Business Finance Flashcards
Suppose that the interest rate is 2.5%. What is the one year discount factor if the interest rate is annually compounded?
Discount factor with annual compounding:
Answer: DF = 1 / (1 + .025) * 1 = 0:97561
Formula: Discount factors. If the interest rate is r% per year, the t year discount factor is:
DF = 1 / (1 + r)t
Shark Attack plc has just launched a takeover bid for Soft Target plc. Shark Attack believes that it has identified £20,000,000 of annual efficiency savings at Soft Target. Shark Attack’s investors demand a return of 8% for the risk associated with an investment in Soft Target, and the corporate tax rate is 40%. What is the maximum premium that Shark Attack is prepared to pay over Soft Target’s pre-bid value?
Shark Attack expects to make a pre-tax income £20,000,000 in perpetuity from its investment in Soft Target. This corresponds to an after-tax figure of £20,000,000(1 - 0.4) = £12,000,000. It can be valued using the standard formula for a perpetuity: Takeover premium = £12,000,000 / 0.08 = £150,000,000
Perpetuity Formula:
The value of a payment of C, received every
year for ever starting in one year, is:
PV = C / r
where r is the discount rate. If the perpetuity grows at a
rate g per year, then
PV = C / r-g
In a bookbuilt IPO:
(a) The bookrunner sells to different investors at the same price
(b) The issuer and bookrunner do not have discretion about which investors to allot
(c) The price is always set at the highest possible clearing price
(d) (a) and (b)
(e) (b) and (c)
(f) (a) and (c)
(g) (a), (b), and (c)
(h) None of the above
(a) The bookrunner sells to different investors at the same price
You own a gold mine, and have no other exposure to gold. You have no other financial positions.
(a) Buying a call option on a gold index is a bet.
(b) Buying a put option on a gold index is a bet.
(c) Buying gold is a hedge.
(d) (a) and (b)
(e) (b) and (c)
(f) (a) and (c)
(g) (a), (b), and (c)
(h) None of the above
(a) Buying a call option on a gold index is a bet.
The Credit Rating industry:
(a) Operates an investor-pays business model
(b) Are unregulated in the U.S. and Europe
(c) Is very competitive and has no barriers to entry
(d) (a) and (b)
(e) (b) and (c)
(f) (a) and (c)
(g) (a), (b) and (c)
(h) None of the above
(h) None of the above
Alpha:
(a) Measures the sensitivity of a stock to market risk
(b) Is the difference between a stock’s expected return and the expected return of the stock as predicted by the CAPM
(c) When alpha is nonzero, this is evidence that not all stocks lie on the security market line
(d) (a) and (b)
(e) (b) and (c)
(f) (a) and (c)
(g) (a), (b), and (c)
(h) None of the above
(c) When alpha is nonzero, this is evidence that not all stocks lie on the security market line.
Company ABC has a total market capitalization of £1 billion, it is entirely equity financed, and its equity has a beta of 1.1. The risk-free rate is 2% and the market risk premium is 5.5%.
(a) ABC plans to issue a £300 million bond issue, which it will use to fund a one-off £300 million dividend to shareholders. The bond will have a yield to maturity of 5%, and it will have a maturity of 10 years. ABC anticipates that it will refinance (i.e. replace) the bond when it matures, so that it will always have £300 million of debt outstanding. The corporate tax rate is 35%. What will the effect of the bond issue be upon the value of ABC before the one-off dividend? [3 marks]
(b) What will ABC’s cost of equity be after the one-off dividend of part (a) above?
[7 marks]
(a) The value of the tax rebate is D× τ = 300m × 35% = 105m. So the value of the firm will increase by £105m.
Forumla: Present value of tax shield on perpetual debt. This is given by 𝐷 ∗ 𝜏, where D is the amount of perpetual debt and τ is the corporate tax rate.
(b) Asset beta is 1.1 so 𝑟𝐴 = 2% + 1.1 × 5.5% = 8.05%
After the dividend, equity value = 1bn − 300𝑚𝑚 + 105𝑚𝑚 = 805𝑚𝑚
𝑟𝐸 = 𝑟𝐴 + (𝐷 / E) (𝑟𝐴 − 𝑟𝐷)
𝑟𝐸 = 8.05% + (300/805) (8.05% − 5%) = 9.187%
Formula: Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC)
The equation in the answer is just rewriting the WACC.
WACC is 𝑟𝐴 = (𝐷/V)𝑟𝐷 + (𝐸/𝑉)𝑟𝐸 . You know rA, D, E, rD, and V(which is D+E). Plug those values into the WACC and solve for rE.
And you have the WACC in the formula sheet.
A firm’s WACC is calculated as follows:
𝑟𝐴 = (𝐷/V)𝑟𝐷 + (𝐸/𝑉)𝑟𝐸
where rD and rE are the firm’s costs of debt and equity
capital, respectively, V is the value of the firm, and D and E are the respective values of the firm’s outstanding debt and equity.
Suppose the expected one-year return of the market is 8%, the standard deviation of market returns is 10%, and the risk-free one-year return is 2%.
(a) Project X has an expected one year return of 11% and a standard deviation of 25%.What is the correlation between the returns of project X and the market
returns?
(b) If project Y makes a guaranteed payment of 100 in one year, what is project Y worth today?
(c) If project Z has the same risk characteristics as project X and has an expected payoff of 100 in one year, what is project Z worth today?
(a) First calculate the beta of project X: (0.11−0.02) /
(0. 08−0.02) = 1.5
Rearrange the equation to:
𝛽𝑖,𝑃 = 𝜎𝑖 /𝜎𝑃 𝜌𝑖,𝑃 to give 𝜌𝑖𝑃 = 𝜎𝑃 / 𝜎𝑖 𝛽𝑖,𝑃 = 0.1 / 0.25 × 1.5 = 0.6
(b) 100/1.02 = 98.039
(c) 100/1.11 = 90.09
Formula: Beta. The beta of stock i with respect to portfolio P is
𝛽𝑖,𝑃 = 𝜎𝑖,𝑃/𝜎2𝑃 = 𝜎𝑖/𝜎𝑃 = 𝜌𝑖,𝑃
where 𝜎𝑖,𝑃 is the covariance of the stock’s returns with
those of the portfolio, σi and σP are the standard deviation of returns for the stock and the portfolio, respectively, and 𝜌𝑖,𝑃 is the correlation coefficient between the returns of the stock and those of the portfolio.
The following table shows the expected return (μ) and the standard deviation of returns (σ ) for two stocks. The correlation of returns between stock A and stock B is 0.6.
__________________________________________
Stock Expected Return Standard Deviation of Ret
(μ) (σ)
__________________________________________
A 12% 18%
B 20% 28%
__________________________________________
Compute the expected return and the standard deviation of returns for a portfolio whose value is comprised 30% of stock A, and 70% of stock B.
Expected return is:
0.176=0.3*0.12+0.7*0.2
We can sum:
(0.3)^2*(0.18)^2 + (0.7)^2*(0.28)^2 + 2*(0.3)*(0.7)*(0.18)*(0.28)*(0.6)
The sum is the variance of returns, 0.0540328. The standard deviation of returns is 23.24%.
Formulas:
Expected return of a portfolio. The return of a portfolio
comprising stocks 1, 2, 3,…, N, whose weightings in the
portfolio are x1, x2, x3, …, xN and whose returns are r1, r2, r3,…, rN, respectively, is 𝑟𝑃 ≡ 𝑥1𝑟1 + 𝑥2𝑟2 + 𝑥3𝑟3 … 𝑥𝑁 𝑟𝑁, and the expected return is here μ1, μ2, μ3, …, μN are the expected returns of stocks 1, 2, 3, …, N, respectively.
Variance and standard deviation of returns. If an investment has possible returns R1, R2,…, RN, with
respective probabilities p1, p2,…, pN, its variance of
returns is:
𝑁
𝜎2 = ∑ 𝑝𝑖(𝑅𝑖 − 𝜇)2
i=1
where μ is the investment’s expected return. The investment’s standard deviation of returns is the square root of the variance of those returns.
Hetta is sportswear chain. It generates annual EBIT of $1,000,000, and this figure is not expected to change. It makes capital investments of $200,000 each year,
and its annual depreciation charge is $200,000; its working capital balances are constant. Hetta is entirely equity financed, and has 2,000,000 shares outstanding.
Hetta has an equity beta of 1.2, the risk-free rate is 2%, the market risk premium is 5%, and the corporate tax rate is 40%.
i. What is the Hetta’s share price? [5 marks]
ii. Suppose that Hetta now borrows $3,000,000 of perpetual debt that pays a coupon of 4%, and that it uses the debt to buy back shares at a price that
renders shareholders indifferent between selling and not selling. How many shares remain after the buy-back and what is the market price per share
at that point? [5 marks]
i. Annual Free Cash Flow:
FCF = EBIT 1 − 𝜏) + Depreciation - Capex - ChWC
= 1,000,000(1 − 0.4) + 200,000 − 200,000 − 0 = 600,000
Formula = Free Cash Flow
Cost of capital: 2% + 1.2 × 5% = 8%. Hence the business is worth 600,000 / 0.08 = 7,500,000
and the share price is
7,500,000 / 2,000,000 = 3.75
Formula = WACC
ii. The value of the company before the buyback is 7,500,000 + 3,000,000 × 40% = 8,700,000 and the share price is 8,700,000 / 2,000,000 = 4.35.
The number of shares after the buyback
is2,000,000 − (3,000,000/4.35) = 1,310,344.828.
The value of equity after the
buyback is 8,700,000 − 3,000,000 = 5,700,000. We can confirm that the share price
after the buyback is 5,700,000 / 1,310,344.828 = 4.35.
Firm F is in default but will be worth 100 or 20 with equal probability after one period, and the interest rate is zero. The liquidation value of F now is 40. The senior creditors are owed 50 and the junior creditors are owed 10. Explain how in this case an economically viable company may be inefficiently liquidated if absolute priority is respected.
Value of F now = (100 + 20)/2 = 60 > liquidation value of 40. Payoff to Cs afterone period = 0.5(50+20)=35<40, so they will liquidate.
Suppose you were to receive a monthly payment of 200 for 36 months, and the monthly cost of capital was 0.3%. What is the present value of this stream of payments? [4 marks]
200/0.003 - ((200/0.003)*(1/1.003^36)) = 6815.15
In initial public offerings, stabilization:
(a) Is the tendency for investors in IPOs to keep their shares for the long term.
(b) Is the tendency for IPO fees to remain stable over time.
(c) Guarantees the issuer a minimum price for an IPO.
(d) (a) and (b)
(e) (b) and (c)
(f) (a) and (c)
(g) (a), (b), and (c)
(h) None of the above
(h) None of the above
Explain how you would create a volatility spread trading strategy using options, and draw the payoff diagram for such a strategy. Why would a trader use this strategy? [6 marks]
Buy a straddle and sell a strangle. It looks like a V with horizontal lines sticking out at the sides. Traders buy them when they anticipate moderate volatility. We will
allow students to describe a reverse volatility spread: sell straddle, buy strangle; picture flipped. and short volatility but with protection against big swings. Of course, there are other ways to create a volatility spread: Buy low strike call, sell two mid-strike calls, buy high-strike call, for example. Any of those will do just as well.
Credit rating agencies:
(a) Own a fraction of structured finance products that they rate.
(b) Ignore pension liabilities of a corporation when conducting their analysis on a
corporate bond.
(c) Ignore the governance of a corporation when conducting their analysis on a corporate
bond.
(d) (a) and (b)
(e) (b) and (c)
(f) (a) and (c)
(g) (a), (b), and (c)
(h) None of the above
(h) None of the above
If you short a call option:
(a) You have unlimited downside.
(b) This will be a hedge if the only other asset in your portfolio is a long put option with
the same strike price.
(c) …and are long a put option with the same strike price, you are creating a straddle.
(d) (a) and (b)
(e) (b) and (c)
(f) (a) and (c)
(g) (a), (b), and (c)
(h) None of the above
(a) You have unlimited downside.
Consider an individual portfolio of stocks X and Y.
(a) What happens to the risk of the portfolio as we decrease the correlation between X
and Y? Explain briefly.
(b) What happens to the return of the portfolio as we decrease the correlation between X
and Y? Explain briefly.
(c) Is it possible to have a portfolio of X and Y that has zero risk? Explain briefly.
a) The risk decreases as the portfolio becomes more diversified.
b) There is no effect on the return.
c) Yes it is possible. The stocks must be perfectly negatively correlated and the weights must
be adjusted perfectly to match their variances.
The IRR investment rule states that you should accept a project if its IRR (internal rate
of return) is higher than the cost of capital. Explain why this rule is equivalent to saying
that the project has a positive NPV (net present value).
The IRR is the discount rate at which the NPV of the cashflows is zero. The cost of capital
is the correct rate to discount the cashflows. If the cost of capital is lower than the IRR the
NPV of the cashflows will be therefore be positive.
Give three reasons why IRR can be a misleading approach to project appraisal.
- If positive cashflows come first, the IRR rule doesn’t work.
- If there is more than one
change of sign in the cashflows, there can be more than one IRR. - IRR can be rigged by
changing the timing of the cashflows.
Define the payback method of project appraisal and state one of its disadvantages.
The payback period is the time it takes for the cumulative earnings of a project to become
positive. It does not discount the cashflows to the present.
In initial public offerings, underpricing:
(a) Is the banks’ method of guaranteeing the proceeds of the offering to the issuer.
(b) Means the same as the ‘gross spread’.
(c) Can be negative.
(d) (a) and (b)
(e) (b) and (c)
(f) (a) and (c)
(g) (a), (b), and (c)
(h) None of the above
(c) Can be negative.
Regarding the Capital Asset Pricing Model:
(a) The Capital Market Line plots a stock’s idiosyncratic risk against its expected return.
(b) If prices are perfectly efficient, all stocks should lie on the Security Market Line.
(c) The returns on small-cap stocks in fact tend to be above the Security Market Line.
(d) (a) and (b)
(e) (b) and (c)
(f) (a) and (c)
(g) (a), (b), and (c)
(h) None of the above
(e) (b) and (c)
Regarding Credit Rating Agencies’ relationships with issuers:
(a) Longer relationships result on average in higher ratings.
(b) Longer relationships imply that the firm is riskier.
(c) Longer relationships facilitate the transmission of information between the CRA and
the issuer.
(d) (a) and (b)
(e) (b) and (c)
(f) (a) and (c)
(g) (a), (b), and (c)
(h) None of the above
(f) (a) and (c)
If you short a put option:
(a) You have unlimited downside.
(b) This will be a hedge if the only other asset in your portfolio is a long call option.
(c) And are long a call option with the same strike price, you replicate a forward/future.
(d) (a) and (b)
(e) (b) and (c)
(f) (a) and (c)
(g) (a), (b), and (c)
(h) None of the above
(c) And are long a call option with the same strike price, you replicate a forward/future.
Firm F is in default but will be worth 200 or 80 with equal probability after one period, and the interest rate is zero. The liquidation value of F now is 120. The senior
creditors are owed 150 and the junior creditors are owed 50. Explain how in this case an economically viable company may be inefficiently liquidated.
Value of F now = (200 + 80)/2 = 140 > liquidation value of 120. PV of expected payoff to Cs after one period=0.5(150+80)=115<120, so they will liquidate.
Suppose Jupiter Co.’s stock price is currently 42. At the end of 1 year, Jupiter Co.’s stock price will either be 50 or 40. The risk free rate for one year is 5%.
(a) What is the current value of a call option with a strike price of 45 with an expiry date
in 1 year on Jupiter Co.?
(b) Describe what financial instruments would replicate the payoff in one year of a call
option on Jupiter with a strike price of 45 minus a share of Jupiter stock. You may
assume the stock pays no dividends.
(a) 50Δ + 1.05B = 5 and 40 Δ + 1.05B = 0 imply that Δ=.5 and B=-19.05. The value of the
call option is 42(.5) – 19.05 = 1.95
(b) From put-call parity, a call with strike price 45 - share = put with strike price 45 – zero coupon risk free bond with face value 45.