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Bullseye Preparation > Bullseye > Flashcards

Bullseye Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following options will allow a field to be displayed in search results, but not be selected by default?

A. Unique
B. Search Results
C. Auditing Information
D. Search Default Field

A

B. Search Results

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2
Q
  1. Why might you designate certain fields as required fields?

A. To ensure values are added to those fields before the record is initially saved
B. To allow users to opt out of those fields
C. To ensure those fields appear by default in search results
D. To ensure values in those fields serve as hyperlinks into the record

A

A. To ensure values are added to those fields before the record is initially saved

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following steps would be the best approach for temporarily stopping a subscription notification from sending email notifications?

A. Delete the subscription notification
B. Inactivate the subscription notification
C. Delete the application associated with the subscription notification
D. Disable notifications for the application associated with the subscription notification

A

B. Inactivate the subscription notification

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4
Q
  1. Events can be used to trigger a number of different layout effects, based on a user’s interaction with other fields in the application. Which of the following actions CANNOT be triggered by an Event?

A. Delete a record
B. Generate an email notification
C. Make a field conditionally required
D. Populate a values list with a selected value

A

A. Delete a record

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5
Q
  1. The RSA Archer Public Sector solution helps organizations to reach compliance with which regulation?

A. FOIA
B. Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act
C. ADA
D. FISMA

A

D. FISMA

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6
Q
  1. In what way can Issues Management act as a foundation for other Archer solutions?

A. Baseline issues provide a basic understanding of business and IT infrastructure
B. Issues logged by a variety of groups provide a partial inventory of software applications, acting as a foundation for other inventories
C. Issues generated by several groups can be handled in Issues Management, including audit and risk and compliance
D. Issues Management helps to decentralize risk at a high level

A

C. Issues generated by several groups can be handled in Issues Management, including audit and risk and compliance

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7
Q
  1. What is the first step in addressing the issue of Regulatory Compliance?

A. Identifying owners for regulation-related controls
B. Clearly and consistently documenting corporate policies, including mapping those policies to industry regulations
C. Implementing a policy lifecycle maintenance process
D. Testing corporate controls to identify current gaps in compliance

A

B. Clearly and consistently documenting corporate policies, including mapping those policies to industry regulations

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about Security Parameters?

A. A Security Parameter cannot be assigned by default
B. A user can only be assigned one Security Parameter
C. Only Application Owners can be assigned a Security Parameter
D. A user can be assigned up to three Security Parameters

A

B. A user can only be assigned one Security Parameter

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9
Q
  1. A RSA Archer user cannot see an application that does exist within the system. What should the administrator check first?

A. The administrator should verify the user has been assigned a role that grants access to the application
B. The administrator should verify the user has been granted access rights to Private fields within the application
C. The administrator should confirm the user is named within a Record Permissions field within the application
D. The administrator should verify the user belongs to at least one group

A

A. The administrator should verify the user has been assigned a role that grants access to the application

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes RSA Archer?

A. RSA Archer is a platform which allows you to adapt solutions to specific requirements and build new applications without touching code
B. RSA Archer is a software solution which requires you to hard code changes to out-of-the-box solution functionality
C. RSA Archer is a platform which allows you to adapt solutions by hard coding new features into the program
D. RSA Archer is a software solution best used for Audit and Operational Risk Management

A

A. RSA Archer is a platform which allows you to adapt solutions to specific requirements and build new applications without touching code

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following list of frequencies contains correct options for subscription notifications?

A. Hourly, Daily, Weekly, Monthly
B. Daily, Weekly, Monthly, Quarterly
C. Weekly, Monthly, Quarterly, Annually
D. Minutely, Hourly, Daily, Weekly

A

B. Daily, Weekly, Monthly, Quarterly

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12
Q
  1. Which Data-Driven Event could be used to conditionally require a field?

A. Apply conditional layout
B. Filter values list
C. Set values list
D. Set conditional requirement

A

A. Apply conditional layout

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13
Q
  1. When building an application, why might you use a tab set?

A. To group related fields using custom HTML code
B. To better organize History Log data
C. To group related fields for administrative purposes only
D. To group related fields into logical arrangements

A

C. To group related fields for administrative purposes only

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14
Q
  1. How are Personal Reports different from Global Reports?

A. Personal Reports can only be created by System Administrators, Application Owners, and Report Administrators
B. Personal Reports are the reports available on public Dashboards
C. Personal Reports are the only report type that can be emailed to a non-Archer user
D. Personal Reports can be created by anyone and are only accessible by the user who created them

A

D. Personal Reports can be created by anyone and are only accessible by the user who created them

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15
Q
  1. Why is it important that users be able to interact with fields that are being evaluated by a rule within Events?

A. Only fields that all users can see can be evaluated within a rule.
B. This is a non-issue, as only administrators are able to configure events.
C. If a user cannot interact with an evaluated field, he cannot trigger the action included in an event.
D. If a user cannot interact with all fields, he cannot save the record, and therefore, cannot trigger calculations.

A

C. If a user cannot interact with an evaluated field, he cannot trigger the action included in an event.

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following Audit Management components would be used to group areas of the business identified for an annual audit?

A. Audit Assessments
B. Audit Plans
C. Audit Engagements
D. Audit Entities

A

D. Audit Entities

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17
Q
  1. Why are Business Resiliency plans and programs recognized as mission-critical?

A. Business Resiliency programs reduce the risk from exposure to third-party suppliers
B. Policies change too often for Business Process Owners to maintain
C. Business Continuity Plans are the only way to harness risk
D. Organizational revenue and reputation depend on the availability of services, business processes, and technologies

A

D. Organizational revenue and reputation depend on the availability of services, business processes, and technologies

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18
Q
  1. Which of the following application statuses will remove the application from view for all end users?

A. Offline
B. Retired
C. Development
D. Archived

A

B. Retired

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19
Q
  1. Users can be granted access to record data at what three levels?

A. Field, Record, Application
B. Form, Page, Application
C. Field, Application, Workspace
D. Form, Page, Workspace

A

A. Field, Record, Application

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20
Q
  1. In order to create a chart using the Advanced Search functionality, what must a user first do?

A. Enter at least one keyword to be used to group the dataset into chartable groups.
B. Configure a filter to be used that will bring back only a subset of the overall data set.
C. Select the Charting search results format to be used in the Display Options section.
D. Select the Statistics Mode checkbox at the bottom of the Fields to Display section.

A

D. Select the Statistics Mode checkbox at the bottom of the Fields to Display section.

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21
Q
  1. If a History Log field is deleted from an application, what will happen to the data stored within that History Log field?

A. All data previously stored in that field is deleted.
B. All data previously stored in that field is still maintained by the database.
C. The user data stored within that field is saved, but all other data is deleted.
D. Nothing; it is not possible to delete a History Log field once it has been populated within a single record.

A

A. All data previously stored in that field is deleted.

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22
Q
  1. If you have multiple searching relationships in your search, which search results format is best for a non-grouped format?

A. Row
B. Summary
C. Column - Flat
D. Column - Hierarchical

A

C. Column - Flat

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23
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about Application Owners?

A. They can delete a Solution.
B. They can add new user accounts to the platform.
C. They can see all records within their assigned applications.
D. They can see all records in all applications across the system.

A

C. They can see all records within their assigned applications.

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24
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes an optimized state of operational processes, as related to the Operational Risk Management solution?

A. Compliance efforts are reactive and just-in-time
B. Resilient strategies adapt quickly to threats and disruptions
C. Each control deficiency identified in loss event analyses and self-assessments is addressed
D. Risk assessments and reporting are limited and inconsistent

A

C. Each control deficiency identified in loss event analyses and self-assessments is addressed

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25
Q
  1. Which one of the following statements about key fields in RSA Archer is true?

A. Key fields must be unique.
B. Any field can be configured to be a key field.
C. Applications can have an unlimited number of key fields.
D. Key fields are displayed as a hyperlink to the record within search results.

A

D. Key fields are displayed as a hyperlink to the record within search results

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26
Q
  1. Which is true about Advanced Workflow?

A. It completely eliminates the need for data-driven events
B. It should only be used for self-assessments
C. It limits the capabilities of calculated fields
D. It leverages data-driven events, calculations, and email notifications

A

D. It leverages data-driven events, calculations, and email notifications

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27
Q
  1. What does Archer use to match components, e.g. applications and fields, between two instances during the packaging process?

A. System IDs
B. GUIDs (Globally Unique Identifiers)
C. Key Fields
D. Tracking IDs

A

B. GUIDs (Globally Unique Identifiers)

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28
Q
  1. If an organization had an XML file from a single, consistent location to import monthly, which of the following would you recommend?

A. Data Transformation Manager
B. Data Import Manager
C. Data Retrieval Manager
D. Data Feed Manager

A

D. Data Feed Manager

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29
Q
  1. All system users automatically belong to a built-in group named

A. All
B. Everyone
C. Basic User Parameter
D. Enterprise Management

A

B. Everyone

30
Q
  1. Historically, each area of a typical organization would manage its own risks. How does RSA Archer’s Operational Risk Management solution area differ in approach?

A. RSA Archer’s ORM solution offers control of the complete risk life cycle, enabling improved governance of risk management activities while also providing visibility to management
B. RSA Archer’s ORM solution will send email notifications to all other areas of the business when a risk is realized anywhere in the organization, thus promoting visibility and encouraging a quick reaction
C. RSA Archers ORM solution reduces the risk of IT and business disruption through specialized dashboards and reports
D. RSA Archer’s ORM solution enforces a siloed approach, as this will give more power to each area of the business to make decisions

A

A. RSA Archer’s ORM solution offers control of the complete risk life cycle, enabling improved governance of risk management activities while also providing visibility to management

31
Q
  1. What is the primary goal of Business Continuity or Disaster Recovery Plans?

A. To ensure that employees have a documented escape plan, should a disaster occur
B. To ensure that all relevant industry regulations are accounted for in the organization’s business plan
C. To ensure that testing of plans is done at least annually in order to satisfy auditors
D. To ensure that if a crisis were to occur, critical business functions would continue to operate or would be recovered to an operational state within an acceptable amount of time

A

D. To ensure that if a crisis were to occur, critical business functions would continue to operate or would be recovered to an operational state within an acceptable amount of time

32
Q
  1. Why is it important to track vendor relationships and behaviors?

A. To establish and communicate security policies and standards
B. To report on audit results in a consistent and timely manner
C. To better scope and document your information security management system
D. To understand the extent of an organization’s dependency on third parties and how third party risks affect the organization

A

D. To understand the extent of an organization’s dependency on third parties and how third party risks affect the organization

33
Q
  1. Which of the following is the best option to use if you want a date field to be dynamically populated by the system based on selections made in another field, but still want to allow the End User to change the value selected in the date field?

A. Date fields cannot be dynamically populated
B. Make the date field a calculated field
C. Use a Data-Driven Event to populate the date field
D. Pre-set the date field with the desired date in Manage Applications

A

C. Use a Data-Driven Event to populate the date field

34
Q
  1. When an administrator selects to cascade private field permissions for a group, which of the following would be a valid result?

A. Only members of BOTH the selected group and all child groups would have access to the field
B. Only members of the selected group would have access to the field, members of any child groups would NOT have access to the field
C. Members of the selected group would NOT have access to the field members of child groups would have access to the field
D. Members of the selected group and members of any child groups would have access to the field

A

D. Members of the selected group and members of any child groups would have access to the field

35
Q
  1. What determines the content of an email delivered through an Instant Subscription Notification?

A. All fields in the records are included in all Notifications.
B. Only fields that have the Search results checkbox selected can be included in the notification email.
C. The fields specified in the Notification Template will appear, assuming the recipient has access to all included fields.
D. The end user has complete editing rights over the fields that will appear, so it is up to each user to define the included content.

A

C. The fields specified in the Notification Template will appear, assuming the recipient has access to all included fields.

36
Q
  1. When a new questionnaire is created, the administrator can pull questions stored in which of the following RSA Archer applications to be used in the questionnaire?

A. Authoritative Sources
B. Findings
C. Question Library
D. Manage Questionnaires

A

C. Question Library

37
Q
  1. Why might creating role-based groups positively impact the end user experience when working with user/groups lists?

A. It increases the complexity of key tasks
B. It eliminates the need to select relevant users individually
C. It eliminates the ability to synchronize with your LDAP server
D. It simplifies access control by enforcing the one-role, one-group rule

A

D. It simplifies access control by enforcing the one-role, one-group rule

38
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes one goal of Regulatory and Corporate Compliance?

A. To consolidate information from multiple regulatory bodies
B. To provide a means for organizations to establish and monitor metrics
C. To enable internal audit teams to assess audit entities
D. To monitor third party performance

A

A. To consolidate information from multiple regulatory bodies

39
Q
  1. Which Apply Conditional Layout item takes highest priority of all others at the Field Level within Conflict Resolution?

A. Read Only
B. Required
C. Display
D. Use Default Settings

A

C. Display

40
Q
  1. For a user to view a global report, which of the following MUST be true?

A. The global report must be displayed in a Report iView the user has access to.
B. The user must have access to the application on which the global report was built.
C. There can be no private fields in the application on which the global report was built.
D. There can be no Record Permission fields in the application on which the global report was built.

A

B. The user must have access to the application on which the global report was built.

41
Q
  1. When importing data using the Data Import feature, which of the following options is a valid file type?

A. XML
B. HTML
C. Microsoft Word
D. Flat, delimited-values data file

A

D. Flat, delimited-values data file

42
Q
  1. How does an administrator change the order in which sections appear on a record?

A. On the Rules tab of a layout, the Administrator can click the dropdown arrow of a section and select to move it to another place in the record
B. On the General tab of a layout, the Administrator can assign a numeric order to existing sections
C. On the Actions tab of a layout, the Administrator can set sections to rearrange based on the user accessing the record
D. On the Designer tab of a layout, the Administrator can drag and drop a section to another place in the record

A

D. On the Designer tab of a layout, the Administrator can drag and drop a section to another place in the record

43
Q
  1. Which of the following is a key feature of Issues Management?

A. Improved leveraging of assessment results
B. Decentralized issues management process
C. Consolidated and coordinated list of findings and remediation plans
D. Increased reactive overload for business operations

A

C. Consolidated and coordinated list of findings and remediation plans

44
Q
  1. If an Archer user needs to send the content of an Archer record to a person who does not have an Archer user account, which of the following options is their best course of action?

A. Share the Archer user’s login information with the non-Archer user through encrypted Email.
B. Use the Email icon to send the non-Archer user an email that contains the content of the record.
C. Send the non-Archer user the URL shown in the browser address bar when the Archer user has the report open.
D. Export the record to an output file (such as .rtf) and then attach that file to an email to send to the non-Archer user.

A

D. Export the record to an output file (such as .rtf) and then attach that file to an email to send to the non-Archer user.

45
Q
  1. If a group is associated with an access role and the group contains sub-groups, how will the associated access role affect the sub-groups?

A. The sub-groups will be inactivated.
B. The sub-groups will be removed from the group.
C. The sub-groups will be associated with the access role.
D. The sub-groups will not be associated with the access role.

A

D. The sub-groups will not be associated with the access role.

46
Q
  1. Which of the following Layout Objects might you use to create white space in a record?

A. Placeholder
B. Section
C. Custom Object
D. Tab Set

A

A. Placeholder

47
Q
  1. What is the overarching goal of IT Security Risk Management?

A. To catalog IT risks
B. To reduce the risk of today’s security threats, poor security practices, and operational security compliance failures
C. To give the SCA confidence in the organization’s breach response procedures
D. To reduce bottlenecks in threat analysis

A

B. To reduce the risk of today’s security threats, poor security practices, and operational security compliance failures

48
Q
  1. When an administrator selects the “As Needed” option for a Calculated Field, how is the calculation impacted?

A. The field will be calculated only when the record is initially created.
B. The field will be calculated only when there is a scheduled calculation.
C. The field will be calculated every time a user clicks “Save” or when there is a scheduled calculation.
D. The system will analyze the fields referenced by the calculation and determine when the field should be calculated.

A

D. The system will analyze the fields referenced by the calculation and determine when the field should be calculated.

49
Q
  1. On which page can an administrator enable an option that will allow end users to make their own personal dashboards?

A. Manage iViews
B. Manage Dashboards
C. Manage Workspaces
D. Manage Security Parameters

A

C. Manage Workspaces

50
Q
  1. Where can the statistical grouping settings in an advanced search be updated?

A. From the Advanced Search and Search Results pages
B. From the Search Results pages
C. From the Advanced Search page
D. Statistical grouping settings cannot be updated after initial creation

A

D. Statistical grouping settings cannot be updated after initial creation

51
Q
  1. Why is it important to configure Audit Management according to a specific organization’s priorities?

A. The organization’s priorities help drive meaningful action based on the criticality and value to the organization
B. The organization’s priorities should not be folded into the product so they can better evaluate Market drivers
C. Audit Management should not be configured at all - it must be used exactly as installed
D. The organization’s priorities are determined by the Audit Staff, resulting in an effective bottom-up approach to audit

A

A. The organization’s priorities help drive meaningful action based on the criticality and value to the organization

52
Q
  1. Which of the following statements best summarizes what happens when executing an advanced search that filters on the Policy Owner field using the “Current User” filter?

A. The search results will contain only records that include the text “Current User.”
B. The search results will be sorted based on the values included in the Policy Owner field.
C. The search results will contain only records that include the text “Policy Owner” in the Description field.
D. The search results will contain only the records where the user who runs the search is listed in the Policy Owner field.

A

D. The search results will contain only the records where the user who runs the search is listed in the Policy Owner field.

53
Q
  1. Where do you find the latest RSA Archer Platform architecture recommendations?

A. Platform Planning Guide
B. DDE Reconciliation Guide
C. What’s New Guide
D. Platform Administration Guide

A

A. Platform Planning Guide

54
Q
  1. On the Manage Workspaces page, what does selecting the “Configure Display Order” link allow an administrator to do?

A. Alter the layout of iViews as they appear on a dashboard.
B. Alter the layout of iViews as they appear on a workspace.
C. Alter the left to right order of dashboards underneath a specific workspace.
D. Alter the left to right order of workspaces as they appear across the top of the system.

A

D. Alter the left to right order of workspaces as they appear across the top of the system.

55
Q
  1. Which of the following areas of capability are covered by IT Security Risk Management?

A. Establishing security policies and standards, testing Business Continuity Plans
B. Establishing business context for security, detecting and responding to attacks
C. Developing Plans of Action & Milestones, managing Crisis Events
D. Identifying and meeting regulatory obligations, defining and implementing policies and standards

A

B. Establishing business context for security, detecting and responding to attacks

56
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about Workspace and Dashboard components is true?

A. A Dashboard can be accessed by a person who does not have an RSA Archer user account
B. The small windows that display reports and other items are called Dashboards
C. A Workspace can include one or more dashboards; dashboards can include one or more iViews
D. iViews can be displayed directly on a Workspace

A

C. A Workspace can include one or more dashboards; dashboards can include one or more iViews

57
Q
  1. Which solution area aims to decrease the likelihood of business interruptions, regulatory violations, financial losses, and reputational damage as a result of a vendor-related event?

A. Third Party Governance
B. Relationship Management
C. Business Continuity
D. Incident Management

A

A. Third Party Governance

58
Q
  1. Within RSA Archer, data is stored in the following nested sequence of items:

A. Solution > Application > Record > Field
B. Workspace > Dashboard > iView > Report
C. Access role > Group > User Account > User
D. User Account > Workspace > Solution > Application

A

A. Solution > Application > Record > Field

59
Q
  1. When viewing the records returned from an advanced search, what does clicking the “New” icon do?

A. Creates a new record in the application
B. Creates a copy of the first record listed in the search results
C. Opens a new advanced search page and removes any previously applied filters
D. Opens a new advanced search page and returns the search criteria to the default display fields

A

A. Creates a new record in the application

60
Q
  1. For which of the following field types is Trending an available option?

A. IP Address
B. Values List
C. Text Date

A

B. Values List

61
Q
  1. A Business Owner that needs visibility into changes made to Archer records on a daily basis would best be served by:

A. a Subscription Notification sent as a daily digest
B. a Subscription Notification sent as a monthly digest
C. a Subscription Notification sent instantly as records are changed
D. a Manual process where a user runs a report every 30 days and attaches it to an email

A

A. a Subscription Notification sent as a daily digest

62
Q
  1. How might you edit several records from a search results page?

A. Update the Display Options to only include editable fields
B. Update the searching filters to only include editable fields
C. Select Enable Delete from the Options menu
D. Select Enable Inline Edit from the Options menu

A

B. Update the searching filters to only include editable fields

63
Q
  1. Which of the following are the page-level privileges that can be granted to a user/group through an Access Role?

A. Create, Access, Modify, Delete
B. Build, Read, Update, Delete
C. Create, Read, Update, Delete
D. Build, Access, Modify, Delete

A

C. Create, Read, Update, Delete

64
Q
  1. Which of the following will trigger a calculation?

A. When a report is run
B. When a record is opened
C. When a user logs into the system, assuming the user has access to the application housing the calculation
D. When a record is saved, assuming fields affecting the calculation have been edited

A

D. When a record is saved, assuming fields affecting the calculation have been edited

65
Q
  1. How does an administrator configure a field to appear on the layout of a form for end users?

A. The administrator drags the field onto the layout on the Layout page in Manage Applications
B. The administrator assigns the end user a role that grants Read rights to the field
C. The administrator ensures the field’s access is configured to be visible to specific end users
D. The administrator configures an Appearance Theme that includes the field to appear on the layout

A

A. The administrator drags the field onto the layout on the Layout page in Manage Applications

66
Q
  1. What is the default selection for a global report’s access when the report is initially saved?

A. Everyone
B. Global Report Creator
C. Solution Administrator
D. There is no default selection for global reports

A

A. Everyone

67
Q
  1. On the Task-Driven Landing Page, what appears in a user’s Tasks pane?

A. An interface that allows the user to create and assign new tasks for other users
B. The top x-number of open Tasks, sorted by date. The administrator defines the maximum number of records that can appear
C. All Task Management records that have been recently edited, regardless of status
D. Up to 25 open Task Management records appear at the top; Archived (Closed) Task Management records appear in a collapsed section at the bottom

A

D. Up to 25 open Task Management records appear at the top; Archived (Closed) Task Management records appear in a collapsed section at the bottom

68
Q
  1. Beyond federal organizations, Public Sector might be an appropriate solution for which of the following?

A. Only Federal organizations should implement Public Sector
B. Any organization complying with NIST SP 800-53
C. Any organization with vendors
D. Any organization complying with SOX

A

C. Any organization with vendors

69
Q
  1. Which of the following notifications is always required?

A. Subscription Notification for a Leveled Application
B. Generate Notification Action (Data-Driven Event)
C. Subscription Notification for a Standard
D. Application Notification in Digest format

A

B. Generate Notification Action (Data-Driven Event)

70
Q
  1. If an application has 10 fields, and a data import file contains values for 12 fields, what will happen with the remaining 2 columns of data when a Data Import is performed?

A. New fields will automatically be created to accommodate the two remaining columns of data
B. The extra data will be imported into a text file that can later be attached to records in Archer
C. The remaining two columns of data are ignored and not imported into Archer
D. The data in the two extra fields are merged into a single field in Archer

A

C. The remaining two columns of data are ignored and not imported into Archer

Bullseye Preparation (3 decks)

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