Q

How do you test equal stimuli to accommodation for distance and near?

A

distance - binocular refraction and balancing technique

near - NV-100 (Mallet box) or dynamic ret

108
Q
Px has:
- PD of 6cm 
- Dist 5 exoP
- Near 5 esoP
What is the calculated AC/A?
A

10 prism dioptres/1D

109
Q
Px:
- 6cm PD
- Dist 12 exoP
- AC/A = 12/1
What is the Pxs near deviation?
A

3 esoP
12 x 2.5 (STA) = 30
30-12-15 = 3 eso

110
Q
Px:
- Gradient AC/A = 8/1
- Near 12 esoP
- WD = 40cm
What is the ocular deviation through reading addition of +1.00, +2.00 and through maximum reading addition?
A

+1.00 = 4 esoP
+2.00 = 4 exoP
max reading = +2.50 = 8 exoP

111
Q
Px:
- PD 6cm
- Dist 5 exoP
- Near 5 esoP
- Accommodative lag = 1.00D
Work out calculated and response AC/A
A

Calculated AC/A = 10/1
Response AC/A = 16.7 prism dioptres/1D
(STA - lag = 2.5 - 1 = 1.5 –> STC/STA = 25/1.5 = 16.7/1)

112
Q
PD 6cm
Dist 5 exoP
Near 15 exoP
Accommodative lag = 1.00D
Work out calculated and response AC/A
A
Calculated = 2 prism D/1D
Response = 5/1.5 = 3.33 prism dioptres/1D
113
Q

What are the two methods of measuring monocular AOA?

A
  1. push-up technique with near target

2. Sheard’s technique (minus lens technique) - minus lenses introduced until sustained blur

114
Q

Why may the push-up technique be difficult for paediatric patients and how can you adapt this technique for them?

A

Children may find it difficult to judge when the target becomes blurry.
Push the target in to where you know it will be blurry and pull it away. The distance at which the child can first identify the letter is assumed to give the AOA

115
Q

A binocular AOA that is lower than the monocular counterpart observed with the push-up technique is indicative of?

A

a vergence problem

116
Q

Which method is not appropriate for measuring binocular AOA and why?

A

Sheard’s technique because when done binocularly the result is affected by vergence

117
Q

how can sustained accommodation (fatigue) be observed?

A

accommodative facility that is initially normal but reduces over time

118
Q

What are three sensory adaptations to strabismus?

A

Suppression
Eccentric fixation
Anomalous retinal correspondence

119
Q

The monocular corneal reflex test is a method of testing what? Describe this test

A

Eccentric fixation

  1. Penlight at 50cm
  2. Compare location of corneal reflex of the ‘normal’ eye with suspected eye
  3. Record the angle in mm from centre of pupil (1mm = 22 prism dioptres)
120
Q

Define ARC

A

A binocular condition where the fovea of one eye has the same directional value as an afoveal point of the other eye

121
Q

Describe the Hering-Bielschowsky After Image Test

A
  • flash one eye with thin vertical light (with middle portion missing) and the other with a horizontal light (same as vertical).
  • Px gets an after image for each eye and the perception of the images which is reported tells us about their retinal correspondence
122
Q

Name 3 signs of divergence insufficiency

A
  • Low NFV at distance (key clinical sign)
  • esoP greater at distance
  • low AC/A ratio
123
Q

DDx for divergence insufficiency (4)

A
  • 6th nerve palsy/paresis
  • convergence excess
  • basic esophoria
  • divergence paralysis
124
Q

Give three symptoms of divergence insufficiency

A
  • intermittent double vision at distance
  • diplopia worsens if tired
  • H/As
  • asthenopia
  • blurred vision
  • sensitivity to light
  • motion sickness
  • nausea
125
Q

Tx of divergence insufficiency (3) and describe

A

1) correction of ametropia
- rarely any effect on angle of deviation
- Prescribe maximum plus to reduce deviation)
2) Prism
- correct vertical deviations.
- Horizontal prism most effective Tx approach - Prescribe based on minimum amount that relieves fixation disparity (BO relieving prism for full time dist wear)
3) Vision therapy
Goals are:
- improve NFV (start close and gradually move out further)
- develop feeling of diverging
- normalise accommodative amplitudes/facility (if any abnormality)
- Final step is to normalise distance NFV

126
Q

Infantile esotropia age of onset and signs (5 signs)

A

2-4 months

  • large angle constant deviation (40-60PD)
  • may have cross fixation
  • low to moderate hyperopia
  • amblyopia
  • latent/manifest nystagmus
127
Q

signs of accommodative esotropia (age of onset 1-7 yo w/ average 2.5 years) 3 marks

A
  • may be fully or partially accommodative
  • angle 10-35PD, rarely >40
  • AC/A ratio dictates difference between distance and near angles
128
Q

Aetiology of fully refractive accommodative esotropia

A

uncorrected hyperopia

129
Q

management of fully refractive accommodative esotropia (2 ish)

A
  1. full hyperopic correction - relaxes accommodation and fully corrects esotropia
  2. no surgery
130
Q

aetiology of partially refractive accommodative esotropia

A

partial accommodative element with superimposed basal deviation

131
Q

management of partially refractive accommodative esotropia (3)

A
  1. full hyperopic correction - relaxes accommodation and reduces esoT
  2. measure remaining esoT and correct with relieving BO prisms (prisms can be split or put in non-dominant eye)
  3. surgery if necessary (optical correction still needed afterwards)
132
Q

Comment on the characteristics of convergence excess in terms of deviation, AC/A ratio, PFV/NFV, stereopsis, AOA, facility, dynamic ret, BMA/BPA, suppression (9)

A
  1. eso deviation
    - insignificant eso deviation at distance
    - significant eso deviation at near - there is usually an over-convergence resulting in an esotropia when viewing a point closer than the NPC
  2. Stimulus calculated AC/A ratio is higher than normal and response calculated AC/A is even higher
  3. PFV at near is often excessive and if NFV is present it is insufficient to meet Percival’s criterion (due to excessive PFV)
  4. Stereopsis - inside NPC stereopsis is absent. Outside the NPC the threshold of stereopsis is generally good
  5. Decreased BMA due to reduced NFV reserves
  6. Suppression
    - if suppression exists - usually intermittent
    - if suppression absent - diplopia and esoT is intermittent
    - if suppression intermittent - esotropia is intermittent
  7. High MEM
  8. Normal AOA
  9. Fails to clear minus on binocular facility
133
Q

Symptoms of convergence excess (3 main with specific symptoms)

A
  1. visual discomfort
    - ocular fatigue
    - H/As
    - asthenopia
  2. Unstable vergence/accommodation system
    - intermittent blur at near
    - diplopia at near
    - squinting
  3. no desire to do work
    - affects academic performance
    - affects productivity in workforce
134
Q

Aetiology of convergence excess (3)

A
  1. Hereditary
    - inheritance factor with large eso deviation
  2. Sensory factors
    - any disruption with sensory integration will reduce measurements of NFV leading to CE
  3. Motor factors
    - high stimulus and response calculated AC/A ratio may be assoc with hyperopia and/or basal deviation
    - excessive PFV
135
Q

Management of convergence excess (4)

A
  1. full hyperopic correction
  2. relieving prisms for residual esotropia at distance
  3. plus addition for residual esotropia at near
  4. usually no surgery necessary (bifocal correction needed afterwards if done)
136
Q

Prognosis of CE

A
  • hyperopia left uncorrected - esoT may become constant and lead to ambly
  • later Tx –> poorer prog
137
Q

DDx of CE (4)

A
  • basic esoP
  • divergence insufficiency
  • accommodative spasm assoc with inflam/drugs
  • accommodative disorders
138
Q

Vision therapy goals for CE

A
  • normalise NFV amplitudes
  • develop voluntary convergence/divergence
  • normalise accommodative amplitude/facility
139
Q

When should vision therapy for CE be considered? (3)

A

where NFV very low, large esoP and symptomatic after spectacle wear