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Sam: Repro--Confidence Boost > Buzz Words > Flashcards

Buzz Words Flashcards

1
Q

SSRI we use for PMS?

A

Fluoxetine

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2
Q

MC symptom during menopause?

A

hot flashes

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3
Q

Most common pathogen causing mastitis?

A

Staph aureus

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4
Q

How do we treat mastitis?

A

Dicloxacillin, continue to breast feed

can also do warm compresses

I and D if there is abscess that isn’t going away after abx treatment

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5
Q

Fibroadenomas are MC in what population?

A

late teens to early 20’s

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6
Q

Do fibroadenomas wax and wane?

A

Nope

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7
Q

What is the most common breast disorder?

A

Fibrocystic Breast Disorder

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8
Q

Are breast cysts tender?

A

Typically yes

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9
Q

Do fibrocystic cysts? wax and wane?

A

yes

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10
Q

On a hormone level, what is happening to men who develop gynecomastia?

A

Increased estrogen and decreased androgen

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11
Q

Most common causes of PID?

A

N. gonorrhea and Chlamydia

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12
Q

“cervical motion tenderness” should make you think of what?

A

PID

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13
Q

What is Chadwick’s sign?

A

Cervix and vulva have a bluish color–present after 8-12 weeks

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14
Q

What is normal fetal heart rate?

A

120-160 bpm

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15
Q

How do we determine estimated date of delivery?

A

1st day of LMP + 7 days - 3 months

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16
Q

If we’re worried about Rh incompatibility, when do we give RhoGAM?

A

at 28 weeks and within 72 hours of childbirth

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17
Q

What is happening during a abruptio placentae?

A

premature separation of placenta from uterine wall

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18
Q

What is the biggest risk factor for abruptio placentae?

A

Maternal hypertension

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19
Q

How will a woman present with abruptio placentae?

A

Continuous bleeding (3rd trimester), painful uterine contractions, and a ridgid uterus

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20
Q

What is the most common place for an ectopic pregnancy to occur?

A

Fallopian tube

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21
Q

What is the classic triad for ectopic pregnancy?

A
  1. Unilateral pelvic/abdominal pain
  2. Vaginal bleeding
  3. Amenorrhea

Typically will present with positive cervical motion tenderness

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22
Q

Tell me about Beta-HCG levels during a) normal pregnancy b) ectopic pregnancy c) molar pregnancy

A

a) should double every 24-48 hours
b) it ain’t gunna double.
c) super high levels

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23
Q

When do we screen for gestational diabetes?

A

24-28 weeks

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24
Q

Do we deliver early for gestational diabetes women?

A

Yup, 38 weeks

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25
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosing gestational diabetes?

A

3-hour 100g oral glucose tolerance test (GTT)

Do a 50g oral glucose challenge first, it the blood sugar is greater than 140 after one hour, proceed to the 3-hour test

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26
Q

What is the treatment of choice for gestational diabetes? and what is our goal for a fasting blood sugar?

A

Insulin!

95

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27
Q

What is the difference between a complete and partial molar pregnancy?

A

Complete–No DNA fertilized by 1 or 2 sperm

Partial–egg is fertilized by 2 sperm

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28
Q

What can a molar pregnancy develop into if not treated?

A

Choriocarcinoma

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29
Q

What do we see on ultrasound of a molar pregnancy?

A

“snow storm” or “cluster of grapes” appearance

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30
Q

What do we call hypertension that is after 20 weeks, has no symptoms, and no proteinuria?

A

Gestational

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31
Q

What is the definition of preeclampsia?

A

HTN WITH proteinuria

i’ve read some conflicting info, but it is my understanding that this can happen at any point during pregnancy and does not have to be after 20 weeks to be considered preeclampsia

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32
Q

What may be symptoms of preeclampsia?

A

Headache and visual symptoms

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33
Q

What does HELP syndrome stand for?

A

Hemolytic anemia, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets

This is bad news. Can lead to DIC. Can also lead to pulmonary hypertension.

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34
Q

What is the definition of chronic HTN?

A

HTN before 20 weeks gestation, continues for 6 weeks post-partum

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35
Q

What do we call an abnormal placenta implantation on or close to the cervical os?

A

Placenta Previa

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36
Q

How will placenta previa present differently from placenta abruptio? (sp)

A

placenta previa is painless! will not have any abdominal pain but will have sudden onset of bleeding. Fetal heart rate is normal. In abruptio the FHR typically becomes bradycardic.

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37
Q

Postpartum hemorrhage: how much blood is lost in a vaginal delivery compared to c-section?

A

Vaginal: 500 ml

C-section: 1000 ml

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38
Q

What is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage?

A

Uterine atony

….what is uterine atony?

when the uterus is unable to contract to stop the bleeding

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39
Q

How do we diagnose premature rupture of membranes?

A

Do a Nitrazine test.

Can also do a Fern test.

No idea what either of these tests actually are.

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40
Q

MC complication of premature rupture of membranes?

A

Infection

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41
Q

BPH, we have obstructive and and irritative symptoms–name a few of each

A

Obstructive: hesitancy and straining, postvoid dribbling, and sensation of incomplete emptying

Irritative: frequency, nocturia, and urgency

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42
Q

What class of medications can be a reason for your patients ED?

A

Beta-blockers

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43
Q

“bag of worms”

A

varicocele

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44
Q

Varicocele—right or left testicle?

A

Left

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45
Q

Principle symptom of urge incontinence? stress incontinence?

A

urge–strong desire to void, followed by loss of urine

stress–leakage of urine with increased intra-abdominal pressure–laugh, cough, or sneeze

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46
Q

Difference between phimosis and paraphimosis?

A

Phimosis: can’t get the turtle out

Paraphimosis: can’t get the turtle back in

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47
Q

Cryptochidism puts you at risk for?

A

Testicular torsion and testicular cancer

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48
Q

What is the Prehn sign?

A

relief of pain with scrotal elevation

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49
Q

Orchitis has a link to what disease that we commonly vaccinate for?

A

Mumps

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50
Q

This male disease is characterized by sudden onset of high fever, chills, low back pain, and perineal pain?

A

Prostatitis

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51
Q

How do we treat prostatitis?

A

Abx: FQ’s

NSAIDs for pain

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52
Q

What is the most common malignancy in young men?

A

Testicular cancer

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53
Q

How will a patient with testicular cancer present?

A

Painless, solid testicular swelling

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54
Q

How do we diagnose testicular cancer?

A

Orchiectomy is performed for both diagnostic and therapeutic reasons

that sucks.

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55
Q

Where do we want to get a sample for a Pap?

A

SCJ–squamocolumnar junction

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56
Q

What is it called when the SCJ begins to recede into the cervix?

A

metaplasia

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57
Q

Where do nabothian cysts originate from?

What about cervical polyps?

A

Cysts: ectocervix
Polyps: endocervix

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58
Q

The benefits to these forms of birth control is that they regulate menses, decrease acne, and decrease hirsutism.

A

Pill, patch, and ring

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59
Q

What effect does estrogen have on lipids?

A

Increase HDL, lower LDL, and increase triglycerides

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60
Q

In terms of BC methods, what is most effective at protecting against STI’s?

A

Condoms

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61
Q

How does the copper IUD prevent pregnancy?

A

Foreign body reaction and chemical changes that may be toxic to sperm and ova

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62
Q

How do hormonal contraceptives prevent pregnancy?

A

Inhibits secretion of pituitary gonadotropins via negative feedback mechanism which prevents follicular maturation and ovulation

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63
Q

Any persisting dermatitis or the nipple and/or areola should make you think of?

A

Paget’s disease

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64
Q

What is the lifetime risk of developing breast cancer?

A

1 in 8

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65
Q

For BRCA1 mutations, the risk of developing breast cancer by age 70 is?

A

57%

66
Q

For BRCA2 mutations, the risk of developing breast cancer by age 70 is?

A

49%

67
Q

What is the only type of hernia that is more common in women?

A

Femoral

68
Q

True or False:

Indirect hernias are typically found in the scrotum

A

True

69
Q

Crooked, painful erections should make you think of?

A

Peyronie’s disease

70
Q

Acute epididymitis often occurs with what disease?

A

Chlamydia

71
Q

Gardasil has a bivalent and a quadrivalent version. What do they both protect against?

A

Bivalent: HPV 16 and 18
Quadrivalent: HPV 6, 11, 16, and 18

72
Q

When do we give the gardasil vaccine?

A

Females: start before first sexual contact, usually 11 or 12. Three dose vaccine

Males: For ages 9-26, ideally before first sexual contact. Bivalent is not recommeded

73
Q

When is hCG secreted into maternal circulation?

A

6-12 days after ovulation

74
Q

When can we hear a fetal heartbeat?

A

10-12 weeks

75
Q

When can fetal movement first be detected? “quickening”

A

18-22 weeks

76
Q

Are men or women more likely to be the cause of infertility?

A

its da same–30 percent

77
Q

Number one cause of female infertility?

A

Ugh, i don’t know. I think it’s endometriosis. Some places say PCOS or “ovulatory disorders”.

You’re welcome for the clarity.

78
Q

Number one cause of male infertility?

A

Idiopathic.

again, so helpful.

79
Q

We have a couple with fertility issues, what’s our first step?

A

Start with the male–do a semen analysis

80
Q

Clomiphene citrate should make you think of?

A

A medication that helps induce ovulation

81
Q

This type of ovarian cyst is usually not symptomatic, usually resolves spontaneously, and is a result from failure of ovulation

A

Follicular

82
Q

This type of ovarian cyst occurs after ovulation, is thin-walled and unilocular, and doesn’t slough off when there’s not fertilization

A

Corpus luteum cyst

83
Q

What are commonly referred to as “chocolate cysts”?

A

Endometrioma

84
Q

1st line of treatment for ovarian cysts?

A

OCPs

85
Q

We can diagnose PCOS clinically based on these 3 presentations. Tell me them.

A
  1. Oligo or amenorrhea and anovulation
  2. Hyperandrogenism (obesity 50%, hirsutism 30-75%)
  3. Polycystic ovaries on ultrasound
86
Q

PCOS patients never get the “surge” of this hormone.

A

FSH

87
Q

So we have a patient with PCOS, what other disease is it really important that we test for?

A

Diabetes

88
Q

With PCOS

We have ________ release but we don’t have _______ release so _________ never gets released.

Answers: a hormone, an enzyme, a hormone

A

LH, aromatase, FSH

89
Q

Ovarian cancer is more closely linked to BRCA 1 or BRCA 2?

A

BRCA 2. but still 1!

90
Q

What is our cancer marker for ovarian CA?

A

CA-125

91
Q

85-90% of ovarian CA originates in the ________ of the ovary.

A

Epithelium

92
Q

True or false:

the clear cell type of ovarian cancer is usually benign.

A

False. Almost always malignant.

93
Q

True or False:

ovarian cancer is the most lethal GYN malignancy

A

True.

Presents late :(

94
Q

What chromosome is uniquely linked to ovarian cancer?

A

9

95
Q

Do we screen for ovarian cancer?

A

No

96
Q

How do we diagnose ovarian cancer?

A

Transvaginal ultrasound, laparoscopic evaluation

97
Q

What is the number one breast complaint?

A

Breast pain

98
Q

What is the only FDA approved treatment of mastalgia but often d/c due to significant androgenic side effects?

A

Danazol

99
Q

Ok, so our patient has nipple discharge and it looks funky. What is the most common cause of pathologic nipple discharge?

A

Papilloma—papillary tumor growing from lining of the breast duct

100
Q

Unilateral, confined to one duct, bloody discharge are characteristics of something that is benign or pathologic?

A

Pathologic

101
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosing breast cancer?

A

Biopsy–“aspiration”

yes, even over imaging.

102
Q

What type of breast cancer often mimics an infection?

A

Inflammatory breast cancer

103
Q

What is the most common type of breast cancer?

A

Infiltrating ductal carcinoma

approx 70-80% of all breast CA

104
Q

How will mastitis present differently from inflammatory breast cancer?

A

Mastitis patient will have a fever

105
Q

Most common sites of breast cancer metastasis?

A

Lymph nodes, muscle, fatty tissue, and SKIN

106
Q

What percentage of STDs occur in 15-25 year olds?

A

Nearly 50%

107
Q

Test for Gonorrhea and chlamydia?

A

NAAT

108
Q

How do we test for gonorrhea in men compared to women?

A

Women—swab

Men–UA

109
Q

How do we treat gonorrhea?

A

Ceftriaxone IM plus azithromycin

110
Q

Is the incubation for gonorrhea or chlamydia longer?

A

Chlamydia

Chlamydia is 2-3 weeks, gonorrhea is 1-14 days

111
Q

How do we treat chlamydia?

A

Azithromycin

112
Q

DOC for bacterial vaginosis?

A

Metronidazole

113
Q

Pathogen for syphilis?

A

Treponema pallidum

114
Q

What stage of syphilis is the patient in if they present with a painless chancre?

A

Primary

115
Q

What stage of syphilis is the patient in if they present with a rash, fever, headache, and malaise.

A

Secondary

116
Q

DOC for syphilis?

A

Penicillin

117
Q

Treatment for phimosis and paraphimosis?

A

Circumcision

118
Q

What do we call it when the urethral meatus is not at the tip of the penis?

A

Hypospadius

119
Q

What do we call a persistent, painful erection?

A

Priapism

120
Q

What is the best way to give testosterone?

A

Poorly absorbed orally–give it through injections

121
Q

We always talk about the strains of HPV that cause cancer, but which strains are the most common?

A

6 and 11

122
Q

What serious side effect can Tamsulosin cause?

A

Floppy iris syndrome

123
Q

Where does prostate cancer metastasize to?

A

Bones

124
Q

Where does testicular cancer metastasize to?

A

Lungs

125
Q

When it comes to labor, there are 4 pieces of data we must gather. What are they?

A
  1. Ascertain fetal lie (transverse, longitudinal)

2. Ascertain fetal presentation (cephalic 97%, breech 3-5%, shoulder

126
Q

What is Friedman’s curve?

A

A curve supporting data that suggests that the duration of labor appears longer today than in the past.

127
Q

What are the 3 p’s of labor?

A
  1. Passenger (infant size, position)
  2. Passage or Pelvis
  3. Power (uterine contractility)
128
Q

Epidural numbs from?

A

L4 to toes

129
Q

What are the 7 cardinal movements of labor?

A
  1. Descent, flexion, and engagement
  2. Internal rotation
  3. Extension of fetal head
  4. External rotation of fetal head (internal shoulder rotation)
  5. Expulsion
130
Q

What medication do we give to treat and/or prevent a postpartum hemorrhage?

A

Pitocin

131
Q

What percentage of pregnancies are lost?

A

20%

132
Q

At what week gestation do we test for Group B strep?

A

36

If positive, treat with IV penicillin during labor

133
Q

What is warning sign you see with uterine rupture?

A

Warning sign is a retraction ring across uterus between symphysis and umbilicus

134
Q

The hypothalamus regulates production of this hormone

A

GnRH

135
Q

The anterior pituitary controls release of these 2 hormones

A

LH and FSH

136
Q

Why is the concentration of FSH in blood less variable than concentrations of LH in the blood?

A

FSH is cleared much more slowly from our blood.

137
Q

What is the Circhoral Oscillator?

A

Releases GnRH in pulses–about every 60-120 minutes

138
Q

There are 2 major classes of steroids–what are they and what are examples of each?

A

Gonadal steroids: progestogens, androgens, and estrogens

Adrenal steroids: corticosteroids, mineralcorticoids

139
Q

What is thelarche?

A

breast development

140
Q

Are sterols highly water or fat soluble?

A

Fat

141
Q

When might we use the free androgen index?

A

To see if a female is undergoing unwanted masculine changes

142
Q

When estrogen levels are high, it has a __________ feedback on GnRH

A

Positive

143
Q

The production of this hormone distinguishes the luteal phase from the follicular phase?

A

Progesterone

144
Q

What is uterine thickening that occurs when endometrial tissue invades the myometrium?

A

Adenomyosis

145
Q

What kind of drugs do we give to shrink fibroids?

A

GnRH agonists

OCPs can control bleeding but don’t treat the fibroid

146
Q

In a woman of childbearing age, abnormal bleeding and pain are related to _______ until proven otherwise

A

Pregnancy

for the love of pete, always get a pregnancy test

147
Q

In a woman not of childbearing age (postmenopausal), abnormal bleeding is related to _______ until proven otherwise

A

cancer

148
Q

True or False.

PMDD is a DSM-V diagnosis?

A

True

149
Q

Vaginal bleeding in a 1-day old infant?

A

estrogen from mom, totally normal

150
Q

Dysmenorrhea and infertility in a 25 year old?

A

Endometriosis

151
Q

Dysmenorrhea and increasingly heavy periods in a 48 year old?

A

Endometrial hyperplasia

152
Q

Regular periods but a uterus the size of a 10 week pregnancy in a 35 year old?

A

Fibroid

153
Q

new onset vaginal bleeding in a 70 year old?

A

cancer until proven otherwise

154
Q

What supplement do you give to prevent neural tube defects?

A

Folic acid

155
Q

What does folic acid obscure?

A

B12 deficiency

156
Q

What kind of drug is doxylamine?

A

Antihistamine

157
Q

What’s another name for Pyridoxine?

A

Vitamin b6

158
Q

How do we treat trich and BV in a pregnant woman?

A

Metronidazole

159
Q

What antibiotic do we give a pregnant woman for gonorrhea?

A

Ceftriazone

160
Q

What cream do we give a pregnant woman for candidiasis?

A

Clotrimazole cream

161
Q

What happens when we give Labetalol IV?

A
  1. its more effective

2. More beta adrenergic activity than alpha

Sam: Repro--Confidence Boost (1 decks)

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