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Buzz words 2a Flashcards

1
Q

Anti-mi-2

A

dermatomyositis

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2
Q

Anti-Jo-1

A

polymyositis

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3
Q

Inverted champagne bottle sign leg

A

Charcot Marie tooth

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4
Q

Calf pseudohypertrophy

A

Duchenne muscular dystrophy

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5
Q

HLA-DR2

A

Multiple sclerosis

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6
Q

Warming up phenomenon

A

Weakness temporarily relieved by use (LES)

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7
Q

Romberg test

A

Can’t stand with feet together and eyes closed (peripheral neuropathy)

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8
Q

what does squamous cell carcinoma secrete

A

PTH and keratin

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9
Q

Beck’s triad

A

pericardial tamponade - low blood pressure, muffled heart sounds, raised jugular venous pressure

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10
Q

what is high in seminoma

A

ALP

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11
Q

what is high in choriocarcinoma

A

hCG

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12
Q

what is high in yok sac tumour

A

AFP

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13
Q

ejection systolic murmur heard loudest on inspiration

A

pulmonary stenosis

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14
Q

Budd-Chiari syndrome

A

abdominal pain, ascites and liver enlargement

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15
Q

severe/complicated malaria treatment

A

IV artesunate

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16
Q

reverse opioid overdose

A

naloxone

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17
Q

pleuritic chest pain

(worse on deep breaths), shortness of breath and haemoptysis

A

Pulmonary embolism

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18
Q

DPP4 inhibitor mechanism

A

increase effect of incretins leading to increased insulin secretion

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19
Q

Pioglitiazone mechanism

A

increase fatty acid and glucose uptake

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20
Q

sulfanylureas mechanism

A

stimulate B cells to secrete insulin

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21
Q

SGLT-2i mechanism

A

reduces glucose reabsorption in the kidney

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22
Q

metformin mechanism

A

inhibits hepatic gluconeogenesis and opposes glucagon.

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23
Q

metyrapone

A

inhibits cortisol in Cushing’s

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24
Q

pegvisomant

A

GH receptor antagonist for acromegaly

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25
Q

GRACE score

A

estimate 6-month mortality following ACS

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26
Q

cardinal features of CHD

A

SOB, fatigue and ankle swelling

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27
Q

symptoms of aortic stenosis

A

exertional syncope, dyspnoea, angina

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28
Q

loud first heart sound

A

mitral stenosis

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29
Q

soft s1

A

mitral regurgitation

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30
Q

pulsus tardus

A

delayed carotid pulse in aortic stenosis

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31
Q

opening snap

A

mitral stenosis

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32
Q

pulsus parvus

A

weak carotid pulse in aortic stenosis

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33
Q

indomethacin

A

prostaglandin inhibitor can stimulate closure of patent ductus arteriosus

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34
Q

epsilon wave

A

between QRS and T wave and found in arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy

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35
Q

QRISK3

A

estimates risk of developing a heart attack or stroke in next 10 years.

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36
Q

most common prostate cancer

A

adenocarcinoma

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37
Q

first line for BPH and mechanism

A

tamsulosin - alpha-1 adrenergic receptor antagonist, relaxes smooth muscles of bladder

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38
Q

first line investigation for renal cancer

A

ultrasound

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39
Q

Surgical treatment of BPH

A

Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP)

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40
Q

nephrotic syndrome types

A

minimal change disease, focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, membranous nephropathy

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41
Q

nephritic syndrome types

A

IgA nephropathy, post-strep glomerulonephritis, good pastures syndrome

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42
Q

starry sky immunoflorescence

A

post-strep glomerulonephritis

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43
Q

type of hypersensitivity and time after infection of IgA nephropathy

A

3 - 2-3 days

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44
Q

type of hypersensitivity and time after infection of post-strep glomerulonephritis

A

3 - 1-6 weeks

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45
Q

potters sequence

A

little amniotic fluid in uterus leads to clubbed feet and flattened nose (in PKD)

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46
Q

ECG change in atrial fibrillation

A

absent P wave, narrow QRS

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47
Q

saddle shaped ST segment elevation

A

acute pericarditis

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48
Q

carcinoid syndrome triad

A

palpitations, diarrhoea and flushing

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49
Q

enlarged virchows nodes

A

gastric cancer

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50
Q

meningococcal septicaemia treatment

A

benzylpenicillin

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51
Q

vasculitis that is pulseless

A

takayasu arteritis

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52
Q

HAS-BLEED

A

estimate the 1-year risk for major bleeding in patients with atrial fibrillation

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53
Q

QRISK3

A

calculates a person’s risk of developing a heart attack/ stroke over the next 10 years

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54
Q

initial management of DVT

A

dalteparin (LMWH)

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55
Q

long term management of DVT

A

either warfarin (with INR monitoring), apixiban (DOAC) or continue LMWH (pregnancy or malignancy)

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56
Q

cushing reflex

A

sign of increased ICP - HTN, irregular breathing, bradycardia - herniation imminent

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57
Q

CEA

A

bowel cancer marker

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58
Q

antibiotic for syphilis

A

benzathine penicillin

59
Q

meningococcal menigiits contact prophylaxis

A

ciprofloxacin

60
Q

glasgow-blatchford score and its features.

A

upper GI bleeding tool - haemoglobin, systolic blood pressure, HR, melena, syncope, hepatic disease and cardiac disease

61
Q

first line viral hepatitis B treatment

A

pegylated interferon alpha 2a

62
Q

second line viral hepatitis B treatment

A

tenofovir (also used in HIV)

63
Q

yellow fat deposits under the skin and eye lids in liver cirrhosis

A

Xanthelasma

64
Q

most common cause of portal HTN in developing world

A

schistosomiasis

65
Q

ascites treatment

A

<2000mg sodium/day, spironolactone and furosemide

66
Q

west haven criteria

A

hepatic encephalopathy staging

67
Q

symptoms of wernickes encephalopathy

A

confused, ataxia, eye wobbling, memory impairment

68
Q

hepatic encephalopathy treatment

A

lactulose decreases ammonia

69
Q

most common bacterial cause of peritonitis

A

klebsiella, e.coli and staph aureus

70
Q

peritonitis treatment

A

cephalosporin and then targeted antibiotic after culture

71
Q

HFE mutation

A

haemochromatosis

72
Q

wilsons disease key feature

A

kayser fleischer ring

73
Q

AFP7B mutation

A

wilsons disease

74
Q

CA19-9 marker

A

cholangiocarcinoma

75
Q

diagnosis of primary biliary cholangitis

A

raised ALP, histological evidence, antimitochondrial antibodies

76
Q

anti mitochondrial antibody

A

primary biliary cholangitis

77
Q

gold investigation of PSC

A

cholangiopancreatography shows strictures separated by normal bile duct

78
Q

antibodies present in PSC

A

anti nuclear antibodies

79
Q

treatment of primary biliary cholangitis

A

ursodeoxycholic acid

80
Q

glasgow and ranson score

A

acute pancreatitis

81
Q

high foecal elastase

A

chronic pancreatitis

82
Q

crypt abscesses

83
Q

UC treatment

A

5-aminosalicyclic acid (mesalamine), prednisolone, infliximab, colectomy

84
Q

marsh classification

A

coeliac disease

85
Q

dermatitis herpetiformis

A

red patches in coeliac

86
Q

intraepithelial lymphocytes

87
Q

APC gene mutation

A

RF for colorectal cancer (usually is tumour suppressor)

88
Q

troisier sign

A

enlargement of a left-sided supraclavicular lymph node (virchows node)

89
Q

C.diff treatment

A

Metronidazole

90
Q

gold standard investigation for diagnosing acute diverticulitis?

A

Contrast CT colonography

91
Q

tests for cystic fibrosis

A

heel prick test and sweat test

92
Q

pancoast tumour

A

tumour that start’s at the apex of the lung

93
Q

what is horner’s syndrome

A

compression of sympathetic chain - ptosis, miosis and anhidrosis (sweating on one side of face)

94
Q

when can lung cancer met from

A

Breast, colon cancer, prostate, sarcoma, bladder cancer

95
Q

treatment for oesophageal varicies

A

IV Terlipressin or somatostatin in IHD

96
Q

complications of acromegaly

A

sleep apnoea, T2DM, cardiomyopathy, hypertension, IHD/stroke, colorectal cancer, blindness

97
Q

first line treatment for acromegaly

A

transphenoidal resection surgery

98
Q

other treatment for acromegaly

A

cabergoline (DA), octreotide (SA), pegvisomant (GH receptor antagonist)

99
Q

Heberdens

A

distal interphalangeal joints

100
Q

carotid bruit cause and investigation

A

stroke and CT head

101
Q

emergency reversal of vitamin K antagonist therapy

A

Prothrombin complex concentrates

102
Q

disseminated intra-vascular coagulation treatment

A

Cryoprecipitate (portion of plasma rich in clotting factors)

103
Q

Low serum complement 3 and 4

104
Q

1,3 beta-D-glucan assay

A

Aspergillus fumigatus and Candida albicans and Pneumocystis jirovecii

105
Q

what is budd chiari syndrome

A

occlusion of hepatic veins or hepatic IVC

106
Q

what are 50% of Budd chiari syndrome cases associated with

A

myeloproliferative neoplasm

107
Q

treatment of budd chiari syndrome

A

anticoagulation, thrombolysis, stent, TIPS

108
Q

SLE treatment

A

Hydroxychloroquine and corticosteroids

109
Q

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

A

Results in low levels of cortisol and high levels of male hormones, causing development of male characteristics in females, and early puberty in both boys and girls.

110
Q

most common causes of meningitis in >3 months

A

s.pneumonia, neisseria meningitidis, haemophilus influenzae

111
Q

c-reactive protein

A

produced by liver, rises in acute inflammation

112
Q

migraine prophylaxis

A

Beta blocker, topiramate, amitriptyline

113
Q

CA 19-9

A

pancreatic cancer

114
Q

CA 125

A

ovarian cancer

115
Q

CA 15-3

A

breast cancer

116
Q

austin flint murmur

A

aortic regurgitation

117
Q

47 XXY

A

Klinefelter syndrome

118
Q

45, XO

A

Turners syndrome

119
Q

prevention of tumour lysis syndrome

A

Allopurinol

120
Q

Pericarditis on ECG

A

global concave ST elevation, which is described as ‘saddle-shaped’

121
Q

treatment of sickle cell crisis

A

Hydroxycarbamide - increases the proportion of foetal haemoglobin

122
Q

what treatment is given prior to phaeochromocytoma surgery

A

Phenoxybenzamine to regulate BP

123
Q

surgery to relieve carpal tunnel syndrome

A

Transverse carpal ligament is cut to release pressure

124
Q

Obstructive pattern

A

FEV1 <0.8 and FEV1/FVC <0.7

125
Q

Most common organism in COPD exacerbation

A

haemophilus influenzae, strep pneumoniae, Moraxella catarrhalis

126
Q

life threatening complication of rheumatoid arthritis

A

feltys triad

127
Q

extra-articular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis

A

Skin: Nodules, vasculitis (ulcers, splinter haemorrhages)
Ocular, Oral: Sjogren’s
Pulmonary: Pleuritis, effusions
Renal: Glomerulonephritis
Cardiac: atherosclerosis, pericarditis, MI

128
Q

protocol for taking blood cultures for a patient with infective endocarditis

A

3 cultures from 3 different sites taken at different times

129
Q

What is the first-line management of a mallory weiss tear if the bleeding is persistent?

A

Upper GI endoscopy and clipping +/- adrenaline OR thermal coagulation + High-dose proton pump inhibitor post-surgery

130
Q

where can kidney stones get stuck

A

Ureteropelvic junction, ureteral crossing of iliac vessels, ureterovesical junction

131
Q

What radiological intervention can be used to treat renal tract stones?

A

ultrasound shock wave lithotripsy

132
Q

most common complication of bisphosphonates

A

oesphageal ulcers and stomach upset

133
Q

what do you give a meningitis patient who presents to GP

A

Intramuscular Benzylpenicillin

134
Q

hospital treatment of meningitis and class

A

Cefotaxime/ceftriaxone (3rd generation Cephalosporin)

135
Q

pneumonia causes in HIV

A

Pneumocystitis jirovecii

136
Q

Owl’s eye appearance on blood film

A

hodgkins lymphoma

137
Q

Mechanism of beta-lactams

A

Inhibits transpeptidation reactions needed to cross-link peptidoglycans in the cell wall.

138
Q

How to manage TIa/stroke in terms of DVLA and driving

A

Do not notify the DVLA but no driving for 1 month

139
Q

most common primary bone tumour in children and young adults.

A

osteosarcoma

140
Q

when should DEXA scan be offered

A

if FRAX > 10% or in people over 50 with a previous fragility fracture, or people >40 with a major risk factor

141
Q

antibiotic class that inhibit DNA gyrase

A

Quinolones

142
Q

most specific marker for acute liver damage

143
Q

pernicious anaemia treatment

A

IM hydroxocobalamin

144
Q

most common bladder cancer

A

transitional cell carcinoma (aka urothelial carcinoma).

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