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Buzz words > Buzz words Hippo > Flashcards

Buzz words Hippo Flashcards

1
Q

Sail Sign/posterior fat pad

A

supracondylar humeral fracture

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2
Q

Positive straight leg w/absent patella reflex - name the nerve root

A

L4

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3
Q

Fevers, malaise, arthalgia, skin infections in child - what is most common cancer and what will you find in the blood?

A

This patient is suspected to have acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) which is the most common childhood malignancy; it peaks between ages 3-7 yo. A CBC will show a pancytopenia with >30% blast cells in the marrow.

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4
Q

Auer rods

A

acute myelogenous leukemia (AML) which is the most common form of leukemia in adults with most patients being older than 50yo.

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5
Q

Megakaryoblastic AML

A

patients under the age of 5 who have Down syndrome

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6
Q

24-hour urine shows Bence-Jones proteins

A

multiple myeloma. This is another disorder of elderly typically diagnosed >65 yo.

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7
Q

Reed-Sternberg cells

A

Hodgkin’s Lymphoma. There are two age peaks of this type of cancer; in the 20s and then in the 50s

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8
Q

Coxsackie A16 virus

A

Coxsackie virus causes Hand-Foot-Mouth disease. It presents with painful lesions in the mouth and a skin rash on the hands and feet. Fever may also be present.

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9
Q

Human herpes virus type 6 also called…. causes…

A

Roseola (AKA: Sixth disease) is caused by human herpes virus type 6….characterized by 3-5 days of high fevers that resolves abruptly, followed by a characteristic erythematous macular to maculopapular rash that begins on the trunk and may spread to the arms and legs. Roseola is a disease of young children, most often between 7-13 months.

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10
Q

Parvovirus B19 also called….causes….

A

Erythema infectiosum (AKA: Fifth disease) is caused by parvovirus B19 and is characterized by a prodrome of low-grade fever, malaise, sore throat, headache, and nausea, followed several days later by an erythematous “slapped cheek” facial rash. The facial rash typically fades after 2-4 days, but in the second stage of the disease process, pink patches and macules may develop in a lacy, reticular pattern, most often on the extremities.

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11
Q

Rubella virus…also called, causes…..and the rash…

A

The rubella rash is a maculopapular exanthema that develops after a 14-17 day incubation period, usually on the face, then spreads from head to foot. Major birth defects, affecting all vital organs, are highly likely if rubella is acquired in early pregnancy.

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12
Q

Yergason test

A

evaluate for bicipital tendonitis. The test is done by having the patient flex their elbow to 90 degrees, the examiner then applies downward pressure on the patient’s forearm. The patient is then instructed to attempt to supinate against resistance. Eliciting pain with this movement is indicative of bicipital tendonitis.

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13
Q

Charcot triad:

A

right upper quadrant tenderness, jaundice, and fever….think Ascending cholangitis

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14
Q

Reynold’s pentad:

A

charcot triad (RUQ tenderness, jaundice, fever) with hypotension and and altered mental status, thing ascending cholangitis

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15
Q

“halo sign” on ultrasound

A

temporal arteritis

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16
Q

Temporal arteritis 3 symptoms and treatment

A

HA, scalp sensitivity, and jaw claudication - txment is steroids immediately

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17
Q

Diphtheria caused by, presents with

A

C. diphtheriae, characterized by fever, sore throat, and cervical lymphadenopathy. It is associated with an adherent gray pseudomembrane, usually beginning on the tonsils.

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18
Q

Oral lichen planus is different from leukoplakia as it causes….

A

complain of oral discomfort, hot or cold sensitivity, or pain at the site of the lesion

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19
Q

slipped capital femoral epiphysis

A

It typically presents in adolescents as an ache in the hip, groin, thigh, or knee. Obesity is a risk factor. It can be acute or chronic and noted by a displaced femur from the epiphysis on anteroposterior x-rays of the hip. Patients need to remain non-weight bearing with urgent or emergent orthopedic evaluation for surgery in which the epiphysis is secured with a screw.

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20
Q

Brief psychotic disorder

A

one psychotic symptom (e.g., delusion, hallucination, or disorganized speech) that lasts for at least one day but less than one month.

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21
Q

sausage-shaped mass, hypoechoic ring around an echo-dense center, appearing like a target or donut…this is what condition

A

Intussception

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22
Q

abdominal pain that is out of proportion to the examination

A

mesenteric ischemia

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23
Q

SBO shows

A

High pitched bowel sounds may be heard on physical exam, sometimes with rushes. On abdominal plain films, look for dilated loops of bowel with air-fluid levels.

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24
Q

Name the murmur in HCM? How is this effected by valsalva/standing and handgrip/squatting?

A

Valsalva/standing - decreases volume in milk jug, makes it LOUDER. Handgrip/squatting -increases volume in jug and makes it SOFTER.

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25
Q

Myomyectomy

A

The treatment of choice for uterine fibroids in a patient who wants to preserve ability to have children.

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26
Q

endometrial ablation means

A

destruction of the lining of the uterus in women who do not want to have children

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27
Q

D&C is a

A

diagnostic test which dilates the cervix to look at the endometrium or biopsy. Accesses AUB or treatment for endometrial polyp.

28
Q

which organism is known for causing otitis externa in those with hearing aids?

A

candida albicans

29
Q

Those w/asplenia (immunocompromised like sickle cell) are at increased risk for infection with what type of organisms? Name 3

A

Encapsulated organisms, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenza
Neisseria meningitides

30
Q

post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

A

commonly found in children that is characterized by abrupt onset of proteinuria, hematuria, RBC casts, edema, and hypertension in the setting of a streptococcal infection. The presence of rising antistreptolysin O (ASO) titers is diagnostic. Measured complement levels will also be low. The edema associated with the syndrome is first seen in regions of low tissue pressure – periorbital and scrotal areas. Glomerular inflammation leads to heavy bleeding and gross hematuria described as smoky or cola-colored urine.

31
Q

hypomagnesia is common in what type of patient and what can it cause?

A

Hypomagnesemia is frequently seen in hospitalized patients, particularly those in the ICU. It is most likely to present with muscle tetany, tremors, or convulsions as well as hypokalemia, widening of the QRS, and peaked T waves. This patient requires continuous cardiac monitoring and replacement with magnesium sulfate.

32
Q

paroxysmal cough…think of what condition and how do you diagnosis this?

A

pertussis in adults (don’t typically have the whoop), dx by PCR in the first 3 weeks

33
Q

what is the most common paraneoplastic syndrome associated with SCLC?

A

SAIDH, hyponatremia with low serum osmolarity

34
Q

bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy

A

think sarcoidosis

35
Q

what is the most common complication of endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography

A

pancreatitis

36
Q

primary treatment for trigeminal neuralgia

A

Anticonvulsant drugs, such as carbamazepine, stabilize inactivated sodium channels thereby making neurons less excitable. Thus, these drugs may help limit the aberrant transmission of nerve impulses in the trigeminal nerve and reduce pain. Carbamazepine is the most commonly used medication in this class for the treatment of trigeminal neuralgia.

37
Q

what is the first diagnostic test to complete in patient over 60 with dyspepsia (uncomfortable sensation of fullness after eating, early satiety, and occasional heartburn)?

A

H. pylori testing as first line noninvasive testing

38
Q

Osgood-Schlatter disease who do you find this in? Causes? Finding on xray?

A

commonly found in children and adolescents from 8 to 15 years of age and occurs more commonly in boys than in girls. Anterior knee pain and prominence of the tibial tuberosity are most commonly due to repetitive stresses (running and jumping sports) on an immature and growing skeleton. Lateral x-rays may reveal a prominent tibial tuberosity. On exam, pain can be reproduced by resisted knee extension.

39
Q

what is the name of the fracture that involves the growth plate physis in children?

A

salter-harris

40
Q

what is the treatment for a grade 4 salter-harris fracture through the growth plate?

A

These fractures are considered unstable, and perfect reduction is required for a positive outcome; therefore, open surgical reduction and fixation is most appropriate. This patient will require immobilization postoperatively for four to six weeks with follow-up x-ray studies at that time.

41
Q

what is the most common type of lung cancer?

A

Adenocarcinoma is the most common type of lung cancer and it is strongly associated with cigarette smoking

42
Q

what is the most common type of lung cancer?

A

Small cell carcinoma (SCLC) of the lung has the worst prognosis among the various types of lung cancer.

43
Q

what are the two types of small cell lung cancer?

A

The other types are collectively called non small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) and account for 85% of lung cancers. SCLC is strongly associated with cigarette smoking. It is usually aggressive with approximately 2/3 of patients presenting with extensive and/or metastatic disease. It is also associated with paraneoplastic syndromes such as SIADH.

44
Q

what does SLE put you at increased risk for?

A

antiphospholipid syndrome (APLS) which may cause blood clots or recurrent miscarriage

44
Q

How do you diagnose antiphospholipid syndrome?

A

antiphospholipid antibodies

44
Q

hand flapping or repetitive behavior in child and delayed develope suggests? This is treated with?

A

Austism spectrum disorder
Applied behavioral analysis

44
Q

what are contraindications for altepase, tpa for stroke?

A

Intracranial hemorrhage on CT scan

Presentation suggestion of a subarachnoid hemorrhage

Neurosurgery, head trauma, or stroke w/in the past three months

Uncontrolled hypertension (systolic >185 mmHg; diastolic >110 mmHg)

Known intracranial arteriovenous malformation, neoplasm, or aneurysm

Endocarditis (suspected or confirmed)

Known bleeding diathesis

Blood glucose <50 mg/dL

45
Q

what is the timing of when altepaste (tpa) can be administered?

A

less than 4.5 hours

46
Q

Kaposi sarcoma (KS) is caused by

A

human herpes virus 8

47
Q

Who does kaposi sarcoma occur in?

A

HIV patients with CD4 <200 typically, rash in lower extremity, face, and groin

48
Q

Rheumatic fever

A

-Inflammatory disease that can involve the heart , joints, skin, and brain.
-develops after 2-4 weeks as a complication of inadequately treated strep throat or scarlet fever caused by infection with Group A Streptococcus bacteria.
-most common in 5- to 15-year-old children.
-fever, multiple painful joints, involuntary muscle movements, and a characteristic but uncommon non-itchy rash known as erythema marginatum.

49
Q

fava beans can cause an issue for patients with which medical condition? what happens?

A

G6PD deficiency–eating fava beans or triggering event can cause
acute hemolytic anemia after exposure to an offending agent

offending agents include sulfa medications, antimalarials, aspirin, and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory

50
Q

human bites should be treated with what antibiotic? what bacteria do you worry about?

A

Augmentin
Eikenella corrodens.

51
Q

what would bacterial meningitis show on labs?

A

elevated opening pressure, elevated protein, and low glucose

52
Q

In hypertensive emergency what is the goal of treatment? What are the 4 best options to use?

A

The goal is a 20-25% reduction in the mean arterial pressure within the first 1-2 hours. The agent of choice needs to have a rapid onset of action and must be easily titratable. Intravenous labetalol, nicardipine, nitroglycerin, or esmolol are all reasonable choices.

53
Q

Drug of choice agains Mycoplasma pneumoniae

A

Macrolide - azithromycin

54
Q

what is a possible treatment option for diarrhea s/p GB removal?

A

Cholestyramine is a bile acid sequestrant, and is indicated in the treatment of postprandial diarrhea which may be a possible side effect following a laparoscopic cholecystectomy due to increased concentration of bile acids in the colon.

55
Q

Neuroleptic Malignany Syndrome – what is this? How do you treat it?

A

Life-threatening condition
due to D2 inhibition (antipsychotics, neuroleptics)→ AMS,
muscle rigidity, tremor,
autonomic instability
(unstable BP, fever)

Treatment: ICU care
* Dopamine agonist:
Dantrolene or
Bromocriptine

56
Q

Aortic stenosis

A

The aortic stenosis murmur is diamond-shaped, systolic and radiates along the aortic outflow tract.

Classically, the aortic stenosis murmur is heard best at the right upper sternal border (where it is harsh and noisy). It radiates to the right supraclavicular area. (Lack of radiation to this area should raise the question of another cause for the murmur.) The aortic stenosis murmur may become purer and musical as one listens toward the apex (Gallavardin phenomenon).

57
Q

What is the relationship between amiodarone and the thyroid?

A

Amiodarone, because of its structural similarities to thyroid hormones, may in fact induce either hypo or hyperthyroid-like symptoms.

58
Q

What is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in those <35 y/o?

A

HCM

59
Q

What is PCOS associated with?

A

subarachnoid hemorrhage. Up to 80% of patients with a spontaneous subarachnoid hemorrhage have ruptured an aneurysm, and the vast majority of those aneurysms are “berry” (saccular) cerebral aneurysms. Ruptured saccular cerebral aneurysms are the most common cause of nontraumatic subarachnoid hemorrhage. Berry aneurysms are associated with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease.

60
Q

Olive-shaped nontender mobile hard pylorus on exam in infant with nausea and vomiting?

A

pyloric stenosis

61
Q

what is the most common cause of PEA?

A

hypovolemia - Pulseless electrical activity (PEA) is the presence of organized electrical activity without sufficient mechanical contraction of the heart needed to produce a pulse. Severe hypovolemia is the most common cause of PEA

62
Q

The classic triad of cough, coryza, and conjunctivitis is seen in which condition?

A

Measles (rubeola)

63
Q

Koplick spots

A

white or bluish-gray specks on a red base seen on the buccal mucosa, are pathognomonic for measles (rubeola). They are also described as looking “like a grain of salt.” Inflammation of the eyelid margin in cases of measles is known as the Stimson line.

64
Q

Lymphogranuloma venereum

A

Chlamydia infection- Transient small painless genital lesion, inguinal
lymphadenopathy 7-30 days after lesion disappears, “groove sign” lymphadenopathy
above and below the inguinal ligament Txment includes doxycycline

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