Business Flashcards

1
Q
Financial risk management is a process that involves developing strategies to manage risk related to participating in financial markets. Assume that a credit union has been offering fixed-rate real estate mortgages to its members. Given conditions in financial markets, the credit union believes that it no longer can afford to offer this service and decides to begin offering variable-rate mortgages with the mortgage interest rate tied to an index and adjusted once a year. In terms of interest rate risk, the credit union has decided to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ the risk.
A. accept
B. hedge
C. transfer
D. systematize
A

The correct answer is C.
In this instance, the credit union gives the member a variable rate mortgage where the payment would change in response to changes in an interest rate index. This involves transferring the risk of interest rate changes from the institution to the member.

If the credit union did nothing in response to this situation, they would be accepting the interest rate risk. If the institution chooses to use some form of options and/or futures contract strategy to deal with the interest rate risk, they would be hedging the risk.
FASB ASC 815

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2
Q

Which of the following lists comprise all of the components of the data processing cycle?
A. Batching, processing, output
B. Collection, refinement, processing, maintenance, output
C. Input, classifying, batching, verification, transmission
D. Collection, refinement, storing, output

A

The correct answer is B.
The usual definition of the data processing cycle (DPC) is “input-processing-output.” A listing of components of the DPC should include, as a minimum, these three components. The correct answer substitutes the term “collection” for “input.” Refinement refers to classifying and/or batching. Maintenance refers to processing-related operations such as calculation and storage.

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3
Q

When economists are concerned about the liquidity preference function they are interested in:
A. the relationship of the demand for money and the rate of interest.
B. the proportion of liquid (cash) reserves maintained by commercial banks.
C. the preference for a currency backed by gold.
D. a bank’s desire for accounts receivable as collateral.

A

The correct answer is A.

The demand for money varies inversely with the rate of interest. The liquidity preference (LP) function relates money demand to the rate of interest. As interest rates fall, the quantity of money demanded increases. As rates rise, the quantity of money demanded decreases.

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4
Q

The overall cost of capital is the:
A. rate of return on assets that covers the costs associated with the funds employed.
B. average rate of return a firm earns on its assets.
C. minimum rate a firm must earn on high risk projects.
D. maximum rate of return on assets.

A

A. rate of return on assets that covers the costs associated with the funds employed.
The correct answer is A.

The overall cost of capital is the rate of return on assets that covers the costs associated with the funds employed.

A firm’s overall cost of capital is a weighted average of the costs of the different sources of funds that the firm uses to finance its assets. These sources are usually some combination of debt and equity. Cost of capital usually refers to the cost of long-term sources of funds, such as long-term debt, preferred stock, and common stock. A firm must pay a return to the suppliers of all of these sources of funds. Theoretically, the minimum return that a firm must earn to keep the value of its stock from declining is equal to the weighted average cost of capital. If a firm earns less than this on its total assets, then there are not enough earnings to pay the suppliers of funds what they expect to receive. Since interest costs are fixed and must be paid first, common stockholders are the ones who will usually suffer a shortfall in returns. If common stockholders do not receive at least the minimum return they require for the risk they are taking by holding common stock, then the value of their investment decreases and the value of their stock falls.

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5
Q

A pillow manufacturer tracks its production manually. That process results in continuing inaccuracies in inventory and production records on monthly production of about 1 million pillows in three plants. Not knowing how much raw materials inventory is needed, the company maintains surplus inventory of about 25 days production usage at each plant so it can meet its delivery commitments. The company believes it would be advantageous to implement electronic data interchange (EDI) with its suppliers to facilitate just-in-time inventory management.

If implementing electronic data interchange (EDI) with suppliers permitted more frequent orders and more frequent communication about them, the company could be more effective by using electronic data interchange (EDI) to:
A. reduce costs by reducing raw materials inventory.
B. ensure that it always maintained a 25-day buffer stock.
C. track materials through production to completed orders.
D. schedule production to reduce the number of setups required.

A

You are correct, the answer is A.

If implementing electronic data interchange (EDI) with suppliers permitted more frequent orders and more frequent communication about them, the company could reduce costs, e.g., inventory carrying costs, by reducing raw materials inventory.

The company could ensure that it always maintained the 25-day buffer stock, but there would be no reason to do so if it could ensure more reliable deliveries by ordering more frequently.
Tracking materials through production and scheduling production (intracompany processes) are not a use of electronic data interchange (EDI), which is intercompany exchange of business information.
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6
Q

Why is a well-defined organizational structure important?
A. To inspect corporate records
B. To elect officers
C. To define lines of authority
D. To oversee the internal control structure

A

he correct answer is C.

Organizational structures help no one unless they are well-defined. The structure helps define lines of authority, so an organization does not have too many people in management. This structure creates working relationships between the various employees in the organization.

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7
Q
When evaluating capital budgeting analysis techniques, the payback period emphasizes:
A. liquidity.
B. profitability.
C. cost of capital.
D. net income.
A

C. The correct answer is A.

Payback period is the length of time in years required to recover the cash invested in a project. Payback is computed as net investment divided by average expected annual cash inflow.

Payback focuses on rapid recovery of cash investment (i.e., liquidity).

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8
Q

Immunizing a portfolio from interest rate risk by matching the duration of assets to the duration of liabilities might be ineffective and/or inappropriate because:
A. conventional duration strategies assume an upward-sloping yield curve.
B. immunization models are highly sensitive to adjustments for inflation.
C. duration matching is effective in immunizing portfolios from parallel shifts in the yield curve.
D. All of the answer choices are correct.

A

The correct answer is C.

Duration matching is effective in immunizing portfolios from parallel shifts in the yield curve.

Conventional duration strategies assume a flat yield curve.

Immunization only protects the nominal value of the terminal liabilities and does not adjust for inflation.

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9
Q

Compatibility tests are sometimes employed to determine whether an acceptable user is allowed to proceed. In order to perform compatibility tests, the system must maintain an access control matrix. The one item that is not part of an access control matrix is a:
A. list of all authorized user code numbers and passwords.
B. list of all files maintained on the system.
C. record of the type of access to which each user is entitled.
D. limit on the number of transaction inquiries that can be made by each user in a specified time period.

A

You are correct, the answer is D.

A limit on transaction totals and frequency is not part of the access control matrix. An access control matrix consists of:

a list of all authorized user code numbers and passwords,
a list of all files and programs maintained on the system, and
a record of the type of access to which each user is entitled.
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10
Q

The amount of inventory that a company would tend to hold in stock would increase as the:
A. sales level falls to a permanently lower level.
B. cost of carrying inventory decreases.
C. cost of running out of stock decreases.
D. length of time that goods are in transit decreases.

A

You are correct, the answer is B.

The EOQ model formula attempts to minimize costs when faced with the trade-off between the cost to procure and the cost to hold inventory. The formula is the square root of the quotient of two times the annual demand multiplied by the order cost (or setup cost), divided by the annual unit carrying cost.

EOQ = Square root of 2DS/Ci

Where:

D = Demand per year in units
S = Setup or ordering cost per order
C = Cost per unit
i = Carrying cost, expressed as a percentage of inventory cost
(C × i is the carrying cost per unit.)

For this formula, if carrying costs are decreased, then the EOQ will increase. As the EOQ increases, the amount of inventory that a company would tend to hold also increases.

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11
Q
The U.S. inflation rate is expected to be 5% per annum while the Italian lira is expected to depreciate against the U.S. dollar by 10% during the same period. During the next year, an Italian firm importing from its U.S. parent can expect its lira cost for these imports to:
A. decrease by about 5%.
B. increase by about 5%.
C. increase by about 15%.
D. decrease by about 15%.
A

The correct answer is C.

Taking the two events in order, if the inflation in the United States is expected to be 5%, then according to the purchasing power parity theorem of exchange rates, the exchange rate between the United States and Italy will increase by 5% (1 lira will increase in worth by 5% more dollars). On top of this expected inflation, is a 10% depreciation of the lira against the dollar, which will drive up the exchange rate another 10%, on top of the 5% inflation change. Mathematically we have:

      $1.00 x 1.05 = $1.05    $1.05 x 1.10 = $1.155

Therefore, the price of imported goods to Italy will rise from $1.00 to $1.1550, an overall increase of about 15%.

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12
Q

To be effective, analytical procedures in the overall review stage of an audit engagement should be performed by which of the following?
A. The managing audit partner who has responsibility for all audit engagements at that practice office
B. An audit manager or partner who has a comprehensive knowledge of the client’s business and industry
C. The CPA firm’s quality control manager or partner who has responsibility for the firm’s peer review program
D. The staff accountant who performed the substantive auditing procedures

A

The correct answer is B.

An audit manager or partner should perform the analytical procedures in the overall review stage because they have a more thorough understanding of the client and the industry when compared to other individuals who have less knowledge of the client and the industry.

The objective of analytical procedures used in the overall review stage of the audit is to assist the auditor in assessing the conclusions reached and in the evaluation of the overall financial statement presentation.

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13
Q

Data access security related to applications may be enforced through all the following, except:
A. user identification and authentication functions incorporated in the application.
B. utility software functions.
C. user identification and authentication functions in access control software.
D. security functions provided by a database management system.

A

The correct answer is B.

Data access security related to applications cannot be enforced through utility software functions. Utility programs are one of the more serious “holes” in data access security since some of them can actually bypass normal access controls.

Data access security related to applications may be enforced through user identification and authentication functions incorporated in the application. Although there is a migration of control of this type away from applications to other software, most of these controls still reside in application software.
Data access security related to applications may be enforced through user identification and authentication functions in access control software. Access control software has as one of its primary objectives improving data access security for all data on the system.
Data access security related to applications may be enforced through security functions provided by a database management system. In fact, most database management systems provide for improved data access security while they are running.
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14
Q

The implementation stage is the second step in project management. What does the implementation stage entail?
A. Creating a schedule
B. Creating the plan
C. Holding meetings, monitoring progress, and tracking costs
D. Releasing the final project

A

The correct answer is C.

The implementation stage includes holding meetings, monitoring the progress of the project, updating the project plan, tracking costs, and communicating the progress of the project. Remember that the implementation stage coincides with the planning stage.

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15
Q

Carol and Jane were sitting in the local coffee shop discussing Jane’s possible strategies for constructing her investment portfolio. Carol suggested that Jane spend time reviewing the financial information for stocks she might consider purchasing and do some ratio analysis once she had obtained the information, but at the same time, it probably wouldn’t be a good idea for Jane to attempt to predict the future movements of the markets. Jane said that she would think about these suggestions, but that she had come to believe the best approach would be for her to do her analysis using charts based on the historic market data using price and trading volume to predict the future movement of stock prices. Someone overhearing this conversation would believe that Jane wanted to use ________ and did not believe in the ________.
A. passive management techniques; strong form of the efficient market hypothesis
B. beta; fundamental analysis
C. technical analysis; weak form of the efficient market hypothesis
D. asset allocation techniques; fundamental analysis

A

The correct answer is C.

Technical analysis involves analyzing past market data of price and volume movements to attempt to determine future price movements of individual securities. The weak form of the efficient market hypothesis suggests that information about past prices would not be of use in predicting future performance, and therefore technical analysis would not be a viable technique to use.

Fundamental analysis uses factors specific to a firm, such as financial statements, ratio analysis, projected earnings growth, and dividend yield in an attempt to find undervalued securities.

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16
Q
Contingency planning alternatives can vary by computer processing environment. A company is least likely to use a reciprocal processing agreement for:
A. small systems.
B. large batch operations.
C. online teleprocessing facilities.
D. small batch operations.
A

The correct answer is C.

Online teleprocessing would generally not involve a reciprocal processing agreement.

Reciprocal processing agreements are often used for small systems, large batch operations, and small batch operations.

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17
Q

Which of the following is not part of the control cycle approach to risk management?
A. Doing a profit test to determine whether a product provides a positive contribution margin
B. Developing the hedges necessary to mitigate interest rate risk
C. Determining, in both quantitative and qualitative terms, an understandable explanation of the differences between expected and actual results
D. Using the feedback loops in the modeling of expected results to update the assumptions and determine what adjustments in reserves might be necessary

A

The correct answer is B.

Key elements of the control cycle approach to risk management include the following:

Modeling the expected results using a set of initial assumptions
Doing a profit test to determine if the product provides a contribution margin
Measuring the actual results
Determining, both in quantitative and qualitative terms, an understandable explanation of the differences between expected and actual results
Determining what actions need to be taken with respect to the product, including possible adjustments to reserves
Using the findings to strengthen the model and update the assumptions as needed with feedback from the process
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18
Q

The Internet is made up of a series of networks that include:
A. gateways to allow mainframe computers to connect to personal computers.
B. bridges to direct messages through the optimum data path.
C. repeaters to physically connect separate local area networks (LANs).
D. routers to strengthen data signals between distant computers.

A

The correct answer is A.

Gateways connect Internet computers of dissimilar networks.

Routers determine the best path for data.
Bridges connect physically separate LAN's.
Repeaters strengthen signal strength.
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19
Q
As it relates to accounts receivable, a mathematical relationship that can define the optimal credit level is:
A. Carrying costs = Cost of capital.
B. Carrying costs = Opportunity costs.
C. Total costs = Opportunity costs.
D. Total costs = Cost of capital.
A

correct answer is B.

Accounts receivable are at the optimal level when Carrying costs = Opportunity costs.

Carrying costs are costs that are associated with the granting of credit (such as bad debts), the costs of managing that credit, and the delay in receiving cash.

Opportunity costs are sales that are lost from refusing to offer credit.

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20
Q

Globalization is a process by which nations of the world become integrated through global networks of communication. Its current success is tied to a number of socioeconomic effects, with one of the key effects being:
A. an understanding that the success of the emerging economies is more than simply the cost advantage they have due to having relatively low-cost labor.
B. the relatively large labor force in emerging markets and declining birth rates that have historically been associated with dynamic positive economic change.
C. an undervalued currency in emerging economies that would stimulate exports and strong investment in infrastructure.
D. the fact that innovation blowbacks as the low-priced, high-quality products developed for the emerging economics now will be effectively marketed and sold in the developed world.

A

The correct answer is B.

Socioeconomic effects are the social and economic experiences and realities that help mold one’s personality, attitudes, and lifestyle. Declining birth rates reduce the dependency ratio, and the large labor force tends to keep wages low as economic activity expands. Most of the world’s currently developed economies were in this phase of the demographic cycle when they began their economic expansion.

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21
Q

It is important to maintain proper segregation of duties in a computer environment. Which of the following access setups is appropriate?
A. Users have update access for production data
B. Users have update access for production data and application programmers have update access for production programs
C. Application programmers have update access for production data and users have update access for production programs
D. Users have update access for production data and application programmers have update access for both production data and programs

A

The correct answer is A.

Users need to update data through applications programs.

Application programmers should not be able to change production programs. They should submit changes to the change control unit.

Application programmers should never have update access to production data. Users have no need to change production programs.

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22
Q

An auditor has completed an inventory count in a warehouse where she has identified a large discrepancy in the inventory count. She must now communicate her findings to her audit client, who may not receive this information favorably and who may become confrontative.

When communicating with auditees, there are both situational factors and message characteristics that can damage the communication process. An auditor has only limited control over situational factors but has substantial control over message characteristics.

The behavioral science literature identifies diffusion as an effective approach to resolving conflict. An auditor effectively using diffusion in working with a confrontative auditee would:
A. set aside critical issues temporarily and try to reach agreement on less controversial issues first.
B. emphasize differences between the parties.
C. avoid the conflict situation.
D. identify the sources of conflict and address them directly.

A

The correct answer is A.

Diffusion involves setting aside the conflict situation and concentrating on less controversial issues.

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23
Q
A firm that often factors its accounts receivable has an agreement with its finance company that requires the firm to maintain a 6% reserve and charges 1% commission on the amount of receivables. The net proceeds would be further reduced by an annual interest charge of 10%. Assuming a 360-day year, what amount of cash (rounded to the nearest dollar) will the firm receive from the finance company at the time a $100,000 account that is due in 90 days is turned over to the finance company?
A. $93,000
B. $90,000
C. $83,000
D. $90,675
A

The correct answer is D.

Factoring involves the sale of accounts receivable as a way for the seller to obtain financing. However, the seller receives an amount less than the face amount of the accounts sold to compensate the factor for assuming the risk and the costs of collection. In this case, the amount of cash the seller will receive from the finance company is $90,675, computed as follows:

Face amount of accounts receivable factored  =          $100,000
LESS:   6% reserve  =  .06 x $100,000  =  $6,000
     1% commission  =  .01 x $100,000  =  $1,000           7,000
                                                        --------
Net amount available                                    $ 93,000
LESS:  10% interest  =  .10 x $93,000 x (90 / 360) =       2,325
                                                        --------
Cash proceeds                                           $ 90,675
                                                        ========
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24
Q

Five brand managers in a consumer food products company met regularly to figure out what price points were being lowered by their competitors and how well coupon promotions did. The data they needed to analyze consisted of about 50 gigabytes of daily point-of-sale (POS) data from major grocery chains for each month. The brand managers are competent users of spreadsheet and database software on personal computers (PCs). They considered several alternative software options to access and manipulate data to answer their questions.

Another brand manager suspected that several days of the POS data from one grocery chain were missing. The best approach for detecting missing rows in the data would be to:
A. sort on product identification code and identify missing product identification codes.
B. sort on store identification code and identify missing product identification codes.
C. compare product identification codes for consecutive periods.
D. compare product identification codes by store for consecutive periods.

A

The correct answer is D.

Comparison of product identification codes by store for consecutive periods could reveal periods in which some products had no sales, a possible indication of missing data.

Unless product identification codes are consecutive, missing data would not be evident. This is not likely.
A sort of store identification codes would produce all product identification codes and related data for each store. This would not be useful.
Comparison of product identification codes for consecutive periods would not permit detection of missing rows of data.
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25
Q
Financial risk management is a component of enterprise risk management (ERM). ERM encompasses the methods and procedures used by an organization to control risks and grasp opportunities to help a firm achieve their identified objectives. Included under the heading of financial risks would be such items as:
A. business risk.
B. hazard risk.
C. catastrophic risk.
D. strategic risk.
A

The correct answer is A.

Financial risk management is one component of the concept of enterprise risk management of the firm, which would include risks such as the following:

    Business risk (uncertainty associated with the ability to forecast EBIT due to factors such as sales variability and operating leverage)
    Operations risk (risk of loss resulting from inadequate or failed internal processes, people, and systems, or from external events)
    Supply-chain risk (potential disruptions to continued manufacturing production and thereby commercial financial exposure)
    Product liability risk (responsibility of the firm or vendor of goods to compensate for injury caused by defective merchandise that it has provided for sale)
    Political and economic risk (risk that a government buyer or a country prevents a transaction from being completed, or fails to meets its payment obligations; and/or the risk associated with the overall health of the economy)
26
Q

What is the definition of shared services?
A. Sharing personnel to cut back on costs
B. Combining two companies who share the same vendor
C. Creating an external service provider
D. Combining the efforts of two departments that share the same resources

A

The correct answer is D.

Shared services is combining efforts of two departments that share the same resources. Why have two internal departments working on one common goal and spending twice the money? Shared services combines the two internal departments that can then share in the resources and costs.

27
Q

Which one of the following statements pertaining to the return on investment (ROI) as a performance measurement is incorrect?
A. When the average age of assets differs substantially across segments of a business, the use of ROI may not be appropriate.
B. ROI relies on financial measures that are capable of being independently verified while other forms of performance measures are subject to manipulation.
C. The use of ROI may lead managers to reject capital investment projects that can be justified by using discounted cash flow models.
D. The use of ROI can make it undesirable for a skillful manager to take on trouble-shooting assignments such as those involving turning around unprofitable divisions.

A

The correct answer is B.

Many financial measures such as ROI, Residual Income and Contribution Margin Percentage are capable of being independently verified.

Companies strive to find performance measures that are not subject to manipulation but also recognize that most financial measures can be subjected to some financial manipulation. Financial management usually monitors possible manipulation practices. For example, with respect to ROI, financial managers will monitor the results to ensure the appropriate use of accruals and capitalization.

28
Q
The future value of $100 invested today for three years at an annual interest rate of 8% using the simple interest method is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ (rounded to whole dollars).
A. $108
B. $124
C. $126
D. $132
A

The correct answer is B.

The future or maturity of the $100 invested for three years at 8% is:

Principal $100
Interest = $100 x .08 x 3 years = 24
—-
Total $124

29
Q

The level of safety stock in inventory management depends on all of the following except the:
A. level of uncertainty of the sales forecast.
B. level of customer dissatisfaction for back orders.
C. cost of running out of inventory.
D. cost to reorder stock.

A

The correct answer is D.

The level of safety stock does not depend on the cost to reorder stock.

Safety stock is held in order to avoid the likelihood of a stock out, or running out of inventory. A higher level of safety stock is needed when sales forecasts are uncertain. Customers dislike waiting for orders to be filled, and lead time from suppliers is uncertain.

The cost of reordering inventory is a consideration in the optimal quantity of inventory to order each time an order is placed, but not in the additional safety stock that should be held. When the inventory falls to the level of minimum safety stock, then a new order should be placed.

30
Q

Which of the following is not a primary use to which of funds invested by sovereign wealth funds (SWFs) would be put?
A. Investing in land in another country to produce staple crops for export to their country in a way designed to circumvent the workings of world commodity markets
B. Diversifying the use of foreign exchange reserves and attempting to improve food and energy security
C. Attempting to make investments that would allow their citizens to increase their savings rate to ensure that the citizens provide their own social safety net
D. Acquiring technologies, brands, and resources designed to improve productivity and improve management techniques

A

The correct answer is C.

A key agricultural goal would be to invest in staple crops with a protectionist impulse designed to circumvent world commodity markets. Many emerging market economies find investing in their own domestic agriculture to be problematic due to a scarcity of arable land and, more importantly, a shortage of water. They outsource food production, growing crops abroad and shipping them back to the home country.

Other investments by SWFs are designed to acquire technologies, brands, resources, and better access to international markets and to use technology to enhance productivity. A country like China is taking advantage of the low valuations of increasingly desperate foreign operations (particularly in strategically important sectors such as energy and raw materials) and is making investments in an attempt to achieve energy security and access to strategic materials at a known contract price.

Many SWFs are attempting to learn how U.S. companies operate and transfer those skills to improve the operation of their domestic firms.

31
Q

You are the financial expert on the board of a corporation. The next meeting of the board of directors will deal with strategic planning. The new chairman has contacted you to ask if you have suggestions for an approach to the strategic planning.

Write a business e-mail to the chairman of the board and introduce him to SWOT analysis. Discuss the purpose of SWOT analysis in strategic planning and the factor that each letter in “SWOT” stands for. In addition, provide a definition or an example of each factor.

Type your communication in the response area below. Following the completion of this simulation, you will be asked a series of related probe questions.

REMINDER: Your response on the CPA examination will be graded for both technical content and writing skills. Technical content will be evaluated for information that is helpful to the intended reader and clearly relevant to the issue. Writing skills will be evaluated for development, organization, and the appropriate expression of ideas in professional correspondence. Use a standard business memo or letter format with a clear beginning, middle, and end. Do not convey information in the form of a table, bullet point list, or other abbreviated presentation.
To:	Mr. Chairman
From:	Mr. CPA
Date:	Today
Re:	Strategic Planning
A

To: Mr. Chairman
From: Mr. CPA
Date: Today
Re: Strategic Planning

Mr. Chairman,

One of the best ways to perform long-term, or strategic, planning is to use SWOT analysis. In strategic planning, we start by determining the company’s mission. This mission will lead us to long-term objectives. The SWOT analysis helps to clarify the factors that are favorable and unfavorable to achieving our objectives. SWOT tailors our goals according to internal and external aspects unique to the company.

SWOT analysis involves an examination of four qualities of the business: its strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats.

Business strengths are internal factors: our resources and capabilities that allow us to develop a competitive, or comparative, advantage over other companies. An example would be our well-known name.

Our weaknesses are also internal factors. These items are the opposite of our strengths and give our competitors an advantage over us. An example would be our inability to keep highly trained staff members for long-term.

Opportunities are external factors that provide chances for us to maximize profit. We must look at prospects provided by the environment in which we operate and attempt to take advantage of them. An example would be the closing of our competitor in the next county. (Perhaps we could open into this new market area?)

Threats are external factors that represent dangers in the way of achieving our goals. Arising from the environment around us, threats can be situations such as a new sales tax on our product.

I look forward to the next business meeting where we can discuss these matters further.

Sincerely,

Mr. CPA

(The reference for this question is section 5520.05 in the Business Environment & Concepts Reference Volume.)

32
Q

SWOT analysis helps to clarify the organization’s mission by highlighting the factors that are favorable and unfavorable:
A. to reaching consensus in a business meeting.
B. to agreeing on strategic goals for 10 years in the future.
C. to pursuing a specific course of action.
D. to achieving the company’s goals.

A

You are correct, the answer is D.

The company’s mission defines its long-term, broad goals. SWOT analysis looks at the internal and external factors that relate favorably and unfavorably to achieving those objectives.

33
Q
The “S” in SWOT stands for the internal factor that allows the company a competitive advantage. This factor is called:
A. sturdiness.
B. strengths.
C. superiority.
D. service.
A

The correct answer is B.

The “S” in SWOT stands for strengths. A company’s strengths help it reach its objectives and give it a competitive edge in the marketplace.

34
Q
Internal factors that work unfavorably against reaching objectives (the “W” in SWOT) are called:
A. waste.
B. weaknesses.
C. worries.
D. weights.
A

The correct answer is B.

Business weaknesses are internal factors that give a company’s competitors an edge. They are the opposite of strengths.

35
Q
The “O” in SWOT stands for a factor that is external to the organization. What is this factor?
A. Opportunities
B. Obstructions
C. Objectives
D. Occurrences
A

The correct answer is A.

Opportunities are external to the company and provide a prospect, or chance, of which the company can take advantage (or choose not to).

36
Q
External factors that stand in the way of achieving objectives (the “T” in SWOT) are referred to as:
A. trouble.
B. threats.
C. trials.
D. tests.
A

The correct answer is B.

A threat is external to the company. Threats represent unfavorable occurrences that can prevent the company from reaching its goals.

37
Q
A savvy CEO would be an example of:
A. a strength.
B. a weakness.
C. an opportunity.
D. a threat.
A

The correct answer is A.

A smart, clever member of management would be an internal strength that helps the company achieve its goals.

38
Q
Not selling through a website (while all of the company's competitors do) would be an example of:
A. a strength.
B. a weakness.
C. an opportunity.
D. a threat.
A

The correct answer is B.

Making the decision not to sell online (or the inability to do so) would be an internal weakness that can give the company’s competitors an edge.

39
Q
A recent news story that discusses potential side effects of one of the company's main products would be classified as:
A. a strength.
B. a weakness.
C. an opportunity.
D. a threat.
A

The correct answer is D.

This news story (true or not) is an external threat to the company’s ability to achieve its goals (sales, profit, etc.).

40
Q
An oil spill (when the company makes equipment that helps collect spilt oil) would be an example of:
A. a strength.
B. a weakness.
C. an opportunity.
D. a threat.
A

The correct answer is C.

An oil spill, while not a favorable occurrence, can still represent an external opportunity for a company that manufactures products that will be needed for the environmental cleanup.

41
Q
Your client's gross profit this past year increased from that of the year before. This company produces and sells only one type of product. While client management is thrilled, you wish to analyze their gross profit variation and discuss why the change occurred. The figures for both years are as follows:
 	   20X2
Sales (200,000 units)	$900,000
Cost of goods sold      	600,000
Gross profit	$300,000
 	  20X1
 	(Base Year)
Sales (200,000 units)	$800,000
Cost of goods sold	575,000
Gross profits	$225,000

Write a memo to management of the company and describe the results of your gross profit variation analysis. Begin with the gross profit variance and provide a description of the calculation of the three component parts of gross profit variance (ignoring sales mix, as it does not apply here). Discuss reasons why each of the variances could have occurred. Communicate your largest concern revealed by your analysis.

Type your communication in the response area below. Following the completion of this simulation, you will be asked a series of related probe questions.

REMINDER: Your response on the CPA examination will be graded for both technical content and writing skills. Technical content will be evaluated for information that is helpful to the intended reader and clearly relevant to the issue. Writing skills will be evaluated for development, organization, and the appropriate expression of ideas in professional correspondence. Use a standard business memo or letter format with a clear beginning, middle, and end. Do not convey information in the form of a table, bullet point list, or other abbreviated presentation.

A

It is very exciting that your gross profit increased this past year over the year before. In fact, the change in your gross profit is a positive (favorable) $75,000!

By analyzing, or carefully examining, the components of gross profit and their changes, we can better understand why the change occurred. Since you only produce one product, we analyze gross profit variance by looking at sales price variance, cost price variance, and sales volume variance.

To calculate the sales price variance, we figure out the average selling price per unit each year and determine if it has increased or decreased. In 20X1, you charged $4 per unit. In 20X2, you charged $4.50 per unit. The price increase was $.50 per unit (for 200,000 units), or $100,000 overall. Most likely you raised your prices in response to increased costs to produce each unit.

The cost price variance is calculated by subtracting the total cost of goods sold in 20X2 from the cost of goods sold in 20X1. [$575,000 − $600,000 = ($25,000).] Your costs went up by $25,000. This is an unfavorable increase, and it could be due to the increased cost of raw materials.

Calculating the sales volume variance involves looking at the difference in the number of units sold in 20X2 versus 20X1. In each year, the company sold the same number of units (200,000). Perhaps the company had reached its production capacity, or maybe the economy affected the number of customers who were able to purchase. I am most concerned about this variance figure, as it shows stagnant sales growth. You may want to focus on increasing the number of units sold during the current year.

We can look at these components to determine the makeup of the total gross profit variance: $100,000 sales price variance − $25,000 cost price variance + $0 sales volume variance = $75,000 gross profit variance.

(The reference for this question is section 5531.23 in the Business Environment & Concepts Reference Volume.)

42
Q
Which variance concerns you the most?
A. Sales price variance
B. Sales volume variance
C. Cost price variance
D. Gross profit variance
A

The correct answer is B.

The sales volume variance is the most worrisome. Increasing retail prices for items is normal, as is an increasing cost for raw materials. However, to see a company sell the same amount of goods as the year before should cause some red flags to go up. Management should be asking why sales did not grow, and they should be devising a strategy to increase sales.

43
Q

The cost price variance in this problem could have been caused by:
A. an increase in the cost of raw materials.
B. a decrease in controllable overhead costs.
C. poor management.
D. inaccurate costing procedures.

A

The correct answer is A.

The 20X2 costs were higher than the 20X1 costs. The best answer in the choices above is that the raw materials went up in cost. There could be other reasons, such as waste.

44
Q

The sales price variance in this problem could have been caused by:
A. increased costs to manufacture.
B. competitors’ lower prices.
C. the sale of more items at lower prices.
D. market diversification.

A

The correct answer is A.

The sales price per unit went up from $4.00 (in 20X1) to $4.50 (in 20X2). The question is, why did the company raise (not lower) their prices? The only viable answer from the choices given is that the company realized its costs were increasing and then raised its prices. Of course, there could be other reasons, such as all of the company’s competitors having higher prices (sometimes consumers believe that if a product is cheap in price, it is cheap in quality).

45
Q
The difference in the cost of goods sold from one year to the next is the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. In this problem, its value is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. cost variance; $(25,000)
B. cost price variance; $(25,000)
C. cost of goods variance; $25,000
D. cost variance; $25,000
A

he correct answer is B.

The cost price variance is calculated by subtracting the total cost of goods sold in 20X2 from the cost of goods sold in 20X1 ($575,000 − $600,000 = $(25,000)). The costs went up by $25,000. This is an unfavorable increase, so we express it as a negative number.

46
Q

Your new client, a small organic farm, seems to have leveled out with its sales over the past few years. In order to reach new markets, it is considering expanding into e-commerce. The owner meets with you and asks you about e-business. What is your recommendation for her, keeping in mind that she has no employees, she does not currently accept credit cards, her accounting records are a complete mess, her cash reserves are very low, and her line of credit is at its maximum? Write a letter to your client and discuss the advantages, disadvantages, risks, and costs of e-commerce as they apply to her situation so that she can make her decision.

Type your communication in the response area below. Following the completion of this simulation, you will be asked a series of related probe questions.

REMINDER: Your response on the CPA examination will be graded for both technical content and writing skills. Technical content will be evaluated for information that is helpful to the intended reader and clearly relevant to the issue. Writing skills will be evaluated for development, organization, and the appropriate expression of ideas in professional correspondence. Use a standard business memo or letter format with a clear beginning, middle, and end. Do not convey information in the form of a table, bullet point list, or other abbreviated presentation.

A

oday’s Date, 20XX

Dear Ms. Unpasteur,

Utilizing e-commerce for your business will allow you to process more orders without hiring additional staff. Software can capture information entered by customers online and transmit it to your sales order software automatically without additional data entry. In addition, fewer phone orders mean that you can be away from your desk working on the farm while the customer shops at their convenience. The electronic online catalog will also save you money as you will no longer have to print and mail paper catalogs.

While e-commerce has a great deal of advantages, it has a few disadvantages. With an online order form, you will need to know an accurate, real-time picture of your current inventory. Otherwise, customers could experience a delay in shipping. Online sales could also be too successful. You could receive more orders than you are able to fill.

An online sales presence is not without risks. When you are selling items online, you must be prepared to accept credit card payments. Accepting credit cards requires additional hardware and software that meets industry security standards. Your office network (hardware and software) will need security from hackers as well. Another risk is that your records will all be electronic. You will need a reliable backup system in case of data loss.

Initiating your electronic presence, maintaining it, and keeping it secure comes with additional costs. You will need new accounting software and, most likely, a new computer that will run the software. You may need to pay for additional training to learn how to use it. Other costs include hiring someone to design a webpage and keep it updated, purchasing subscriptions to online shopping cart and website hosting; credit card fees and discounts; and ongoing IT support.

Expanding into e-commerce requires a large initial investment to design and initiate the Internet presence. It is important that the sales be performed in a secure manner—not haphazardly or halfway. In addition, the increased sales will result in a stronger need for an organized, up-to-date general ledger and inventory data. Due to the cost of these infrastructure items, I would recommend waiting to expand until you have the capital to invest in the business.

(The reference for this question is section 5441 in the Business Environment & Concepts Reference Volume.)

47
Q

What is your recommendation for this business?
A. Move ahead incrementally as cash is available. Items such as security can be addressed later.
B. Borrow against farm assets to expand as quickly as possible; the large expected returns will help pay back the debt.
C. Wait until funds are available to pay for the increased cost of expanding into e-commerce.
D. Wait until the accounting records are in better shape before attempting to add more sales.

A

The correct answer is C.

The biggest hurdle for this business is the lack of cash or borrowing ability. Security should always be considered as integral—never last place. Borrowing against the farm would be like gambling; one cannot ensure a large return from selling on the Internet. While the accounting records should be in better order, this step can be addressed at the same time as the expansion (when new software and procedures can be put into place to accommodate the Internet orders).

48
Q
Successful e-commerce requires:
A. an up-to-date checkbook register.
B. a well-thought-out business plan.
C. a knowledge of HTML.
D. an accurate picture of inventory available
A

The correct answer is D.

Customers who order online assume that something is available if it is in the catalog. If it is backordered, they need to know immediately. Having inaccurate inventory records can hurt an e-commerce business.

49
Q

Three of the basic measurements used by the theory of constraints (TOC) are:
A. gross margin (or gross profit), return on assets, and total sales.
B. number of constraints (or subordinates), number of non-constraints, and operating leverage
C. throughput (or throughput contribution), inventory (or investments), and operational expense.
D. fixed manufacturing overhead per unit, fixed general overhead per unit, and unit gross margin (or gross profit).

A

The correct answer is C.

The theory of constraints uses three measurements: throughput contribution, investments, and operating costs.

50
Q
A company purchases inventory on terms of net 30 days and resells to its customers on terms of net 15 days. The inventory conversion period averages 60 days. What is the company's cash conversion cycle?
A. 15 days
B. 45 days
C. 75 days
D. 105 days
A

The correct answer is B.

The cash conversion cycle is the time between the investment of cash in inventory and the return of cash after the sale and collection of the related account receivable. In this case, cash is not invested in the inventory until 30 days into the 60 day inventory conversion cycle. The remaining 30 days of the inventory conversion cycle plus the 15 day receivable collection period results in a 45 day cash conversion cycle.

51
Q

Assume that you borrow $2,000 from a bank and the loan has an 8% annual percentage rate. The loan is to be paid back at the end of 12 months. If the inflation rate during the year was 10%, then:
A. The dollars that you repay will have less purchasing power than those you borrowed from the bank.
B. the real rate of return the bank receives on the loan will be greater than was originally expected.
C. you will actually be paying the bank back fewer dollars than you borrowed.
D. the inflation will cause income to be redistributed from you to the bank.

A

The correct answer is A.

You have borrowed $2,000 from the bank and the purchasing power of those dollars at the end of the year with a 10% rate of inflation would be $1,800. In this specific instance, even if you add the interest the bank would earn ($160), the purchasing power of the money they receive would be less than the amount lent.

52
Q
Spring Co. had two divisions, A and B. Division A created Product X, which could be sold on the outside market for $25 and used variable costs of $15. Division B could take Product X and apply additional variable costs of $40 to create Product Y, which could be sold for $100. Division B received a special order for a large amount of Product Y. If Division A were operating at full capacity, which of the following prices should Division A charge Division B for the Product X needed to fill the special order?
A. $15
B. $20
C. $25
D. $40
A

You are correct, the answer is C.

At full operating capacity, Division A would be losing sales to the outside market if it chose to sell Product X to Division B. Therefore, the transfer pricing should be equal to Product X’s market price of $25.

At less than full operating capacity, Division A may choose to sell Product X to Division B for less than the market price, since Division B can further process that product into Product Y and create a profit for Spring Co.

Division A would not charge more than market price to Division B, since they are the same company.

53
Q

In general, mainframe computer production programs and data are adequately protected against unauthorized access. Certain utility software may, however, have privileged access to software and data. To compensate for the risk of unauthorized use of privileged software, Information Systems (IS) management can:
A. prevent privileged software from being installed on the mainframe.
B. restrict privileged access to test versions of applications.
C. limit the use of privileged software.
D. keep sensitive programs and data on an isolated machine.

A

ou are correct, the answer is C.

Management can limit the use of privileged software as a means of reducing the risk of unauthorized use of that software. By limiting use, it will be easier to assume that the privileged software use was authorized and legitimate.

    If the privileged software is not installed, it cannot be used by anyone.
    Privileged software (the real versions, not test versions) is needed for some functions.
    Placing sensitive programs and data on isolated machines has the practical effect of making those programs and data unusable for their intended purpose(s).
54
Q

Which of the following would an auditor ordinarily consider the greatest risk regarding an entity’s use of electronic data interchange (EDI)?
A. Authorization of EDI transactions
B. Duplication of EDI transmissions
C. Improper distribution of EDI transactions
D. Elimination of paper documents

A

You are correct, the answer is C.

Electronic data interchange (EDI) transmits confidential information to business partners. There is always a risk in data transmission of it being received by unintended recipients, and this would concern an auditor.

“Authorization of EDI transactions” is incorrect because proper authorization is required for transactions whether or not EDI is involved. “Duplication of EDI transmissions” is incorrect because duplication of transmissions to insure receipt is not a risk. The risks associated with these answer choices are controlled at the originating entity and do not result from improper transmission of the data.

“Elimination of paper documents” is incorrect because elimination of paper documents reduces the chance that the information will be acquired by unintended recipients.

55
Q

An organization uses electronic mail extensively over the Internet. All users have an established password to get into their account. Which of the following statements is correct regarding such security?
A. All messages on the Internet are encrypted, thereby providing enhanced security.
B. Passwords are effective in ensuring that someone attempting to log on under a user’s name is prevented from casually accessing the user’s data.
C. If someone gains supervisory level access to the file server containing electronic messages, they could still not gain access to the file containing electronic mail messages unless they first decrypted the security control log.
D. All of these statements are correct.

A

The correct answer is B.

Passwords are effective against the casual intruder.

Messages on the Internet are not encrypted. It is the sender's and receiver's responsibility to encrypt confidential information.
If someone gains access to the server, he or she can download the file of messages and gain access to the messages without working with any security log.
56
Q
Gartshore, Inc., is a mail-order book company. The company recently changed its credit policy in an attempt to increase sales. Gartshore's variable cost ratio for obtaining credit is 70% and its required rate of return is 12%. The company projects that annual sales will increase from the current level of $360,000 to $432,000, but the average collection period on receivables will go from 30 to 40 days. Ignoring any tax implications, what is the cost of carrying additional investment in accounts receivable, using a 360-day year?
A. $168
B. $1,512
C. $2,000
D. $2,160
A

You are correct, the answer is B.

Cost of holding accounts receivable before credit policy change: $360,000 sales ÷ 360 days = $1,000 average daily sales:

30 days average collection period = $30,000 average A/R balance
12% required rate of return = $3,600 annual interest

Cost of holding accounts receivable after credit policy change: $432,000 sales ÷ 360 days = $1,200 average daily sales:

40 days average collection period = $48,000 average A/R balance
12% required rate of return = $5,760 annual interest

$5,760 - $3,600 = $2,160 additional annual interest on holding A/R balance.

However, by stating the variable cost ratio, the problem implies it expects a distinction made between actual investment in A/R and margin earned. The actual investment by Gartshore is its variable cost, which for a mail-order book company represents cost of goods purchased for sale. That is, there is no change in fixed costs. Consequently, the $2,160 needs to be reduced to represent only the interest on the variable cost portion: $2,160 × 70% variable cost = $1,512.

57
Q

A company that produces 10,000 units has fixed costs of $300,000, variable costs of $50 per unit, and a sales price of $85 per unit. After learning that its variable costs will increase by 20%, the company is considering an increase in production to 12,000 units. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the company’s next steps?
A. If production is increased to 12,000 units, profits will increase by $50,000.
B. If production is increased to 12,000 units, profits will increase by $100,000.
C. If production remains at 10,000 units, profits will decrease by $50,000.
D. If production remains at 10,000 units, profits will decrease by $100,000.

A

You are correct, the answer is D.

The new contribution margin will be sales price less variable cost, or $85 − (120% × $50) = $25 per unit.

If production increases to 12,000 units, the contribution margin will be 12,000 × $25, or $300,000. Subtracting fixed costs of $300,000 from a contribution margin of $300,000 leaves no profit.

If production remains at 10,000 units, the contribution margin will be 10,000 × $25, or $250,000. Before the increase in variable costs, the contribution margin was 10,000 × $35 ($85 − $50), or $350,000. With no change in fixed costs, a decrease in the contribution margin from $350,000 to $250,000 will reduce profits by $100,000.

58
Q

How does a change in net investment affect the level of income?
A. An increase in net investment will be offset directly by a decrease in the level of income.
B. A decrease in net investment will be offset directly by an increase in the level of income.
C. A decrease in net investment will cause a more than proportional decrease in the level of income.
D. An increase in net investment will cause a more than proportional decrease in the level of income.

A

The correct answer is C.

In macroeconomics, equilibrium national income is affected by changes in autonomous consumption, net investment, and government expenditures.

The actual impact on national income will be multiplied, positively or negatively, by some multiple of the initial change. This is due to the “multiplier effect,” which magnifies small changes in C, In, or G into larger overall changes to national income.

Thus, a decrease in net investment (In) will decrease national income by a larger amount than the original decline in investment.

59
Q

Short-term interest rates are:
A. generally lower than long-term rates.
B. generally higher than long-term rates.
C. lower than long-term rates during periods of high inflation only.
D. not significantly related to long-term rates

A

The correct answer is A.
Short-term interest rates are usually lower than long-term rates, because there is less risk involved in a shorter time period, and lenders require less compensation since their money is tied up for a shorter time. Short-term rates are definitely related to long-term rates, but tend to be more volatile, in part due to the exercise of monetary policy actions by the Federal Reserve.

60
Q
Capital budgeting is generally most accurate when the method used considers the cost of capital, as in the net present value method. The cost of capital used in this analysis should be \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ weighted average cost of capital.
A. historic
B. industry-wide
C. marginal
D. total
A

The correct answer is C.

The cost of capital used should be the weighted average cost of capital in a marginal sense rather than a historical sense. In other words, the cost of capital should be determined in terms of the cost to issue debt and equity in the current market environment and not based on book value. The weights should be based on the expected capital structure of the funds to be raised.