Business Organizations Flashcards

1
Q

What are the elements necessary for formation of an agency?

A

A fiduciary relationship (obligation to act for another’s benefit) is created between the principal and the agent which requires:

  • (1) mutual manifestation of assent between principal and agent;
  • (2) the agent will act on the principal’s behalf; and
  • (3) will be subject to the principal’s control.

In order to create an agency there must be an agreement, but not necessarily a contract between the parties.

  • An agreement may result in the creation of an agency relationship although the parties did not call it an agency and did not intend the legal consequences of the relation to follow.

The existence of the agency may be proved by circumstantial evidence which shows a course of dealing between the two parties.

  • When an agency relationship is to be proven by circumstantial evidence, the principal must be shown to have consented to the agency since one cannot be the agent of another except by consent of the principal.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Is an agency relationship subject to contract law?

A

No, an agency relationship is not itself a contract.

But an agent and a principal can enter into a contract that describes each other’s obligations.

  • An agent has a duty to act in accordance with the express and implied terms of any contract between the agent and the principal.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Are undisclosed principals subject to liability for the acts of their agents?

A

Yes. An undisclosed principal who entrusts an agent with the management of his business is subject to liability to third persons with whom the agent enters into transactions usual in such businesses and on the principal’s account, although contrary to the directions of the principal.

This means that the agent may have certain powers to bind the principal despite any contract provision.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Who has the power to terminate an agency?

A

Both the principal and the agent have the power to end the agency at any time.

The power to terminate does not depend upon the existence of or conformity with an agreement between the agent and the principal. Exercising the power to terminate may constitute a breach of contract. The power to terminate stems from the character of actual authority, which assumes ongoing and manifest assent that is operative when an agent takes action.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How are the rules of Agency, as we have seen them, modified or expanded by discussion of the creditor-debtor relationship and when it turns into an agency?

A

A creditor who assumes control of his debtor’s business for the mutual benefit of himself and his debtor, may become a principal, with liability for the acts and transactions of the debtor in connection with the business.

  • Mere exercise of veto power over purchase/sales over specified amount does not create agency.
  • Taking over management and directing what contracts may or may not be made creates an agency.
  • Creditor becomes principal when creditor assumes de facto control over debtor.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How are the rules of Agency, as we have seen them, modified or expanded by discussion of the buyer-supplier relationship and when it turns into an agency?

A

One who contracts to acquire property from a third person and convey it to another is the agent of the other only if it is agreed that he is to act primarily for the benefit of the other and not for himself. Factors indicating that the one who is to acquire the property and transfer it to the other is selling to, and not acting as agent for, the other are:

  • (1) That he is to receive a fixed price for the property, irrespective of the price paid by him. This is the most important.
  • (2) That he acts in his own name and receives the title to the property which he thereafter is to transfer.
  • (3) That he has an independent business in buying and selling similar property.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the capacity required to create an agency?

A

An individual has capacity to act as principal in a relationship of agency as defined if, at the time the agent takes action, the individual would have capacity if acting in person.

  • Minors do not have the capacity to be a principal but do have the capacity to be an agent because under the restatement, any person may ordinarily be empowered to act so as to affect the legal relations of another.
  • Under the law relating to promoters, if a corporation does not exist, then it may not be bound until it exists and later ratifies the contract. Until then, the promoters are bound.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When does an agent act with actual authority?

A

Actual authority arises when at the time of taking action that has legal consequences for the principal, the agent:

  • (1) reasonably believes,
  • (2) in accordance with the principal’s manifestations to the agent
  • (3) that the principal wishes the agent to so act.

Actual authority includes express and implied:

  • Express authority is that specifically mentioned by the principal in setting out the extent of the agent’s duties.
  • Implied authority of a corporate officer or agent includes all such incidental authority as is necessary, usual, and proper to effectuate the main authority expressly conferred.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When does an agent act with apparent authority?

A

Apparent authority arises when at the time of taking action that has legal consequences for the principal, a third party:

  • (1) reasonably believes,
  • (2) in accordance with the principal’s manifestations to the third party,
  • (3) that the agent has authority to act on behalf of the principal.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the three ways to establish apparent authority?

A

(a) The principal expressly and directly tells a third person that a second person has authority to act on the principal’s behalf.
(b) If a principal allows an agent to occupy a position which, according to the ordinary habits of people in the locality, trade, or profession, carries a particular kind of authority, then anyone dealing with the agent is so justified in inferring that the agent has such authority.
(c) By allowing an agent to carry out prior similar transactions, a principal creates the appearance that the agent is authorized to carry out such acts subsequently.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the three kinds of principals (relative to the degree to which a third party knows their identity)?

A

A principal is disclosed if, when an agent and a third party interact, the third party has notice that the agent is acting for a principal and has notice of the principal’s identity.

A principal is undisclosed if, when an agent and a third party interact, the third party has no notice that the agent is acting for a principal.

A principal is unidentified if, when an agent and a third party interact, the third party has notice that the agent is acting for a principal but does not have notice of the principal’s identity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

If an agent with actual/apparent authority makes a contract on behalf of a disclosed principal, who are the parties to the contract?

A

When an agent acting with actual or apparent authority makes a contract on behalf of a disclosed principal,

  • (1) the principal and the third party are parties to the contract; and
  • (2) the agent is not a party to the contract unless the agent and third party agree otherwise.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

If an agent with actual authority makes a contract on behalf of an undisclosed principal, who are the parties to the contract?

A

When an agent acting with actual authority makes a contract on behalf of an undisclosed principal, unless excluded by the contract,

  • (1) the principal is a party to the contract;
  • (2) the agent and the third party are parties to the contract.

The third party does not know there is a principal, so there can’t be a manifestation from the principal to the third party that the agent is the principal’s agent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

If an agent with actual/apparent authority makes a contract on behalf of an unidentified principal, who are the parties to the contract?

A

When an agent acting with actual or apparent authority makes a contract on behalf of an unidentified principal,

  • (1) the principal and the third party are parties to the contract; and
  • (2) the agent is a party to the contract unless the agent and the third party agree otherwise.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Can an agent be a party to a contract if the principal does not exist or lacks capacity?

A

Yes, unless the third party agrees otherwise, a person who makes a contract with a third party “as an agent of a principal” becomes a party to the contract if the purported agent knows or has reason to know that the purported principal does not exist or lacks capacity to be a party to a contract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

If a person makes a contract with a third party on behalf of a principal, but lacks such authority, have they breached any warranty to the third party?

A

Yes. They breach an implied warranty of authority to the third party unless:

  • (a) the principal or purported principal ratifies the act;
  • (b) the person gives notice to the third party that no warranty of authority is given; or
  • (c) the third party knows that the person acts without actual authority.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

If a third party finds out that an undisclosed principal is the principal, may the third party avoid the contract?

A

Yes. When an agent, who makes a contract or conveyance on behalf of an undisclosed principal, falsely represents to the third party that the agent does not act on behalf of a principal, the third party may avoid the contract or conveyance if the principal or agent had notice that the third party would not have dealt with the principal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Can principals be liable for acts of the agents under estoppel?

A

Yes. A principal who is not otherwise liable as a party to a transaction purportedly done by the agent on that principal’s account is subject to liability to a third party who justifiably is induced to make a detrimental change in position because the transaction is believed to be on the principal’s account, if

  • (a) the principal intentionally or carelessly caused such belief, or
  • (b) having notice of such belief and that it might induce others to change their positions, the principal did not take reasonable steps to notify them of the facts.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Is an agent subject to liability to a third party harmed by the agent’s tortious conduct where the conduct was properly within the scope of employment?

A

Yes, an agent is subject to liability to a third party harmed by the agent’s tortious conduct. Unless an applicable statute provides otherwise, an actor remains subject to liability although the actor acts as an agent or an employee, with actual or apparent authority, or within the scope of employment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

If an agent harms a third party in the scope of the agency and in so doing breaches a duty of care owed (solely) to the principal, can the third party raise that breach as a basis for the agent’s liability to the third party?

A

No, an agent’s breach of a duty owed to the principal is not an independent basis for the agent’s tort liability to a third party. An agent is subject to tort liability to a third party harmed by the agent’s conduct only when the agent’s conduct breaches a duty that the agent owes to the third party.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When is a principal subject to direct liability to a third party harmed by an agent’s conduct?

A

When the agent acts with actual authority or the principal ratifies the agent’s conduct and:

  • (a) the agent’s conduct is tortious;
  • (b) the agent’s conduct, if that of the principal, would subject the principal to tort liability;
  • (c) the principal is negligent in selecting, supervising, or otherwise controlling the agent; or
  • (d) the principal delegates performance of a duty to use care to protect other persons or their property to an agent who fails to perform the duty.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When is a principal subject to vicarious liability to a third party harmed by an agent’s conduct?

A

When (a) the agent is an employee who commits a tort while acting within the scope of employment or (b) the agent commits a tort when acting with apparent authority in dealing with a third party on or purportedly on behalf of the principal.

An employee’s conduct was within the scope of employment if:

  • (1) the conduct occurred substantially within the time and space limits authorized by the employment;
  • (2) the employee was motivated, at least partially, by a purpose to serve the employer; and
  • (3) the act was of a kind that the employee was hired to perform.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Are employers liable for tortious conduct committed by employees if the action was done on a detour from the employment?

A

An employee making a minor deviation from his employer’s business for his own purposes is still within the scope of his employment.

If the deviation in time or geographic area is substantial, the employer is not liable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Intentional torts by employees are not generally within scope of employment. What are the exceptions?

A

(1) Force is authorized in employment (bouncer).
(2) Friction is generated by the employment (bill collector).
(3) The employee is furthering the business of the employer (removing rowdy customers).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Are principals liable for torts of independent contractors?

A

As a general rule, a principal is not liable for torts of independent contractors. There are exceptions:

  • (1) The independent contractor is engaged in an inherently dangerous activity (blasting).
  • (2) Duty is not delegable (duty to use care in building a fence around excavation site).

The difference between an independent contractor and employee is that with the independent contractor, the principal has no right to control the manner and method in which the job is performed, while with the employee, the principal has the right to such control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the ways that actual authority may be terminated?

A

(a) Death of either party (or cessation of existence)
(b) Principal’s loss of capacity
(c) Agreement between agent and principal
(d) Occurrence of circumstances such that agent should reasonably conclude principal would no longer assent to agency
(e) Revocation by principal or renunciation by agent
(f) Statute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Does the death of a principal terminate the agent’s actual authority?

A

Yes. When a principal (natural person) dies, his/her agent’s actual authority terminates when the agent has notice of the principal’s death.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the effect of the loss of a principal’s capacity on actual authority? When is it effective?

A

It terminates the agent’s actual authority. The termination becomes effective when the agent has notice that the principal’s loss of capacity is permanent or that principal has been adjudicated to lack capacity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Can an agent have effective actual authority if the principal has lost capacity?

A

Yes, a written instrument may make an agent’s actual authority effective upon a principal’s loss of capacity or confer it irrevocably regardless of such loss.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is a durable power of attorney?

A

A written designation of an attorney-in-fact expressing the principal’s intention that the power shall not be affected by the principal’s subsequent loss of capacity, or that the power shall become effective upon the principal’s subsequent disability or incapacity.

The principal may revoke the power so long as the principal has capacity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When is apparent authority terminated?

A

Apparent authority ends when it is no longer reasonable for the third party with whom an agent deals to believe that the agent continues to act with actual authority.

The termination of actual authority does not by itself end any apparent authority held by an agent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What effects do indicia of authority have on the principal/agent relationship?

A

A principal may furnish an agent with a writing, such as a power of attorney, that states the extent and nature of the agent’s actual authority. Providing the agent with such a writing enables third parties to deal with the agent as to matters within the scope of the stated authority without confirming the agent’s authority directly with the principal.

When actual authority is terminated, the agent has a duty to return indicia of authority to the principal. If the agent does not return the indicia to the principal, the principal bears the risk that the agent will use them to deceive third parties who do not have notice that the agent’s actual authority has been terminated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is ratification? How does one ratify an act?

A

Ratification is the affirmance of a prior act done by another.

  • Upon ratification, the prior act done by another is effective as if done by an agent acting with actual authority. Ratification retroactively creates the effects of actual authority, meaning it relates back in time to the act being ratified.

A person can ratify an act by:

  • (a) manifesting assent that the act shall affect the person’s legal relations, or
  • (b) conduct that justifies a reasonable assumption that the person so consents.
    • This way, failure to object may constitute a manifestation of assent when the person has notice that others are likely to draw such an inference (that there is assent) from silence.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Are there times where ratification occurs, but will be found not to be effective?

A

Yes. Ratification is not effective:

  • (a) in favor of a person who causes it by misrepresentation or other conduct that would make a contract voidable;
  • (b) in favor of an agent against a principal when the principal ratifies to avoid a loss; or
  • (c) to diminish the rights or other interests of persons, not parties to the transaction, that were acquired in the subject matter prior to the ratification.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Can a third party withdraw before ratification?

A

Yes. If an agent dupes a third party into believing the agent had authority, it is fair to permit the third party to withdraw.

Permitting the third party to withdraw prior to ratification by the principal creates an incentive for the principal to ratify sooner rather than later, rather than delaying to see whether the transaction itself turns out to be to the principal’s advantage.

This reduces the risk created by ratification, which is that the principal will use it to speculate at the expense of the third party.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Can ratification be used to deprive a person of a right fixed prior to the ratification, or to create a liability against a person past the time set to determine such a liability?

A

No. A ratification of a transaction is not effective unless it precedes the occurrence of circumstances that would cause the ratification to have adverse and inequitable effects on the rights of third parties. These circumstances include:

  • (a) any manifestation of intention to withdraw from the transaction made by the third party;
  • (b) any material change in circumstances that would make it inequitable to bind the third party, unless the third party chooses to be bound; and
  • (c) a specific time that determines whether a third party is deprived of a right or subjected to a liability.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Can a principal ratify only part of an act?

A

No. A ratification is not effective unless it encompasses the entirety of an act, contract, or other single transaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Can someone ratify the act of someone who was not their agent?

A

Yes. A person can ratify the acts of another who purports to be their agent even though the person is not.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the elements of notification?

A

A notification is, (a) per agreement of the parties, (b) applicable law, or (c) when in a reasonable manner:

  • (1) a manifestation
  • (2) with the intent to affect the legal rights/duties of the notifier
  • (3) relative to rights/duties of the notified.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Is a third party’s notification to an agent effective against the principal?

A

Yes. A notification given to an agent is effective as notice to the principal if the agent has actual or apparent authority to receive the notification, unless the person who gives the notification knows or has reason to know that the agent is acting adversely to the principal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Is an agent’s notification to a third party effective against the principal?

A

Yes. A notification given by an agent is effective as notification given by the principal if the agent has actual or apparent authority to give the notification, unless the person who receives the notification knows or has reason to know that the agent is acting adversely to the principal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

When does notification take effect?

A

Depending on the parties’ intention and applicable law, a notification may be effective as soon as it is received.

Alternatively, the effect of a notification may be delayed when the notification requires that the person notified take further action.

In such cases, notification given to an agent is not effective as to the principal prior to the earlier of a reasonable time for taking action or a diligent attempt to take action.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

When is knowledge of an agent imputed to the principal?

A

Notice of a fact that an agent knows or has reason to know is imputed to the principal if knowledge of the fact is material to the agent’s duties to the principal, unless the agent

  • (a) acts adversely to the principal, or
  • (b) is subject to a duty to another not to disclose the fact to the principal.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How do we determine if an agent is acting adversely to a principal?

A

It is not enough that the agent’s actions have harmed or damaged the principal. It is a subjective test: whether the agent acts intending to act solely for the agent’s own purposes or those of another person.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Assuming there is no contract governing the issue of payment for services rendered by an agent to a principal, does the principal have a duty to compensate the agent for the agent’s services?

A

Unless an agreement between a principal and an agent indicates otherwise, a principal has a duty to pay compensation to an agent for services that the agent provides.

An agreement that an agent will not have a right to compensation for services provided may be implied from the agent’s relationship to the principal or from the trivial nature of the services requested.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What does it mean to say that a principal has indemnified an agent? When does a principal have the duty to indemnify an agent?

A

It means that if the agent suffers any loss as a result of the agency, the principal will make the agent whole.

A principal has a duty to indemnify an agent in accordance with the terms of any contract between them, and unless otherwise agreed:

  • (a) when the agent suffers a loss that fairly should be borne by the principal in light of their relationship; or
  • (b) when the agent makes a payment:
    • (i) within the scope of the agent’s actual authority; or
    • (ii) that is beneficial to the principal, unless the agent acts officiously in making the payment.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the duty of good faith in an agency relationship?

A

A principal has a duty to deal with the agent fairly and in good faith, including a duty to provide the agent with information about risks of physical harm or pecuniary loss that the principal knows, has reason to know, or should know are present in the agent’s work but unknown to the agent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the elements of a partnership?

A

A partnership is the association of two or more persons to carry on as co-owners a business for profit, whether or not the persons intend to form a partnership.

  • The idea of an association is one of voluntarily coming together—to agree to combine property, money, skill, etc. to carry out a business enterprise.
  • People who become co-owners other than by voluntary act (inheritance, divorce, foreclosure) are not automatically partners.
  • It does not matter whether the two persons intended to form a partnership; instead, we look at the substance of the association: what it does, how it acts, etc.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are some key factors that establish whether a person is a partner?

A

Partners:

  • (i) Share equally net profits (prima facie evidence of partnership),
  • (ii) Repay capital contribution once all liabilities are satisfied,
  • (iii) Are indemnified by partnership,
  • (iv) Have equal rights in management,
  • (v) Have right to inspect and copy any partnership records, and
  • (vi) Owe fiduciary duties to other partners.

In addition, becoming a partner requires consent of all of the partners.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Can a partnership simultaneously be a different kind of business organization?

A

No. Business associations organized under other statutes are not partnerships. General partnership is the residual form of for-profit business association, existing only if another form does not.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Can joint ownership of land establish a partnership on its own? What if the parties share profits made by use of the land?

A

No. In determining whether a partnership is formed, the following rules apply:

  • Joint tenancy, tenancy in common, tenancy by the entireties, joint property, common property, or part ownership does not, by itself, establish a partnership, even if the co-owners share profits made by the use of the property.
  • The sharing of gross returns does not, by itself, establish a partnership, even if the persons sharing them have a joint or common right or interest in property from which the returns are derived.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the difference between gross receipts and profits? Which one, if shared by potential partners, is more of an indication of a partnership?

A

Gross receipts are the income before any costs/expenses are removed while profits are the income after all costs/expenses are removed.

Receiving a share of gross receipts indicates that each person will bear their own costs and risk of loss/profit. This indicates a decision not to carry on as partners (who share profits/losses).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Are persons who receive a share of profits of a business presumed to be a partner? Can the presumption be rebutted?

A

A person who receives a share of the profits of a business is presumed to be a partner in the business, unless the profits were received in payment:

  • (a) of a debt by installments or otherwise;
  • (b) for services as an independent contractor or of wages or other compensation to an employee;
  • (c) of rent;
  • (d) of an annuity or other retirement benefit to a beneficiary, representative, or designee of a deceased or retired partner;
  • (e) of interest or other charge on a loan, even if the amount of payment varies with the profits of the business, including a direct or indirect present or future ownership of the collateral, or rights to income, proceeds, or increase in value derived from the collateral; or
  • (f) for the sale of the goodwill of a business or other property by installments or otherwise.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

When is a person liable as a “partner by estoppel” (also called a “purported partner”)?

A

When a person by words or conduct represents himself as a partner or consents to being represented by another as a partner, that person is liable to third parties who enter into a transaction relying upon the purported partnership.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What share of profits is each partner entitled to? What about losses?

A

Unless the agreement stipulates otherwise, the default is that the partners share equally in the profits and are equally chargeable with a share of the losses. To the extent the partnership agreement does not otherwise provide, RUPA governs relations among partners and between partners and a partnership.

  • Use of the term “chargeable” “is intended to make clear that a partner is not obligated to contribute to partnership losses before his withdrawal or the liquidation of the partnership, unless the partners agree otherwise.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

When do partners have the right to a salary?

A

Unless the agreement stipulates otherwise, the default is that the partners are not entitled to remuneration for services performed for the partnership, except for reasonable compensation for services rendered in winding up the business of the partnership. So, if there is no agreement saying so, then there is no right to a salary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

If persons are partners in a business, when must profits be distributed to each partner?

A

Absent an agreement to the contrary, a partner is entitled to payment of profits when the partnership has dissolved and the winding up process is complete.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is a “drawing account?”

A

A capital account keeps track of the capital contributed, profits, and losses accruing to each partner. Sometimes the partners agree that individual partners may remove value from those capital accounts. One mechanism of doing so is to create a “drawing account” that keeps track of the amount the partner has withdrawn from their capital account.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is a “capital call”?

A

Sometimes a partnership needs additional resources to pay the obligations of the partnership. If that is the case, the partners may request additional funds from the partners. This “capital call” does not have a basis in RUPA, so if the partners want to allow for capital calls, they should include a provision for them in the partnership agreement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is a service only partner? What kinds of problems arise for service only partners during dissolution?

A

A service only partner is a partner whose “capital contribution” in money or property is zero, but who contributes by giving services to the partnership.

Because they share equally in a firm’s losses, they may have to pay other partners.

  • Under the majority rule, in the absence of contrary agreement, a service only partner bears losses equally with all other partners.
  • Under the minority rule, in the absence of contrary agreement, where one partner contributed capital and another only their services, in the event of a loss each loses his own capital (one money, the other labor).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What kind of authority do partners have? Can partners bind other partners?

A

Subject to the effect of a statement of partnership authority:

  • (1) Each partner is an agent of the partnership for the purpose of its business. An act of a partner, including the execution of an instrument in the partnership name, for apparently carrying on in the ordinary course the partnership business binds the partnership, unless the partner had no authority to act for the partnership in the particular matter and the person with whom the partner was dealing knew or had received a notification that the partner lacked authority.
  • (2) An act of a partner which is not apparently for carrying on in the ordinary course the partnership business binds the partnership only if the act was authorized by the other partners or is authorized by terms of a written partnership agreement.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is a partner’s right to manage the partnership? How are disagreements between partners resolved?

A

Each partner has equal rights in the management and conduct of the partnership business.

  • A partnership shall keep its books and records, if any, at its chief executive office. A partnership shall provide partners and their agents and attorneys access to its books and records. Without access to information about the partnership, it is not possible for the partner to make informed decisions or to uncover problems.

A difference arising as to a matter in the ordinary course of business of a partnership may be decided by a majority of the partners. An act outside the ordinary course of business of a partnership and an amendment to the partnership agreement may be undertaken only with the consent of all of the partners.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is a “statement of partnership authority”?

A

A statement that is filed with the division of corporations (or secretary of state), that identifies the partnership with name and address of the partnership, name and address of the partners, and states the authority (or limits on the authority) of partners.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What are the three ways that partnership property may be transferred?

A

(1) If property is held in the name of partnership, then it may be transferred by instrument executed by a partner in the partnership name.
(2) If property is held in the name of one or more partners AND transferring instrument indicates existence of partnership, then it may be transferred by instrument executed in the partners’ names.
(3) If property is held in the name of one or more persons AND partnership is not noted on the instrument, then it may be transferred by instrument executed in those persons’ names.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

How may a partnership recover partnership property from a transferee?

A

A partnership may recover partnership property from a transferee only if it proves that execution of the instrument of initial transfer did not bind the partnership and proves that the transferee knew or had received a notification that the person who executed the instrument of initial transfer lacked authority to bind the partnership.

  • If the instrument indicated the existence of the partnership, the transferee must also have known that the property was partnership property.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Is knowledge imputed to other partners?

A

Yes. A partner’s knowledge, notice, or receipt of a notification of a fact relating to the partnership is effective immediately as knowledge by, notice to, or receipt of a notification by the partnership, except in the case of a fraud on the partnership committed by or with the consent of that partner.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the liability of members of a partnership? Do incoming partners share the same liability?

A

All partners are liable jointly and severally for all obligations of the partnership unless otherwise agreed by the claimant or provided by law.

A person admitted as a partner into an existing partnership is not personally liable for any partnership obligation incurred before the person’s admission as a partner.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the liability of a dissociated partner?

A

(a) A partner’s dissociation does not of itself discharge the partner’s liability for a partnership obligation incurred before dissociation. A dissociated partner is not liable for a partnership obligation incurred after dissociation, except as otherwise provided in subsection (b).
(b) A partner who dissociates without resulting in a dissolution and winding up of the partnership business is liable as a partner to the other party in a transaction entered into by the partnership within two years after the partner’s dissociation, only if the partner is liable for the obligation and at the time of entering into the transaction, the other party:

  • (1) reasonably believed that the dissociated partner was then a partner, and
  • (2) did not have notice of the partner’s dissociation.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is partnership tort liability?

A

A partnership is liable for loss or injury caused to a person, or for a penalty incurred, as a result of a wrongful act or omission, or other actionable conduct, of a partner acting in the ordinary course of business of the partnership or with authority of the partnership.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the exhaustion rule?

A

Partnership creditors must first execute against partnership assets until those assets are fully exhausted before executing against a partner’s personal assets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Under the default rules of RUPA, what right do individual partners have to transfer partnership property?

A

Property acquired by a partnership is property of the partnership and not of the partners individually. This means that among partners, in the absence of a contrary agreement:

  • (a) No right to partition.
  • (b) No right to withdraw property or to in-kind distribution.
  • (c) No right to use for personal purposes.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

How do we know if property is partnership property?

A

Ultimately, it is the intention of the partners that controls whether property belongs to the partnership or to one or more of the partners in their individual capacities, at least as among the partners themselves. Additionally, there are two presumptions under RUPA:

  • (1) Property purchased with partnership funds is presumed to be partnership property, notwithstanding the name in which title is held.
  • (2) Property acquired in the name of one or more of the partners, without an indication of their capacity as partners and without use of partnership funds or credit, is presumed to be the partners’ separate property, even if used for partnership purposes. In effect, it is presumed in that case that only the use of the property is contributed to the partnership.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the definition of “dissociation?” What events cause dissociation?

A

Dissociation is the change in the relationship caused by a partner’s ceasing to be associated in the carrying on of the business. The partnership cannot eliminate the power of a partner to dissociate by express will but can eliminate the right and thereby make the dissociation wrongful. A partner is dissociated from a partnership upon the occurrence of any of the following events:

  • (a) notice of the partner’s express will to withdraw;
  • (b) happening of an agreed event;
  • (c) the valid expulsion of a partner;
  • (d) the partner entering bankruptcy;
  • (e) the partner’s death or incapacity to perform partnership duties;
  • (f) for a partner that is a trust or estate, distribution of the trust’s or estate’s entire transferable interest in the partnership; and
  • (g) termination of a business entity that is a partner.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

When is dissociation wrongful? What liabilities does a wrongfully dissociated partner owe to the other partners?

A

A person’s dissociation as a partner is wrongful only if the dissociation is in breach of an express provision of the partnership agreement or occurs before the expiration of an agreed upon term.

A person that wrongfully dissociates as a partner is liable to the partnership and to the other partners for damages caused by the dissociation. The liability is in addition to any debt, obligation, or other liability of the partner to the partnership or the other partners.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

When is a partner expelled?

A

When a partner is removed by the partners from the partnership and the partnership continues in existence, the removed partner has been expelled. Additionally, the expulsion must not violate the duty of loyalty.

If the partnership does not continue in existence, there has been a dissolution of the partnership and the partner was not expelled.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is a partner’s duty of loyalty?

A

A partner’s duty of loyalty to the partnership and the other partners is limited to the following:

  • (1) to account to the partnership and hold as trustee for it any property, profit, or benefit derived by the partner in the conduct and winding up of the partnership business or derived from a use by the partner of partnership property, including the appropriation of a partnership opportunity;
  • (2) to refrain from dealing with the partnership in the conduct or winding up of the partnership business as or on behalf of a party having an interest adverse to the partnership; and
  • (3) to refrain from competing with the partnership in the conduct of the partnership business before the dissolution of the partnership.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is a partner’s duty of care?

A

A partner’s duty of care to the partnership and the other partners in the conduct and winding up of the partnership business is limited to refraining from engaging in grossly negligent or reckless conduct, intentional misconduct, or a knowing violation of law.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What happens to a partner’s rights in a partnership after the partner dissociates from the partnership, but the dissociation does not cause dissolution of the partnership?

A

(1) The partner’s right to participate in the management and conduct of the partnership business terminates (but can participate in winding up);
(2) The partner’s duty of loyalty to not compete with the partnership terminates; and
(3) The partner’s duty of loyalty (accounting/hold property as trustee and having adverse interest) and duty of care continue only with regard to matters arising and events occurring before the partner’s dissociation, unless the partner participates in winding up the partnership’s business.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What happens to a partner’s rights in a partnership after the partner dissociates from the partnership, and the dissociation causes dissolution of the partnership?

A

After dissolution, a partner who has not wrongfully dissociated may participate in winding up the partnership’s business, but on application of any partner, partner’s legal representative, or transferee, the court, for good cause shown, may order judicial supervision of the winding up.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is the definition of “dissolution?” What can create the dissolution of a partnership?

A

“Dissolution” is merely the commencement of the winding up process. Each of the following can create the dissolution of a partnership:

  • (1) In a partnership at will, notification by any partner of an express will to withdraw;
  • (2) In a partnership for a definite term/particular undertaking:
    • (a) Expiration of the term;
    • (b) Completion of the undertaking;
    • (c) Consent of all partners to dissolve;
    • (d) Within 90 days of a partner’s death, bankruptcy, or wrongful dissociation, at least half of the remaining partners wish to dissolve.
  • (3) The happening of an event that makes continuation of the partnership illegal;
  • (4) The happening of an event listed in the partnership agreement that requires winding up the partnership;
  • (5) Issuance of a judicial decree on application by a partner that
    • (a) The economic purpose of the partnership is likely to be frustrated,
    • (b) A partner has engaged in conduct making it not reasonably practicable to carry on the business, or
    • (c) The business cannot practicably be carried on in conformity with the partnership agreement;
  • (6) Issuance of a judicial decree on application by a transferee of a partner’s interest that it is equitable to wind up the partnership
    • (a) After the term expires or the undertaking is completed in a partnership for a definite term or particular undertaking, or
    • (b) At any time in a partnership at will.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What rights does a partner have to bind the partnership once the partnership has begun winding up?

A

Subject to a statement of dissolution, a partnership is bound by a partner’s act after dissolution that:

  • (a) is appropriate for winding up the partnership business; or
  • (b) would have bound the partnership before dissolution, if the other party to the transaction did not have notice of the dissolution.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What liability do partners owe to each other after dissolution?

A

A partner is liable to the other partners for the partner’s share of any partnership liability incurred winding up the partnership.

A partner who, with knowledge of the dissolution, incurs a partnership liability by an act that is not appropriate for winding up the partnership business is liable to the partnership for any damage caused to the partnership arising from the liability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is the definition of “winding up?” What causes it?

A

“Winding up” the partnership business entails selling its assets, paying its debts, and distributing the net balance, if any, to the partners in cash according to their interests.

The partnership entity continues, and the partners are associated in the winding up of the business until winding up is completed.

When the winding up is completed, the partnership entity terminates.

Anything that causes dissolution thereby causes winding up.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Can winding up be waived by the partners?

A

Yes. At any time after the dissolution of a partnership and before the winding up of its business is completed, all of the partners, including any dissociating partner other than a wrongfully dissociating partner, may waive the right to have the partnership’s business wound up and the partnership terminated. In that event:

  • (1) the partnership resumes carrying on its business as if dissolution had never occurred, and any liability incurred by the partnership or a partner after the dissolution and before the waiver is determined as if dissolution had never occurred; and
  • (2) the rights of a third party arising out of conduct in reliance on the dissolution before the third party knew or received a notification of the waiver may not be adversely affected.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is the process of valuation?

A

In the following order:

  • (1) Partnership assets are reduced to cash (liquidation).
  • (2) Partnership creditors (including partners who are creditors) are paid.
  • (3) Any surplus (or loss) is applied to a partner’s capital accounts.
  • (4) Partners are paid out (or contribute) according to the amounts in the capital accounts.
  • (5) If a partner does not pay for losses, the other partners must contribute per their share of profits/losses (the partners who contributed may seek the money from the partner who did not).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What are the two types of partners in a Limited Partnership and what (very roughly) are the differences?

A

Each general partner:

  • Has the authority to bind the partnership in contract,
  • Has equal rights to manage the partnership, and
  • Is subject to joint and several liability for the partnership.

Each limited partner:

  • Absent agreement, has no authority to bind the partnership in contract,
  • Has no right to manage the partnership, and
  • Has no liability for obligations of the partnership.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

How do you form a limited partnership under ULPA? What information is required?

A

To form a limited partnership, a person must deliver a certificate of limited partnership to the Department of State for filing. The certificate must contain:

  • (1) the name of the limited partnership,
  • (2) the street and mailing address of the initial designated office of the limited partnership, and of the initial registered agent, and
  • (3) the name and the business address of each general partner.

If the paperwork for a limited partnership is rejected, then the partnership will be considered a general partnership until paperwork is properly filed and accepted for a limited partnership.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Can general partners avoid liability with a good faith belief that they were a limited partner?

A

Yes, a partner who erroneously (but in good faith) believed he/she was a limited partner can avoid liability (other than for the initial investment) if, the person, on learning of the mistake:

  • (a) Causes an appropriate certificate of limited partnership, amendment, or statement of correction to be signed and delivered to the Department of State for filing; or
  • (b) Withdraws from future participation as an owner in the enterprise by signing and delivering to the Department of State for filing a statement of withdrawal under this section.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What liability does a limited partner owe when they become a general partner?

A

A person that becomes a general partner is not personally liable for a debt, obligation, or other liability of the limited partnership incurred before the person became a general partner.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What rights does a limited partner have?

A

A limited partner does not have the right or the power as a limited partner to act for or bind the limited partnership.

The limited partners have only those approval rights as are described in ULPA. The approval of all partners (general and limited) is required to:

  • (a) Amend the partnership agreement or the certificate of limited partnership,
  • (b) Admit or expel a limited or general partner,
  • (c) Compromise a partner’s obligation to make contributions or return an improper distribution,
  • (d) Redeem a transferable interest subject to a charging order,
  • (e) Dissolve the limited partnership,
  • (f) Approve a plan of conversion or a plan of merger,
  • (g) Sell, lease, exchange, or otherwise dispose of all, or substantially all, of the limited partnership’s property, with or without good will, other than in the usual and regular course of the limited partnership’s activities.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

How is a limited partnership dissolved?

A

A limited partnership is dissolved, and its activities must be wound up, only upon the occurrence of any of the following:

  • (a) The happening of an event specified in the partnership agreement;
  • (b) The consent of all general partners and of all limited partners;
  • (c) After the dissociation of a person as a general partner:
    • (1) If the limited partnership has at least one remaining general partner, the consent to dissolve the limited partnership by all partners at the time the consent is to be effective; or
    • (2) If the limited partnership does not have a remaining general partner, the passage of 90 days after the dissociation, unless before the end of the period:
      • (a) Consent to continue the activities of the limited partnership and admit at least one general partner is given by all partners at the time the consent is to be effective;
      • (b) At least one person is admitted as a general partner in accordance with the consent;
  • (d) The passage of 90 days after the dissociation of the limited partnership’s last limited partner, unless before the end of the period the limited partnership admits at least one limited partner; or
  • (e) The signing and filing of a declaration of dissolution by the Department of State.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What duties do general partners owe to the limited partnership? What are those duties?

A

The only fiduciary duties that a general partner has to the limited partnership and the other partners are the duties of loyalty and care.

(1) Duty of loyalty:

  • (a) To account to the limited partnership and hold as trustee for it any property, profit, or benefit derived by the general partner in the conduct and winding up of the limited partnership’s activities or derived from a use by the general partner of limited partnership property, including the appropriation of a limited partnership opportunity.
  • (b) To refrain from dealing with the limited partnership in the conduct or winding up of the limited partnership’s activities as or on behalf of a party having an interest adverse to the limited partnership.
  • (c) To refrain from competing with the limited partnership in the conduct of the limited partnership’s activities.

(2) A general partner’s duty of care to the limited partnership and the other partners in the conduct and winding up of the limited partnership’s activities is limited to refraining from engaging in grossly negligent or reckless conduct, intentional misconduct, or a knowing violation of law.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Does the general partner have an obligation to act in good faith and with fair dealing?

A

Yes. A general partner shall discharge the duties to the partnership and the other partners under this act or under the partnership agreement and exercise any rights consistently with the obligation of good faith and fair dealing.

94
Q

Do limited partners have any duties to the limited partnership?

A

No. A limited partner does not have any fiduciary duty to the limited partnership or to any other partner solely by reason of being a limited partner. For example, a limited partner may compete directly with the limited partnership.

95
Q

What is a derivative suit? Who may bring one? Who receives the damages?

A

In the limited partnership context, it is a lawsuit filed by a partner on behalf of the partnership. Because the bringing of a lawsuit is a management function, it is normally beyond the authority of a limited partner.

But all partners (general and limited) have a statutory right to file a derivative action relating to a limited partnership. A partner may maintain a derivative action to enforce a right of a limited partnership if:

  • (a) The partner first makes a demand on the general partners requesting that they cause the limited partnership to bring an action to enforce the right and the general partners do not bring the action within a reasonable time; or
  • (b) A demand would be futile.

The limited partnership will receive the damages from a successful derivative suit, although the plaintiff may recover reasonable expenses and attorneys’ fees.

96
Q

When are general partners dissociated from a limited partnership?

A

A general partner is dissociated from the limited partnership upon:

  • (1) The limited partnership’s notice of express will to withdraw as a general partner;
  • (2) Occurrence of event agreed to in the partnership agreement;
  • (3) The person’s expulsion as a general partner pursuant to the partnership agreement;
  • (4) The person’s expulsion as a general partner by the unanimous consent of the other partners;
  • (5) The person’s expulsion by judicial determination;
  • (6) The person’s becoming a debtor in bankruptcy;
  • (7) The person dies, appoints a guardian/conservator, or has a judicial determination of loss of capacity.
97
Q

When is a general partner wrongfully dissociated?

A

A person’s dissociation as a general partner is wrongful only if:

  • (a) It is in breach of an express provision of the partnership agreement; or
  • (b) It occurs before the termination of the limited partnership, and:
    • (1) The person withdraws as a general partner by express will;
    • (2) The person is expelled as a general partner by judicial determination;
    • (3) The person is dissociated as a general partner by becoming a debtor in bankruptcy; or
    • (4) In the case of a person that is not an individual, trust other than a business trust, or estate, the person is expelled or otherwise dissociated as a general partner because it willfully dissolved or terminated.
98
Q

What liability does a wrongfully dissociated general partner have to the partnership?

A

A person that wrongfully dissociates as a general partner is liable to the limited partnership and to the other partners for damages caused by the dissociation. The liability is in addition to any other obligation of the general partner to the limited partnership or to the other partners.

99
Q

Under ULPA, when may a limited partner withdraw?

A

Only upon winding up. A person does not have a right to dissociate as a limited partner before the termination of the limited partnership.

100
Q

When is a limited partner dissociated?

A

A person is dissociated from a limited partnership as a limited partner upon the occurrence of any of the following events:

  • (1) The limited partnership’s having notice of the person’s express will to withdraw as a limited partner or on a later date specified by the person;
  • (2) An event agreed to in the partnership agreement as causing the person’s dissociation as a limited partner;
  • (3) The person’s expulsion as a limited partner pursuant to the partnership agreement;
  • (4) The person’s expulsion as a limited partner by the unanimous consent of the other partners if:
    • (a) It is unlawful to carry on the limited partnership’s activities with the person as a limited partner;
    • (b) There has been a transfer of all of the person’s transferable interest in the limited partnership, other than a transfer for security purposes, or a court order charging the person’s interest, which has not been foreclosed;
    • (c) The person is a corporation and, within 90 days after the limited partnership notifies the person that the corporation will be expelled as a limited partner because the corporation has filed a certificate of dissolution or the equivalent, the corporation’s charter has been revoked, or its right to conduct business has been suspended by the jurisdiction of its incorporation, and there is no revocation of the certificate of dissolution or no reinstatement of its charter or its right to conduct business; or
    • (d) The person is a limited liability company or partnership that has been dissolved and whose business is being wound up.
101
Q

Under ULPA, can a limited partner cause the dissolution of the partnership?

A

Yes, by withdrawing. But under ULPA, if the other partners want to continue (and there is at least one continuing general partner), the partners have 90 days to do so.

102
Q

What is the winding up process for a limited partnership? How are the profits and losses allocated?

A

In winding up a limited partnership’s activities, the assets of the limited partnership, including the contributions required by this section, must be applied to satisfy the limited partnership’s obligations to creditors, including, to the extent permitted by law, partners that are creditors. Any surplus remaining must be paid in cash as a distribution.

Profits, losses, and distributions of a limited partnership shall be allocated among the partners on the basis of the value of the contributions the limited partnership has received from each partner.

103
Q

How do you form an LLC? What information is required?

A

To form a limited liability company, a person representing the company must deliver signed articles of organization to the Division of Corporations. The articles must contain:

  • (1) The name of the limited liability company.
  • (2) The street and mailing addresses of the company’s principal office.
  • (3) The name, street address in this state, and written acceptance of the company’s initial registered agent.
104
Q

What happens if someone suffers a loss because an LLC filing is inaccurate?

A

A person who suffers a loss by reliance on such information may recover damages for the loss from:

  • (a) A person who signed the record, or caused another to sign it on the person’s behalf, and knew the information was inaccurate at the time the record was signed; and
  • (b) A member of a member-managed limited liability company or a manager of a manager-managed limited liability company if:
    • (1) The record was delivered for filing on behalf of the company; and
    • (2) The member or manager had notice of the inaccuracy for a reasonably sufficient time before the information was relied upon so that, before the reliance, the member or manager reasonably could have corrected it.
105
Q

What are the two types of management structures an LLC can have? Which is the default?

A

Manager-managed and member-managed.

A limited liability company is a member-managed limited liability company unless the operating agreement or articles of organization expressly provide that it will be a manager-managed company.

106
Q

Are members or managers personally liable for the debts of the LLC?

A

No. A debt, obligation, or other liability of a limited liability company is solely the debt, obligation, or other liability of the company.

A member or manager is not personally liable, directly or indirectly, by way of contribution or otherwise, for a debt, obligation, or other liability of the company solely by reason of being or acting as a member or manager.

107
Q

Do members of a manager-managed LLC have a right to take on a role of managing the company?

A

No. In a manager-managed limited liability company, a matter relating to the activities and affairs of the company is decided exclusively by the manager, or if there is more than one manager, by the managers.

108
Q

Can uninvolved members take on a managing role in a member-managed LLC?

A

Yes. In a member-managed limited liability company, the management and conduct of the company are vested in the members.

109
Q

What duties do members/managers in LLCs owe to the company? What are those duties?

A

Each manager of a manager-managed LLC and member of a member-managed LLC owes fiduciary duties of loyalty and care to the LLC and to the members of it.

  • (a) The duty of loyalty includes:
    • (1) Accounting to the limited liability company and holding as trustee for it any property, profit, or benefit derived by the manager or member, as applicable:
      • (a) In the conduct or winding up of the company’s activities and affairs;
      • (b) From the use by the member or manager of the company’s property; or
      • (c) From the appropriation of a company opportunity;
    • (2) Refraining from dealing with the company in the conduct or winding up of the company’s activities and affairs as, or on behalf of, a person having an interest adverse to the company; and
    • (3) Refraining from competing with the company in the conduct of the company’s activities and affairs before the dissolution of the company.
  • (b) The duty of care in the conduct or winding up of the company’s activities and affairs is to refrain from engaging in grossly negligent or reckless conduct, willful or intentional misconduct, or a knowing violation of law.
110
Q

When is a person dissociated as a member from an LLC?

A

A person is dissociated as a member if any of the following occur:

  • (1) The company has notice of the person’s express will to withdraw as a member, but if the person specified a withdrawal date later than the date the company had notice, on that later date.
  • (2) An event stated in the operating agreement as causing the person’s dissociation occurs.
  • (3) The person’s entire interest is transferred in a foreclosure sale.
  • (4) The person is expelled as a member pursuant to the operating agreement.
  • (5) The person is expelled as a member by the unanimous consent of the other members.
111
Q

When is an LLC dissolved, beginning the winding up process?

A

A limited liability company is dissolved and its activities and affairs must be wound up upon the occurrence of the following:

  • (1) An event or circumstance that the operating agreement states causes dissolution.
  • (2) The consent of all the members.
  • (3) The passage of 90 consecutive days during which the company has no members.
  • (4) The entry of a decree of judicial dissolution.
  • (5) The filing of a statement of administrative dissolution.
112
Q

What is piercing the veil? What factors does the court look at in deciding whether to pierce the veil?

A

If a court pierces a company’s corporate veil, the owners, shareholders, or members of a corporation or LLC can be held personally liable for corporate debts.

The overall approach is to decide whether the owners have “respected” the company as a separate entity. Factors include:

  • (a) Whether personal funds have been commingled with company funds;
  • (b) Whether the company’s funds have been commingled with other entities under their control;
  • (c) Whether the entity has been used for personal purposes or to advance the interests of other entities they control;
  • (d) Whether the entity is grossly undercapitalized; and
  • (e) Whether they have observed formalities in the running of its business.
113
Q

Who can ratify an act?

A

A person may ratify an act if:

  • (1) the person existed at the time of the act,
  • (2) the person had capacity at the time of ratifying the act, and
  • (3) the actor acted as the person’s agent or purported to act as an agent.

This means that undisclosed principals can ratify acts, but a corporation cannot ratify acts that were taken before its existence.

  • However, a corporation may elect to become bound by adopting what was done prior to its existence. Adoption operates analogously to ratification but unlike ratification, adoption does not have a relation-back effect.
114
Q

What is the agency cost problem? How does the law respond to it?

A

The agency cost problem occurs because the agent does not have the same motivation for engaging in action, relative to the agency, as the principal. As a result, the agent may act with less diligence or care than the principal would act (and desires the agent so to act). In addition, the agent has incentive/temptation to engage in deliberate wrongdoing contrary to the principal’s interest, while the principal does not.

In response, the law imposes fiduciary duties of loyalty and care on all fiduciaries.

115
Q

At the highest level, what do the duties of loyalty and care impose on a fiduciary?

A

The duty of loyalty imposes an obligation to act only in the beneficiary’s interest.

The duty of care imposes an obligation to act with a specified level of caution to protect the beneficiary’s interests.

116
Q

What kind of action is brought for a breach of fiduciary duty claim?

A

A fiduciary who commits a breach of his duty as a fiduciary is guilty of tortious conduct to the person for whom he should act. Therefore, it is a tort action.

117
Q

What is the duty of disclosure?

A

It requires the fiduciary to disclose material facts of a transaction. The duty of disclosure is simply a specific application of the duty of loyalty and the duty of care.

118
Q

What is the agent’s duty of care under the Restatement (Third) of Agency?

A

Subject to any agreement with the principal, an agent has a duty to the principal to act with the care, competence, and diligence normally exercised by agents in similar circumstances.

Note: Agents who act gratuitously are still subject to liability for breaching the duty of care.

119
Q

What happens if the agent has special skills or knowledge? Does how we measure whether the agent acted with due care change?

A

Yes. Special skills or knowledge possessed by an agent are circumstances to be taken into account in determining whether the agent acted with due care and diligence. If an agent claims to possess special skills or knowledge, the agent has a duty to the principal to act with the care, competence, and diligence normally exercised by agents with such skills or knowledge.

Note: A higher standard can also be created by a misrepresentation of special skills and knowledge by an agent.

120
Q

What is the duty of good conduct for agents?

A

An agent has a duty, within the scope of the agency relationship, to act reasonably and to refrain from conduct that is likely to damage the principal’s enterprise.

121
Q

What is an agent’s duty to use reasonable efforts to provide information?

A

An agent has a duty to use reasonable effort to provide the principal with facts that the agent knows, has reason to know, or should know when:

  • (1) subject to any manifestation by the principal, the agent knows or has reason to know that the principal would wish to have the facts or the facts are material to the agent’s duties to the principal; and
  • (2) the facts can be provided to the principal without violating a superior duty owed by the agent to another person.
122
Q

Under the business judgment rule if an officer or director makes a conscious business decision, when will it be in compliance with the duty of care to their corporations?

A

If it:

  • (1) is not self-interested,
  • (2) is reasonably informed,
  • (3) is rationally related to the best interest of the corporation, and
  • (4) is not knowingly wrongful or illegal.
123
Q

What is the “general” duty of loyalty (what are its elements)?

A

The plaintiff must show that the defendant owed the plaintiff a duty of loyalty and while under that duty, the defendant acted under a conflict of interest.

If the plaintiff shows this, then the defendant is liable unless the defendant can show the conduct was “fair” to the plaintiff.

124
Q

What are the three ways in which a plaintiff can normally show a conflict of interest?

A

(1) Defendant had a direct interest in a transaction in which the defendant also acted on the beneficiary’s behalf,
(2) A close associate or relative of the defendant had such a direct interest, or
(3) The defendant owed fiduciary duties to two or more persons whose interests in some transaction were adverse.

125
Q

How can the defendant show that the transaction was fair to the plaintiff despite the conflict of interest?

A

By showing that:

  • (1) the beneficiary received the same treatment that might have been available in the open market, and
  • (2) the beneficiary was not coerced, misled, or otherwise taken advantage of.
126
Q

What are the five special duty of loyalty rules?

A

(1) The duty not to derive excess benefits,
(2) The duty not to take business opportunities,
(3) The duty not to compete with the principal,
(4) Duties with respect to the principal’s property, and
(5) The duty not to exploit the principal’s confidences.

127
Q

For the agent’s duty not to derive excess benefits, does it matter if the principal is harmed by the agent’s conduct?

A

No. To establish that the agent is subject to liability, it is not necessary that the principal show that the agent’s acquisition of a material benefit harmed the principal.

128
Q

What remedies are available to the principal for the breach of the excess benefits rule?

A
  • (1) Monetary relief from the agent.
  • (2) In appropriate circumstances, monetary relief from any third party who participated in the agent’s breach.
  • (3) Avoid a contract entered into by the agent with a third party who participated in the agent’s breach of duty.
  • (4) Recover any material benefit received by the agent through the agent’s breach, the value of the benefit, or proceeds of the benefit retained by the agent.
  • (5) Damages for any harm caused by the agent’s breach.
129
Q

What is the agent’s duty not to compete?

A

Throughout the duration of an agency relationship, an agent has a duty to refrain from competing with the principal and from taking action on behalf of or otherwise assisting the principal’s competitors. During that time, an agent may take action, not otherwise wrongful, to prepare for competition following termination of the agency relationship.

Note: An agent who is planning to compete with the principal does not have a duty to disclose this fact to the principal.

130
Q

What is the agent’s duty not to take business opportunities?

A

An agent has a duty not to acquire a material benefit from a third party in connection with transactions conducted or other actions taken on behalf of the principal or otherwise through the agent’s use of the agent’s position.

Moreover, all agents, even those whose assigned work does not involve the assessment or pursuit of business opportunities, have a fiduciary duty to the principal not to take personal advantage of an opportunity and not to give the opportunity to a third person, when either the nature of the opportunity or the circumstances under which the agent learned of it require that the agent offer the opportunity to the principal.

131
Q

What is a business opportunity that belongs to the entity?

A

(1) Any opportunity to engage in a business activity of which the fiduciary becomes aware,

  • (a) In connection with the performance of functions as a fiduciary, or
  • (b) The fiduciary should reasonably believe the person offering the opportunity expects it to be offered to the beneficiary, or
  • (c) Through the use of the beneficiary’s information or property, if the resulting opportunity is one that the fiduciary should reasonably expect to believe would be of interest to the beneficiary, or

(2) Any opportunity to engage in a business activity of which a fiduciary becomes aware and knows is closely related to a business in which the beneficiary is engaged or expects to engage.

132
Q

What is the difference between a partnership and a joint venture?

A

A joint venture is generally a less formal relationship than a partnership.

A joint venture is not a legal entity separate from the participants (compared to a partnership where the partnership is its own entity).

While a partnership is ordinarily formed to carry on a general and continuing business, a joint venture is generally more limited in scope and duration.

Specifically, a joint venture is usually formed for a single business transaction, or a single series of transactions, or for a particular, defined purpose.

133
Q

What is the agent’s duty not to use the principal’s property and confidences?

A

An agent has a duty:

  • (1) not to use property of the principal for the agent’s own purposes or those of a third party; and
  • (2) not to use or communicate confidential information of the principal for the agent’s own purposes or those of a third party.
134
Q

What is the agent’s duty of disclosure?

A

An agent has a duty to use reasonable effort to provide the principal with facts that the agent knows, has reason to know, or should know when

  • (1) subject to any manifestation by the principal, the agent knows or has reason to know that the principal would wish to have the facts or the facts are material to the agent’s duties to the principal; and
  • (2) the facts can be provided to the principal without violating a superior duty owed by the agent to another person.

In essence, the agent has a duty to disclose material facts (which is situation dependent) to the principal unless the agent has a higher duty to another principal (which implicates the duty of loyalty).

135
Q

What must be shown to set aside a sale on the ground of breach of fiduciary duty (concealment/misrepresentation)?

A

It must be shown that the concealment or misrepresentation was material. Factors determining materiality include the sophistication of the complaining partner and degree of access to partnership records.

136
Q

Is there any way in which an agent can, without incurring liability, knowingly and intentionally act in way that is adverse to the principal’s interest?

A

Yes, An agent can act in a way that would be a breach of the duty of loyalty if they get the principal’s consent.

In doing so, the agent must act in good faith, disclose all material facts, and deal fairly with the principal.

137
Q

Can a principal give a blanket waiver of the duty of loyalty?

A

No, the principal can only waive the duty of loyalty relative to specific acts or transactions or of transactions of a specified type.

138
Q

Can an agent act for two principals who may have interests that are adverse to each other and for which the two agencies may also be adverse?

A

Yes, provided the agent:

  • (1) deals in good faith with each principal, and
  • (2) discloses to each principal:
    • (i) that the agent acts for the other principal and
    • (ii) all facts that would reasonably affect the principal’s judgment, and
  • (3) deals fairly with each principal.
139
Q

Can the duty of care be waived?

A

Yes and no. The restatement makes clear that it may be modified by agreement: “Subject to any agreement with the principal, an agent has a duty to the principal to act with the care, competence, and diligence normally exercised by agents in similar circumstances.”

  • A principal and an agent may establish benchmarks or other measures for the effort and skill to be expected from the agent.
  • If an agreement between principal and agent is otherwise enforceable, it may define the standard of performance applicable to the agent across the board in general terms and without the specificity required under the rule.
140
Q

When are breaches of fiduciary duties usually litigated? What are the key remedies one can seek for a breach of fiduciary duty?

A

Breaches of fiduciary duties are usually litigated after the fact. Remedies include:

  • (1) money damages,
  • (2) constructive trust,
  • (3) punitive damages,
  • (4) injunction (TRO),
  • (5) reuse to pay compensation,
  • (6) contract remedies (breach of fiduciary duty is always a material breach).
141
Q

What is an accounting? Why is this a potentially problematic thing to ask for?

A

An accounting is a special procedure in which the partner asks the court to engage in an equitable proceeding examining the financial affairs of the firm and rendering judgment as to all debts owing among the partners.

It resolves all issues within the partnership. That means the court must value all assets and liabilities including uncertain or speculative ones. As a result, the proceeding may be drawn out, expensive, and unpredictable.

142
Q

What factors should be considered if someone wants to incorporate a business out of state?

A

(1) The advantages and disadvantages of the state’s corporate law (both common and statutory);
(2) Whether state income taxes will be due in both states;
(3) Whether “franchise” taxes will be due, and the amount, to the state of incorporation;
(4) The administrative and other costs of filing as a “foreign” corporation doing business in state;
(5) That the business is subject to the personal jurisdiction of both the foreign and home states.

143
Q

What is the process by which a business may be incorporated?

A

(1) The incorporator(s) must file the articles of incorporation with the Secretary of State (Division of Corporations in Florida);
(2) The incorporator(s) name the board of directors (unless named in the articles);
(3) The incorporator(s) create the bylaws.

144
Q

What role in a corporation do the articles of incorporation play?

A

(1) They set out the basics of the business’s governance;
(2) They set out the capital structure of the business;
(3) They set out rules governing virtually any matter within the corporation.

145
Q

Why do businesses prefer to keep corporate bylaws as simple as possible?

A

(1) Because of the difficulty and unpredictability of amending the bylaws particularly in large corporations (normally only after majority vote of the board of directions and shareholders).
(2) To maximize legal flexibility to engage in transactions (because of the difficulty of knowing in advance if a particular type of transaction is one the corporation would like to engage in).

146
Q

What is an “incorporator”?

A

One or more persons may act as the incorporator or incorporators of a corporation by delivering articles of incorporation to the department for filing.

147
Q

What must the articles of incorporation set forth?

A

The articles of incorporation must set forth:

  • (1) A corporate name for the corporation;
  • (2) The street address of the initial principal office and, if different, the mailing address of the corporation;
  • (3) The number of shares the corporation is authorized to issue;
  • (4) The street address of the corporation’s initial registered office and the name of its initial registered agent at that office together with a written acceptance; and
  • (5) The name and address of each incorporator.
148
Q

What may the articles of incorporation set forth?

A

The articles of incorporation may set forth:

  • (1) The names and addresses of the individuals who are to serve as the initial directors;
  • (2) Provisions not inconsistent with law regarding:
    • (i) The purpose or purposes for which the corporation is organized;
    • (ii) Managing the business and regulating the affairs of the corporation;
    • (iii) Defining, limiting, and regulating the powers of the corporation and its board of directors and shareholders;
    • (iv) A par value for authorized shares or classes of shares;
    • (v) The imposition of personal liability on shareholders for the debts of the corporation to a specified extent and upon specified conditions; and
    • (vi) Exclusive forum provisions;
  • (3) Provisions for granting any preemptive rights to shareholders; and
  • (4) Any provision that is required or permitted to be set forth in the bylaws.
149
Q

When does corporate existence begin?

A

Unless a delayed effective date is specified, the corporate existence begins when the articles of incorporation are filed or on a date specified in the articles of incorporation, if such date is within 5 business days prior to the date of filing.

  • The department’s filing of the articles of incorporation is conclusive proof that the incorporators satisfied all conditions precedent to incorporation except in a proceeding by the state to cancel or revoke the incorporation or administratively dissolve the corporation.
150
Q

What is the liability of individuals acting as or on behalf of a corporation if there was no incorporation?

A

All persons purporting to act as or on behalf of a corporation, knowing that there was no incorporation, are jointly and severally liable for all liabilities created while so acting.

151
Q

Who shall adopt the initial bylaws of a corporation?

A

The incorporators or board of directors of a corporation shall adopt initial bylaws for the corporation unless that power is reserved to the shareholders by the articles of incorporation.

152
Q

What is the default purpose of corporations?

A

Every corporation incorporated under this chapter has the purpose of engaging in any lawful business unless a more limited purpose is set forth in the articles of incorporation.

153
Q

What powers does a corporation have to carry out its business and affairs?

A

Unless its articles of incorporation provide otherwise, every corporation has perpetual duration and succession in its corporate name and has the same powers as an individual to do all things necessary or convenient to carry out its business and affairs, including power:

  • (1) To sue and be sued, complain, and defend in its corporate name;
  • (2) To have a corporate seal, which may be altered at will and to use it or a facsimile of it, by impressing or affixing it or in any other manner reproducing it;
  • (3) To purchase, receive, lease, or otherwise acquire, and own, hold, improve, use, and otherwise deal with real or personal property or any legal or equitable interest in property wherever located;
  • (4) To sell, convey, mortgage, pledge, create a security interest in, lease, exchange, and otherwise dispose of all or any part of its property;
  • (5) To lend money to, and use its credit to assist, its officers and employees;
  • (6) To make contracts and guarantees, incur liabilities, borrow money, issue its notes, bonds, and other securities and obligations; and
  • (7) To make donations for the public welfare or for charitable, scientific, or educational purposes.
154
Q

What are the rules for corporate names?

A

A corporate name:

  • (1) Must contain the word “corporation,” “company,” or “incorporated” or the abbreviation “Corp.,” or “Inc.,” or “Co.,” or the designation “Corp,” or “Inc,” or “Co,” as will clearly indicate that it is a corporation instead of a natural person, partnership, or other eligible entity.
  • (2) May not contain language stating or implying that the corporation is organized for a purpose other than that permitted by law and its articles of incorporation.
  • (3) May not contain language stating or implying that the corporation is connected with a state or federal government agency or a corporation or other entity chartered under the laws of the United States.
  • (4) Must be distinguishable from the names of all other entities or filings that are on file with the department.

A corporation may register under a name that is not otherwise distinguishable on the records of the department with the written consent of the other entity if the consent is filed with the department at the time of registration of such name and if such name is not identical to the name of the other entity.

155
Q

What is a “promoter”?

A

A person who acts on behalf of a business before it is incorporated.

156
Q

Can a corporation’s adoption of a promoter’s acts release the promoter’s liability for the acts done before the corporation existed?

A

The later formation of the corporation and subsequent adoption of the contract by the corporation does not necessarily release a promoter from liability, but may result in joint liability of the promoter and corporation, absent a novation or express release by the other party to the contract.

157
Q

What are the rules regarding adoption?

A

(1) A corporate entity does not exist prior to incorporation.
(2) A corporate entity is not bound on contracts entered into by the promoter before incorporation in the corporate name absent adoption of the contract.
(3) A promoter is not an agent of the corporation prior to incorporation.
(4) The corporation may become bound on promoter contracts by adopting them.
(5) Adoption makes the corporation a party to the contract at the time it adopts.
(6) Adoption of the contract does not of itself relieve the promoter of his liability.
(7) The liability of the corporation runs from the date of adoption.
(8) Adoption may be express (e.g., by board of directors’ resolution) or implied (e.g., by acquiescence or conduct normally constituting estoppel).

158
Q

When does a corporation begin to exist (such that it can undertake obligations/contracts)?

A

When the articles of incorporation are filed. If a date of coming into existence is specified in the articles of incorporation, then that date (but the date must be within 5 business days prior to the date of filing).

159
Q

What is a de facto corporation and when is a corporation found to be a de facto corporation?

A

A de facto corporation is a corporation that was not properly incorporated but which will be treated as if it was properly incorporated if:

  • (1) there is valid law under which the corporation can be lawfully organized;
  • (2) there was a good faith attempt to organize under the law; and
  • (3) the entity acts as if it is a corporation.
160
Q

What is corporation by estoppel and when is a corporation by estoppel found?

A

Persons who treat an entity as a corporation will be estopped from later claiming that the entity was not a corporation.

161
Q

May a corporation lend money to its officers and employees?

A

Yes, but such loans must benefit the corporation.

162
Q

When is an ultra vires act enforceable?

A

Under the RMBCA, an ultra vires act is enforceable and can only be raised in three circumstances:

  • (1) A shareholder may sue the corporation to enjoin a proposed ultra vires act;
  • (2) The corporation may sue an officer or director for damages arising from the commission of an ultra vires act authorized by the officer or director; and
    • If found liable, the office or director may be held personally liable for damages.
  • (3) The state may bring an action against the corporation to have it dissolved for committing an ultra vires act.

Note that an ultra vires act will be enjoined only if it is equitable to do so.

163
Q

When may the validity of a corporate action be challenged?

A

(1) Except as provided below, the validity of corporate action, including, but not limited to, any conveyance, transfer, or encumbrance of real or personal property to or by a corporation, may not be challenged on the ground that the corporation lacks or lacked power to act.
(2) A corporation’s power to act may be challenged:

  • (a) In a proceeding by a shareholder against the corporation to enjoin the act;
  • (b) In a proceeding by the corporation, directly, derivatively, or through a receiver, trustee, or other legal representative, or through shareholders in a representative suit, against an incumbent or former director, officer, employee, or agent of the corporation; or
  • (c) In a proceeding by the Department of Legal Affairs [Attorney General’s Office] pursuant to the rules regarding articles of dissolution or to enjoin the corporation from the transaction of unauthorized business.
164
Q

What are the constitutional characteristics of a corporation as a person?

A

As a person:

  • (1) Corporations are entitled to due process of law and equal protection of law.
  • (2) A corporation is entitled to raise the attorney-client privilege.
  • (3) A corporation cannot invoke the privilege against self-incrimination.

In general, unless the context of the statute or constitutional provision requires application only to natural persons, a corporation is entitled to the protection and rights afforded thereby.

165
Q

When is a corporation deemed a citizen?

A

(a) A corporation is not a citizen for purposes of the Privileges and Immunities Clause of the Constitution (which prevents a state from treating citizens of other states in a discriminatory manner).
* Thus, a state may impose restrictions on a foreign corporation’s activities provided they are a reasonable exercise of the state’s police power.
(b) For purposes of diversity jurisdiction:

  • (1) A corporation is deemed to be a citizen of any state by which it has been incorporated and the state where it has its principal place of business.
  • (2) The principal place of business is where the corporation’s high-level officers direct, control, etc. the corporation.
  • (3) If a corporation is incorporated in more than one state (e.g., incorporated in State A, licensed to do business is States B, C, and D), the preferred rule is to deem it a citizen of each state of incorporation.
166
Q

What are the rules regarding residency and domicile of a corporation?

A

For residency, corporation may be a resident of the state where it is incorporated, where it is doing business, and it is possible it is a resident of a state where it is merely qualified to do business.

For domicile:

  • (1) A corporation’s domicile is the state of its incorporation.
  • (2) A corporation may have multiple domiciles for certain purposes.
    • E.g., for state tax purposes when the corporation has its principal place of business in a state other than that of its incorporation.
167
Q

What is the business judgment rule for corporations (generally)?

A

(1) Each member of the board of directors, when discharging the duties of a director, including in discharging his or her duties as a member of a board committee, must act:

  • (i) In good faith; and
  • (ii) In a manner he or she reasonably believes to be in the best interests of the corporation.

(2) The members of the board of directors or a board committee, when becoming informed in connection with a decision-making function or devoting attention to an oversight function, shall discharge their duties with the care that an ordinary prudent person in a like position would reasonably believe appropriate under similar circumstances.

168
Q

What are “shares” (also called “stock”) in a corporation?

A

Shares are units of ownership interest in a corporation.

Each share represents a portion of the equity in the corporation and provides for an equal distribution in any profits, if any are declared, in the form of dividends.

169
Q

What does “equity” mean relative to corporations and shares?

A

“Equity” typically refers to the ownership of a public company.

Shareholders’ equity is the net amount of a company’s total assets and total liabilities as listed on the company’s balance sheet.

170
Q

What are the two types of stock and what are the differences between them?

A

(a) Common Stock:

  • Has governance role & entitled to vote at shareholder meetings.
  • Right to receive residual proceeds upon dissolution and liquidation of a corporation.
  • No legal interest in receiving dividends.

(b) Preferred Stock:

  • No voting rights.
  • Liquidation preference.
  • May receive a dividend preference (entitles owner to fixed dividend each year, if one is given, may accumulated in years not given).
171
Q

Where does a corporation first list the number and types of shares?

A

The articles of incorporation must set forth any classes of shares and series of shares within a class, and the number of shares of each class and series, that the corporation is authorized to issue.

172
Q

If the corporation wants to authorize more than one type of stock, what must it do?

A

If more than one class or series of shares is authorized, the articles of incorporation must prescribe a distinguishing designation for each class or series, and before the issuance of shares of a class or series, describe the terms, including the preferences, limitations, and relative rights of that class or series.

In designating shares, the articles of incorporation must also authorize:

  • (1) One or more classes or series of shares that together have unlimited voting rights, and
  • (2) One or more classes or series of shares (which may be the same class or classes or series as those with voting rights) that together are entitled to receive the net assets of the corporation upon dissolution.
173
Q

What are the names of the two types of corporations discussed relative to stock sales and what are the differences between those two types?

A

Closely held corporations (also called “close corporations”) are corporations that normally only have a small group of shareholders (e.g., a family business).

Public corporations sell there shares to the public at large (in an initial public offering).

174
Q

What is the “par value” of a stock? Is assigning a par value required?

A

It is the value attributed to each share in the articles of incorporation.

No, it is voluntary.

175
Q

What are the two types of “securities” in relation to corporations? In this context, what do we mean by the word “security” or “securities?”

A

The term “security” is used to describe fungible, negotiable financial instruments that hold some type of monetary value.

A debt security represents a creditor-debtor relationship with the corporation, whereby the corporation has borrowed funds from an “outside creditor” and promises to repay the creditor (e.g., in the form of a corporate bond).

An equity security is an instrument representing an investment in the corporation whereby its holder becomes a part owner of the business. Equity securities are shares of the corporation, and the investor is called a shareholder.

The owner of the debt security has no ownership interest while the owner of the equity security has an ownership interest.

176
Q

What is the policy rationale behind piercing the veil? What are the primary cases where it will happen?

A

The over-arching policy rationale is equity: the valid corporate existence is ignored to serve the ends of justice.

There are three primary cases in which the veil will be pierced:

  • (a) Alter Ego/Corporate formalities are ignored,
  • (b) Inadequate capitalization at the outset, and
  • (c) Avoidance of existing obligations, fraud.
177
Q

When is a corporation considered an “alter ego”?

A

When a corporation is the “alter ego” or “instrumentality” of a sole proprietor or of another corporation, its corporate form may be disregarded.

  • If shareholders treat the assets of the corporation as their own, use corporate funds to pay private debts, fail to keep separate corporate books, and fail to observe corporate formalities, the courts may find the corporate entity to be the alter ego of the shareholders.
  • The separate corporate identities of subsidiary or affiliated corporations will be ignored if the formalities of separate corporate procedures for each corporation are not observed.
178
Q

When will shareholders be personally liable for their corporation’s obligations?

A

Shareholders will be personally liable for their corporation’s obligations if at incorporation they fail to provide adequate capitalization.

179
Q

If the corporate veil is pierced, who can be held liable? What is the liability?

A

In general, persons who were active in the management of the company will be held liable (not passive investors).

Liability is joint and several.

180
Q

When is a conveyance fraudulent for purposes of piercing the veil?

A

A conveyance is fraudulent if the debtor made the transfer :

  • (a) With actual intent to hinder, delay, or defraud any creditor of the debtor; or
  • (b) Without receiving a reasonably equivalent value in exchange for the transfer or obligation, and the debtor was engaged or was about to engage in a business or a transaction for which the remaining assets of the debtor were unreasonably small in relation to the business or transaction.
181
Q

What is the corporate structure and what are shareholder roles? (Diagram)

A
182
Q

What is the general responsibility of the board of directors in a corporation?

A

Unless the articles or a shareholder agreement provides otherwise, the board of directors shall have general responsibility for the management of the business and affairs of the corporation.

At common law, shareholders have no right to directly control the day-to-day management of their corporation. The RMBCA (and Florida law) has allowed a departure from this general rule:

  • Shareholders may enter into agreements concerning management of the corporation including an agreement to vest the powers that the board would ordinarily have in one or more shareholders.
183
Q

What control do shareholders have over a corporation?

A

Shareholders have indirect control over the corporation through:

  • (1) Election and removal of directors
    • Shareholders have the right to elect directors.
    • Shareholders may remove a director at any time for any reason unless the articles limit removal for cause.
  • (2) Shareholders have the power to adopt, modify, and amend the bylaws
  • (3) Must approve fundamental corporate changes like merger, sale of corporate assets outside ordinary course of business, dissolution, etc.
184
Q

What is the primary purpose of an annual shareholder meeting? How do you know when and where an annual meeting will be held?

A

To elect directors, but it may engage in any other legitimate shareholder business.

Look to the bylaws, but the location can be stated in the notice of annual meeting provided the location is not inconsistent with the bylaws. If no place is fixed by the bylaws or stated in the notice, the annual meeting is held at the corporation’s principal office.

185
Q

Is the corporate form dissolved if the company does not hold its annual meeting?

A

No, the directors simply remain in office.

186
Q

What is a “special” shareholder’s meeting? Who can call a special shareholder’s meeting?

A

A meeting other than the annual meeting, called to discuss matters stated in the notice of the meeting. A special meeting can be called by:

  • The board of directors,
  • Anyone authorized in the bylaws or articles of incorporation,
  • Request of some percentage (in Florida 10%) of shareholders with votes entitled to be cast on the issue, and
  • The court.
187
Q

How can actions required to be taken at an annual or special meeting be taken without a meeting?

A

Action required or permitted to be taken at an annual or special meeting of shareholders may be taken without a meeting, without prior notice, and without a vote if the action is taken by the holders of outstanding shares sufficient to authorize or take action at a meeting in which all voting groups/shares are entitled to vote were present.

188
Q

What is a “record date” relative to shareholder meetings? How does the corporation decide on the record date?

A

“Record date” means the date fixed for determining the identity of the corporation’s shareholders and their share holdings. Unless another time is specified when the record date is fixed, the determination shall be made as of the close of the business at the principal office of the corporation on the date so fixed.

If the bylaws state a manner of fixing the record date, follow the bylaws. If the bylaws do not, then the board may fix the date.

But, if we are talking about a situation where the shareholders are demanding a special meeting, then the record date is the date the first shareholder delivered his/her demand to the corporation.

189
Q

How much notice must a corporation give before a meeting can be held?

A

No fewer than 10 or more than 60 days before the meeting date.

190
Q

Does a shareholder’s attendance at a meeting constitute a waiver of their rights to object to the meeting?

A

Yes. A shareholder’s attendance at a meeting:

  • Waives objection to lack of notice or defective notice of the meeting, unless the shareholder at the beginning of the meeting objects to holding the meeting or transacting business at the meeting; or
  • Waives objection to consideration of a particular matter at the meeting that is not within the purpose or purposes described in the meeting notice, unless the shareholder objects to considering the matter when it is presented.
191
Q

Who is permitted to vote at a particular shareholder meeting?

A

Only the names appearing in the corporation’s records on the record date are permitted to vote and receive notice.

192
Q

What is a “record owner”/“record holder”? Is the record owner/holder necessarily the owner of the share?

A

It is the person who is listed in the corporate records as the owner of a given share.

No, sometimes the stock is cleared through a clearinghouse which will be the record owner, but is not the true owner of the share.

193
Q

What is a “quorum?” Under the MCBA, what is the quorum requirement for a meeting?

A

The minimum number of shares necessary to be represented at a meeting for the results of votes at the meeting to be valid.

A simple majority is required.

194
Q

What is a “proxy?” How is someone made a proxy?

A

In general, a proxy is an agent authorized to act for another.

In this context, it is a person (natural or de jure) that is authorized to vote on another person’s behalf at the shareholder’s meeting.

A person being made a proxy must be done so by writing or electronic submission.

195
Q

What is cumulative voting?

A

Typically, each shareholder is entitled to one vote per share multiplied by the number of directors to be elected—this is called “proportional voting.”

In “cumulative voting” the shareholders can apply all of their votes to just one candidate.

196
Q

How many shareholders have to agree to the action for it to be effective without a meeting?

A

There must be the same number of shareholders in each voting group entitled to vote on the matter (who vote in favor of the action) as would be necessary to vote in favor of the action were all shareholders present.

197
Q

Must shareholder meetings be held in person?

A

No, meetings of the board of directors may be held through the use of any means of communication by which all directors participating may simultaneously hear each other during the meeting.

198
Q

Can a board of directors delegate its authority to a committee to perform functions of the board? What are limits imposed on board committees?

A

Yes. The board of directors may establish an executive committee and one or more other board committees to perform functions of the board of directors. Such committees shall be composed exclusively of one or more directors.

A board committee may not:

  • (a) Authorize or approve the reacquisition of shares unless pursuant to a formula or method, or within limits, prescribed by the board of directors.
  • (b) Approve, recommend to shareholders, or propose to shareholders action that is required to be approved by shareholders.
  • (c) Fill vacancies on the board of directors or on any board committee.
  • (d) Adopt, amend, or repeal bylaws.
199
Q

How do you know if someone is an officer of a corporation? Does the MCBA/Florida law require that a corporation have any specific officers?

A

Generally, the officers of a corporation are listed in the charter or bylaws.

No, while the former MBCA provided for specific officers, the current MBCA allows every corporation to chose the officers it wants.

200
Q

How many officers are required for a valid corporation?

A

Only one officer is needed provided that officer is responsible for preparing minutes of the directors’ and shareholders’ meetings and for authenticating records of the corporation.

201
Q

Corporate officers and directors are corporate fiduciaries. As such, what are the two primary duties they owe the corporation? Are there any other additional duties?

A

The duty of loyalty and the duty of care.

Additionally, we hear of the duty of good faith and the duty to disclose (alternatively the duty to provide information).

202
Q

What are specific duties that a corporate director has under the duty of care?

A
  • Must know the business they are directors for,
  • Must become informed about the business if they are unfamiliar with it,
  • Cannot willfully ignore learning about misconduct,
  • Has a continuing obligation to keep informed about the activities of the corporation—at the level of a general monitoring of corporate affairs and policies,
  • Has a duty to monitor the financial condition of the business,
  • Has a duty to take appropriate action in light of wrongdoing (resign, object, seek legal counsel).
203
Q

What is the doctrine of waste for corporate directors?

A

As part of the duty of care, directors have a duty not to waste corporate assets by overpaying for property or employment services.

204
Q

From a plaintiff-litigation point of view, why is it better to plead a cause of action under breach of duty of loyalty than to plead a cause of action under breach of duty of care against a corporate director or officer?

A

If you assert a breach of duty of care, you must overcome the presumption that the decision of the director was formed in good faith and was designed to promote the best interest of the corporation they serve. (Which is fairly difficult to overcome.)

Violations of the duty of loyalty do not have such a presumption.

205
Q

According to the text, conflicts of interest generally arise in what four ways?

A
  • The fiduciary has some direct pecuniary interest in a transaction that involves the corporation.
  • The fiduciary is related to or closely associated with a person who has a direct personal stake in a transaction that involves the corporation.
  • The fiduciary owes duties both to the corporation and to another person involved in a transaction with the corporation.
  • The fiduciary has taken something that belongs to the corporation and used it for the fiduciary’s own benefit.
206
Q

When a party raises a breach of the duty of loyalty relating to a transaction, who has the burden of proving that the transaction was fair and reasonable? How does this differ from the duty of care?

A

The directors/officers charged with violating the duty.

  • When there is a contract between a corporation and an entity in which its directors are interested the contract may be set aside unless the proponent of the contract shall establish affirmatively that the contract was fair and reasonable as to the corporation at the time it was approved by the board.

In duty of care issues, the business judgment rule would apply and the burden would be on the plaintiffs.

207
Q

What is the “intrinsic fairness test?”

A

In breach of the duty of loyalty cases, the burden is on the defendant to prove that its transactions with the other party were objectively fair.

208
Q

If an officer gains authorization from the board to perform a transaction, does it eliminate liability for the officer?

A

No. Authorization, approval, or ratification simply decreases the likelihood that the officer or director will be held liable. It does not eliminate liability.

209
Q

What is necessary for a corporation to authorize, approve, or ratify the actions of a director or officer?

A

The director/officer must disclose the material facts as to their interest to the board, and a majority of either (a) disinterested directors or (b) shareholders entitled to vote on the issue must, in good faith, approve the transaction.

210
Q

What is meant by ratification in the corporate context? What types of transactions are ratifiable?

A

It means that disinterested directors/shareholders have approved a transaction by a director/officer that is potentially adverse to the corporation’s interests or that is potentially a usurpation of a business opportunity. The following transactions can be ratified:

  • (1) Interested transactions between a corporation and its directors,
  • (2) Interested transactions between a corporation and an entity in which the directors are also directors/have a financial interest, and
  • (3) Transactions between a corporation and its controlling shareholder.

If we have authorization, approval, or ratification of an “interested” transaction, the burden shifts to the plaintiff to prove the transaction was not fair.

211
Q

When may a corporate officer or director not take a business opportunity from the corporation?

A

A corporate officer or director may not take a business opportunity for his own if:

  • (1) The corporation is financially able to exploit the opportunity,
  • (2) The opportunity is within the corporation’s line of business,
  • (3) The corporation has an interest or expectancy in the opportunity, and
  • (4) By taking the opportunity for his own, the corporate fiduciary will thereby be placed in a position inimical to his duties to the corporation.
212
Q

When may a corporate officer or director take a business opportunity from the corporation?

A

A director or officer may take a corporate opportunity if

  • (1) The opportunity is presented to the director or officer in his individual and not his corporate capacity,
  • (2) The opportunity is not essential to the corporation
  • (3) The corporation holds no interest or expectancy in the opportunity, and
  • (4) The director or officer has not wrongfully employed the resources of the corporation in pursuing or exploiting the opportunity.
213
Q

What is a corporate opportunity?

A

(1) Any opportunity to engage in a business activity of which a director or senior executive becomes aware either

  • (a) In connection with the performance of functions as a director or senior executive, or under circumstances that should reasonably lead the director or senior executive to believe that the person offering the opportunity expects it to be offered to the corporation or
  • (b) Through the use of corporate information or property, if the resulting opportunity is one that the director or senior executive should reasonably be expected to believe would be of interest to the corporation or

(2) Any opportunity to engage in a business activity of which a senior executive becomes aware and knows is closely related to a business in which the corporation is engaged or expects to engage.

214
Q

Is the duty of good faith a stand-alone duty or does it arise out of another duty?

A

Depending on the cause of action, the duty of good faith (and the duty of disclosure) can arise either out of the duty of loyalty or the duty of care.

It is not an independent (stand-alone) cause of action.

215
Q

How can a breach of the duty of good faith be proven?

A

A failure to act in good faith may be shown where the fiduciary is shown:

  • (a) To intentionally act with a purpose other than that of advancing the best interests of the corporation
  • (b) With the intent to violate applicable positive law, or
  • (c) Where the fiduciary intentionally fails to act in the face of a known duty to act demonstrating a conscious disregard for his duties.
216
Q

When may a corporation indemnify an individual?

A

A corporation may indemnify an individual who is a party to a proceeding because the individual is or was a director or officer against liability incurred in the proceeding if:

  • (1) The director or officer acted in good faith;
  • (2) The director or officer acted in a manner he or she reasonably believed to be in, or not opposed to, the best interests of the corporation; and
  • (3) In the case of any criminal proceeding, the director or officer had no reasonable cause to believe his or her conduct was unlawful.
217
Q

What is the link between loyalty, oversight, and good faith?

A

Directors have certain responsibilities including oversight. You cannot believe that you are acting in the corporation’s best interest if you do not perform the required duties (e.g., oversight).

But acting in good faith requires that you act in way that you think is in the corporation’s best interest, so ignoring your oversight duties is not acting in good faith.

And, if you are not acting in good faith (working toward the corporation’s interests), then you have violated your duty of loyalty.

218
Q

Can corporations purchase insurance for directors and officers?

A

Yes, corporations have broad rights to purchase insurance to protect board members and officers from liability arising out of their position on the board or as an officer. It is called “directors and officers” insurance (“D&O”). It covers legal expenses as well as settlments and judgments.

219
Q

What types of lawsuits are usually covered under D&O insurance?

A
  • Shareholder suits over company or stock performance.
  • Creditor or investor suits over mismanagement of fiduciary duties which might result in financial losses or bankruptcy.
  • Misuse of company funds.
  • Misrepresentation in your company’s prospectus.
  • Theft of intellectual property.
  • Decisions that exceeded the authority granted to a company officer.
  • Failure to comply with workplace laws.
  • Employment practices and HR issues.
  • Pollution and other regulatory claims.
  • Cyber liability, including data breaches.
220
Q

What is indemnification in the corporate context?

A

It is a payment made to officers and directors to cover expenses they have had in relation to a lawsuit against them arising because they were an officer or director of the company.

221
Q

When must a corporation indemnify an officer or director?

A

A corporation must indemnify an individual who is or was a director or officer who was wholly successful, on the merits or otherwise, in the defense of any proceeding to which the individual was a party because he or she is or was a director or officer of the corporation against expenses incurred by the individual in connection with the proceeding.

222
Q

When may a corporation not indemnify a director or officer?

A

Unless ordered by a court, a corporation may not indemnify a director or officer or advance expenses to a director or officer if a judgment or other final adjudication establishes that his or her actions, or omissions to act, were material to the cause of action so adjudicated and constitute:

  • (a) Willful or intentional misconduct or a conscious disregard for the best interests of the corporation in a proceeding by or in the right of the corporation to procure a judgment in its favor or in a proceeding by or in the right of a shareholder;
  • (b) A transaction in which a director or officer derived an improper personal benefit;
  • (c) A violation of the criminal law, unless the director or officer had reasonable cause to believe his or her conduct was lawful or had no reasonable cause to believe his or her conduct was unlawful; or
  • (d) In the case of a director, a circumstance under which the liability for unlawful distributions are applicable.
223
Q

When may a corporation advance funds or reimburse expenses of an officer or director?

A

A corporation may, before final disposition of a proceeding, advance funds to pay for or reimburse expenses incurred in connection with the proceeding by an individual who is a party to the proceeding because that individual is or was a director or an officer if the director or officer delivers to the corporation a signed written undertaking of the director or officer to repay any funds advanced if it is determined that the director or officer is entitled to neither mandatory nor permissive indemnification.

224
Q

Derivative actions must be “verified.” What does this mean?

A

“Verified” means the complaint is sworn to by the plaintiff. One can swear to a complaint in many ways other than under oath or before an officer of the court—including using a signed, written declaration.

225
Q

Before a shareholder may file a derivative suit, what must they show?

A

A complaint in a proceeding brought in the right of a corporation must be verified and allege with particularity:

  • (1) The demand, if any, made to obtain the action desired by the shareholder from the board of directors; and
  • (2) Either:
    • (a) If such a demand was made, that the demand was refused, rejected, or ignored by the board of directors prior to the expiration of 90 days from the date the demand was made;
    • (b) If such a demand was made, why irreparable injury to the corporation or misapplication or waste of corporate assets causing material injury to the corporation would result by waiting for the expiration of a 90-day period from the date the demand was made; or
    • (c) The reason or reasons the shareholder did not make the effort to obtain the desired action from the board of directors or comparable authority.
226
Q

Can a shareholder bring a derivative action for a harm that occurred when they were not a shareholder?

A

No. A shareholder may not commence a derivative proceeding unless the shareholder is a shareholder at the time the action is commenced and:

  • (a) Was a shareholder when the conduct giving rise to the action occurred; or
  • (b) Whose status as a shareholder devolved on the person through transfer or by operation of law from one who was a shareholder when the conduct giving rise to the action occurred.
227
Q

How is it determined if a shareholder’s suit is direct or derivative?

A
  • If the gravamen of the complaint is injury to the corporation, the suit is derivative.
  • If the injury is one to the plaintiff as a stockholder and to him individually (not to the corporation) the suit is individual in nature.
  • Where the corporation has no right of action by reason of the transaction complained of, the suit is representative, not derivative.
  • Actions to compel dissolution of a corporation have been held representative since the corporation could not benefit therefrom.
  • An action by preferred stockholders against directors is not derivative.
  • An action by a stockholder complaining that a proposed recapitalization would unfairly benefit holders of another class of stock was representative.
228
Q

What is required for a shareholder’s suit to be direct and not derivative?

A

The stockholder’s claim must be independent of any alleged injury to the corporation.

The stockholder must demonstrate that the duty breached was owed to the stockholder and that he or she can prevail without showing an injury to the corporation.

229
Q

How does normally one show that a stockholder was justified in not having made an effort to obtain board action before filing a derivative suit?

A

Prove that:

  • (1) A majority of the board has a material financial or familial interest;
  • (2) A majority of the board is incapable of acting independently for some other reasons such as domination or control;
  • (3) The underlying transaction is not the product of a valid exercise of business judgment.
230
Q

What must a plaintiff show to establish that a demand was “wrongfully” refused by the Board?

A

That there is reason to doubt that the board acted independently or with due care in responding to the demand.

The effect is that the stockholder has the right to bring the underlying action as if the demand had been excused as futile.

231
Q

When may a derivative proceeding be dismissed?

A

A derivative proceeding may be dismissed, in whole or in part, by the court on motion by the corporation if (a) a majority of qualified directors or committee members or (b) a court appointed panel of disinterested and independent individuals:

  • (1) has determined in good faith,
  • (2) after conducting a reasonable inquiry upon which its conclusions are based,
  • (3) that the maintenance of the derivative proceeding is not in the best interests of the corporation.

In all such cases, the corporation has the burden of proof regarding the qualifications, good faith, and reasonable inquiry of the group making the determination.

232
Q

When is a director liable for breach of the duty to oversee the corporation?

A

Directors are liable for breach of the duty to oversee the corporation when:

  • (a) The directors utterly fail to implement any reporting or information system or controls, or
  • (b) Having implemented such a system or controls, they consciously fail to monitor or oversee its operations thus disabling themselves from being informed of risks or problems requiring their attention.

Further, where the directors fail to act in the face of a known duty to act, thereby demonstrating a conscious disregard for their responsibilities, they breach their duty of loyalty by failing to discharge that fiduciary obligation in good faith.