BUILDING SYSTEMS

Question 1

Baker House dormitory at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology, designed by Alvar Aalto, represents which type of organizational scheme?

A. radial

B. linear

C. clustered

D. grid

Answer 1

Baker House Dormitory (1948) has a basically linear orga­ nization, even though it bends and curves along its length. The rooms were organized along a single corridor, with sup­ port spaces on the opposite sides of the corridor. Study Note: Be prepared for the occasional historical question about the use of materials or other aspects of architectural design. Questions about notable architects and engineers and their use of materials and construc­ tion methods may also appear on the ARE. The

answer is B.

Question 2

1. Selection of an earth sheltered building design can be are presentation of

A. cost efficiency

B. defensible space

C. sustainability

D. territoriality

Answer 2

Earth-sheltered buildings represent sustainability primarily because they are energy efficient and use low-cost, plentiful materials as part of their exterior covering.

Study Note: Several questions on the ARE may involve somewhat subjective choices about the environmental and human context of material and building systems selection and detailing as they relate to social, cultural, psychological, and environmental issues.

The answer is C.

Question 3

• The honest expression of the nature of brick as a structural material is to utilize it
• A. to support horizontal lintel
• B. in barrel arches
• C. as a fine texture on large, flat walls
• D. in modular compositions

Answer 3

Brick is a compressive material with very little tensile or bending strength, so its basic nature would best suit it for use in compression applications, such as arches. Brick is also modular and creates a fine texture in large areas, but the question specifically refers to its use as a structural material.

The answer is B.

Question 4

• The Crystal Palace in London was the first building to utilize
• A. steel arches
• B. concrete ribbing
• C. large glass panel
• D. prefabricated iron parts

Answer 4

Prefabricated iron parts were first used to erect the Crystal Palace for the Great Exhibition of 1851. The use of standard prefabricated parts made it possible for the building to be dismantled and re-erected in a different location.

Although the Crystal Palace also made extensive use of glass, this was not the first use of large glass panels. Steel was not used in construction until later. Concrete ribbing was not used in the superstructure of the Crystal Palace.

The answer is D.

Question 5

• The concept of combining architecture with ecology to develop alternate urban habitats with greater density while using solar energy was advocated by.
• • A. Frank Lloyd Wright
• B. Kenzo Tange
• C. Le Corbusier
• D. Paolo Soleri

Answer 5

Paolo Soleri developed the concept of arcology, or the fusion of architecture with ecology, to develope ecological human “habitats” as an alternative to existing urban development. These habitats depend on population density to eliminate the need for automobiles in the city and are also located close to undeveloped land that can be used for raising food. One of Soleris distinctive structural forms is the half dome, facing south to capture solar energy. His Arcosanti project in Arizona is a living laboratory of his ideas.

The answer is D.

Question 6

• What variable is used to measure the rate of heat transfer in any given thickness of material?
• • A. conductivity
• B. coefficient of heat transmission
• C. resistance
• D. conductance

Answer 6

Conductivity is the amount of conductance for exactly 1”in of material.

Conductance is the amount of heat loss through a material of any thickness.

Resistance is the amount of time it takes a certain amount of heat to pass through a material.

The coefficient of heat transmission is the overall rate of heat flow.

The answer is D.

Question 7

• When selecting a fire extinguisher cabinet, the most critical design feature is the
• • A. projection distance from the wall
• B. size of the glazing
• C. height of the cabinet enclosure
• D. finish

Answer 7

The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) limits the pro­jection of any construction element to a maximum of 4” in (100) from a wall when the element is located between 27”in (685) and 80” in (2030) above the floor. Because extin­guisher cabinets fall within this range, they must be recessed or semi-recessed to meet the 4” in (100) require­ment.

Glazing is not necessarily required, and if it is used there are no requirements for size. The height of the cabinet itself depends on what is installed within it. The type of finish is not critical. For example, painted stainless steel or bronze can be used. However, local jurisdictions may have require­ments for the color and lettering type used for identifica­tion.

Study Note: In addition to meeting the 4” in (100) pro­jection requirement, the height of the cabinet above the floor must also meet the ADA requirement of 48” in (1220) for unobstructed forward and side reach. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) guidelines require that the maximum height to the top of a mounted cabinet be no more than 5 ft (1525) above the floor.

The answer is A.

Question 8

An illustration of stair dimensions is shown.

According to model codes, which of the indicated stair dimensions is a code violation?

A.handrail height of 36” in (914)

B.headroom height of 6’ ft 8” in (2032)

C.total rise height of 14’ ft (4267)

D.handrail extension of 12” in (305)

Answer 8

Solution

The maximum allowable height between landings or floors (rise height) is 12’ ft (3658). All of the other dimensions are correct. The height from the nosing to the top of a handrail must be between 34” in (864) and 38 in (965).

Study Note: Know all the required code and accessibility dimensions for ramps and stairs.

The answer is C.

Question 9

What is the minimum length of the following toilet compartment at the end of a row of stalls, according to ICC/ANSI 117.1 2003? The water closet is floor mounted.

A 90 in (2285)

B. 92 in (2335)

C. 95 in (2415)

D. 96 in (2440)

Answer 9

Section 604.8.2 of ICOANSI 117.1-2003 states that the minimum clear floor space for a floor-mounted water closet is 60 in (1525) wide by 59 in (1500) long. The minimum space permitted at the door is 36 in (915).

In U.S. units:

59 in + 36 in = 95 in

In SI units:

1500 mm + 915 mm = 2415 mm

The answer is C.

Question 10

According to model codes, the minimum width of an office exit corridor serving an occupant load of 55 is

A. 36 in (914)

B. 42 in (1067)

C. 44 in (1118)

D. 48 in (1219)

Answer 10

Solution

Model codes prescribe a minimum corridor width of 44 in (1118), with various exceptions. Corridors in residential occupancies or those serving an occupant load of 50 or less may be 36 in (914) wide. Other occupancies require wider corridors, but B occupancies (offices) require the 44 in (1118) width.

Study Note: Model codes also require that the minimum width of an exit corridor be calculated by multiplying the occupant load by a factor given in the codes, which varies depending on the occupancy, the interior area of the building, and whether the building is sprinklered. Both requirements must be checked, and the larger of the two should be used. If this calculation results in a number larger than other minimum requirements given in the code (such as for corridors), then the larger dimension must be used.

The answer is C.

Question 11

What agency sets requirements for safety glazing in buildings .

A. American Society for Testing and Material

B. Consumer Product Safety Commission

C. Glass Association of North America

D. International Code Council

Answer 11

Solution

The Consumer Product Safety Commission originally set requirements for safety glazing, which are codified in the Code of Federal Regulations, CPSC 16 CFR 1201.

The answer is B.

Question 12

According to model codes, interior finish requirements for woodwork are most stringent for:

A. recessed shelving

B. cornice molding

C. built-in furniture

D. wainscoting

Answer 12

Solution

Model building codes regulate wainscoting as an interior finish material subject to a Class I, II, or III (A, B, or C) flame-spread rating, depending on occupancy, location in the building, and presence or absence of sprinklers. Since wainscoting could be restricted to a Class I (or A) flame­ spread rating, it is the most stringently regulated item listed.

Generally, codes do not regulate wood when it is used in furniture, shelving, molding, handrails, or other trim. Some codes only limit the flammability of wood trim to a Class C flame spread and limit the amount of trim to no more than 10% of the aggregate wall or ceiling area in which it is located.

The answer is D.

Question 13

For accessible doors, what is the MINIMUM dimen­sion, in inches (millimeters), of the distance x as indicated in the drawing?

Answer 13

For a front approach to an in-swinging door (pull side), there must be a minimum of 18 in (445) on the latch side of the door. For an out-swinging door (push side), 12 in

(305) are required on the latch side of the door.
* Study Note:* Know some of the fundamental dimensions required for accessibility, such as turnaround area, toilet room dimensions, maneuvering clearances at doors, and reach heights.

The answer is 18 in (445).

Question 14

A fire-rated gypsum board partition must always con­sist of.

A. Type X gypsum board

B. full-height construction

C. attachment according to testing laboratory standards

D. all of the above

Answer 14

Solution

Fire-rated partltlons must be constructed according to tested and approved methods that include using Type X gypsum board, the method of attachment to the framing, how the joints are finished, the type and size of studs, and other details. In addition, the fire separation must extend from the slab to the rated slab above, not just to a sus­ pended, finish ceiling.

The answer is D.

Question 15

What is the building code requirement for pairs of exit doors with astragals?

A. weather stripping

B. door stop

C. coordinator

D. flush bolts

Answer 15

Solution

According to the 2006 International Building Code, Table 715.5.3, no glazing is permitted in a 1h-hour rated door in an exterior wall.

All glazing in fire-rated doors must be either 1/4” in (6.35) wire glass or ceramic glazing. This problem addresses only wire glass. A l1h-hour rated door that is not in an exterior

wall is permitted to have 100” in2 (645 cm2) of glazing. A

3/4-hour rated door may have 1296” in2 (8362 cm2) of glaz­ ing per leaf. The amount of glazing is not limited in a 20- minute rated door.

Ceramic glazing must comply with NFPA 80.

The answer is D.

Question 16

How much fire protection-rated glazing (wire glass) is permitted in a 11/2-hour rated door in an exterior wall?

A. 100 in2 (645 cm2)

B. 1296 in2 (8362 cm2)

C. The amount of glazing is not limited.

D. No glazing is permitted.

Answer 16

Solution

According to the 2006 International Building Code, Table 715.5.3, no glazing is permitted in a l 1h-hour rated door in an exterior wall.

All glazing in fire-rated doors must be either 1/4 in (6.35) wire glass or ceramic glazing. This problem addresses only wire glass. A 1h-hour rated door that is not in an exterior

wall is permitted to have 100 in2 (645 cm2) of glazing. A

3/4-hour rated door may have 1296 in2 (8362 cm2) of glaz­ ing per leaf. The amount of glazing is not limited in a 20- minute rated door.

Ceramic glazing must comply with NFPA 80.

The answer is D.

Question 17

Which of the following is NOT a requirement of

NFPA 10: Standard for Portable Fire Extinguishers?

A. Fire extinguisher cabinets must have a vision panel or be clearly marked with a sign.

B. Fire extinguishers must be tested regularly and have an approved label.

C. Fire extinguisher cabinets may not protrude into the hallway more than 4 in (102).

D. When fire extinguishers are required, no occu­pant may be more than 75 ft (22.9 m) from a fire extinguisher.

Answer 17

• Solution*
• NFPA 10: Standard for Portable Fire Extinguishers* is refer­enced in many codes to provide additional requirements for this type of fire-suppression system. When required, extin­guishers must be clearly marked and visible; located no more than 75 ft (22.9 m) from each building occupant; properly maintained, tested, and labeled; and readily acces­sible in case of an emergency.

A fire extinguisher cabinet must not protrude more than 4” in (102) into the hallway, but this is a requirement of ADAAG, not NFPA.

The answer is C.

Question 18

A grocery store parking lot has 100 parking spaces. According to ADAAG, at least accessible spaces must be provided. (Fill in the blank.)

Answer 18

Solution

According to ADAAG, the ratio of accessible parking spaces to total parking spaces is 1:25 up to 200 spaces, with an additional accessible space for each additional 100 parking spaces up to 500. Above 500 spaces, accessible spaces are determined as a percentage of the total parking spaces pro­vided.

Local zoning ordinances or codes may differ from ADAAG’s recommendations, so all applicable guidelines should be consulted.

The answer is 4.

Question 19

What does it mean when a building material is non­ combustible?

A. It will not ignite and bum when subjected to fire.

B. It will withstand flame impingement.

C. It will not readily spread fire once ignited.

D. It has a minimum 1-hour fire rating.

Answer 19

A noncombustible building material will not ignite and burm when subjected to fire.

The answer is A.

Question 20

Restrictions on surface finishes in all model codes are based primarily on

A. occupancy and construction type

B. occupant load and location in the building

C. location in the building and occupancy

D. occupancy group and sprinklering

Answer 20

Solution

The primary determinants as shown in Table 29.3 (IBC Table 803.5) are the occupancy group and the location in the building according to exiting requirements. Having a building with a sprinkler system only modifies the basic requirements and allows the required flame-spread rating to be dropped one class in some instances.

The answer is C.

Question 21

Construction type refers to the

A. major materials used to construct a building

B. fire-resistance ratings of various building components

C. maximum area and height of a building

D. use of a building and fire-protection methods used

Answer 21

Solution

The hourly ratings of major building components, such as the structural frame, bearing walls, exterior walls, floor structure, and roof structure, together determine the con­ struction type according to Tables 601 (Table 29.2) and 602 in the IBC.

The answer is B.

Question 22

1. What is the minimum clear width for an accessible door?

A. 30 in (760)

B. 32 in (815)

C. 34 in (865)

D. 36 in (915)

Answer 22

The minimum clear width for an accessible door is 32 in (815).

The answer is D.

Question 23

In surveying an existing corridor to see if it met acces­sibility guidelines, an architect discovers the following two items that are questionable.

A> small fire-hose cabinet extending 5 in (127) from the wall

B> 1/4 in (6) high threshold below a pair of normally open doors.

Which items must be modified to make the corridor bar­rier-free?

A. neither (a) nor (b)

B. (a) but not (b)

C. (b) but not (a)

D. both (a) and (b)

Answer 23

Solution

No objects greater than 4 in (100) can protrude into an accessible route if the lower edge of the object is greater than 27 in (685) above the floor. It is reasonable to assume that a small fire-hose cabinet would have its lower edge higher than this distance, so it would be limited to a maxi­mum 4” in protrusion. Therefore, item (a) would have to be modified. Any change in level of 1/4 in (6) or less does not require any edge treatment, so item (b) would not have to be modified.

The answer is B.

Question 24

A soils report has indicated that the water table is 5 ft 0 in (1500) above the basement level of a planned three­ story building. What type of construction technique will most likely be required?

A. dampproofing

B. surcharging

C. waterproofing

D. waterstopping

Answer 24

Waterproofing is the control of water and moisture that is subject to hydrostatic pressure. It can refer to the applica­tion of watertight membranes, waterstops, or bentonite panels when building below the water table.

Dampproofing is the control of water and moisture when hydrostatic pressure is not present.

Surcharging is the pre­ loading of the ground with fill material to cause consolida­tion and settlement of the underlying soil. Surcharging is used to increase the bearing capacity of soil or to decrease possible settlement, or both.

A waterstop is a preformed piece of material used to seal construction joints. Although waterstops would be used in this situation, they are a sub­set of the larger requirement to waterproof the entire base­ ment slab and a portion of the basement walls.

The answer is C.

Question 25

A building with a basement is being designed in a wet climate. Which of the following water-control materials and/or methods should the architect recommend for the foundation and basement walls?

I cementitious coatings

II geotextiles

III French drains

IV sloping soil away from the building

A. II and III only

B. III and IV only

C. I, II, and IV only

D. II, III, and IV only

Answer 25

Solution

Geotextiles, French drains, and sloping soil away from the building would all be appropriate means of draining water from a building in a wet climate or where groundwater was present.

Item I is incorrect because cementitious coatings are only used for dampproofing, and if they were used the other three choices would also have to be used.

Study Note: Understand the various types of dampproof­ing and waterproofing. For dampproofing these include admixtures for concrete, bituminous coatings, cementi­tious coatings, membranes, and plastics for dampproof­ing. For waterproofing these include elastomeric membranes, liquid-applied membranes, and bentonite panels.

The answer is D.

Question 26

26. A deep excavation for a high-rise building in an urban area would require

A. battered walls

B. needle beams

C. steel sheeting

D. tiebacks

Answer 26

Solution

A deep excavation would require the use of vertical soldier beams supporting horizontal timber breast boards or crib­ bing. The vertical soldier beams must be anchored into the adjacent earth with grouted tieback rods. Even steel sheet­ ing would require tiebacks for support.

A battered wall is simply a type of retaining wall using a material, such as stones or brick, slightly angled to support the adjacent earth. It is not appropriate for a deep excava­ tion wall in an urban area where space is limited. Needle beams are used to temporarily support a structure when its foundation is repaired or deepened. Steel sheeting requires the use of rakers that extend into the excavation site, limit­ ing the depth of the excavation and interfering with con­ struction activities in the excavated area.

Study Note: Know the basic terminology of shoring and excavation.

The answer is D.

Question 27

27. A soils report indicates that bentonite is present below the site of a proposed two-story manufacturing building. What type of foundation system should be used?

A. drilled piers with grade beams

B. raft foundation

C. caissons with pile caps

D. extended spread footings

Answer 27

• Solution*
• Bentonite* is an expansive type of clay that can push founda­tions and floor slabs upward when it gets wet. To prevent this, drilled piers are used to support the building weight on bedrock or stable soil below the bentonite. Grade beams span continuously between the piers and transmit building loads from the superstructure to the piers. Voids are left below the grade beams to allow the bentonite to expand without transmitting uplift forces.

A raft foundation is used to distribute a building load over a large area of low-bearing capacity soil. Caissons with pile caps are used to distribute a load from one column to two or more caissons or piers and would only be appropriate if there was a void below the pile cap. Spread footings placed on bentonite would be subject to the uplift of the swelling clay soil and would not be appropriate.

The answer is A.

Question 28

Which of the following pedestrian walk materials provides the best positive grade-level drainage away from a building?

A. asphaltic concrete

B. brick pavers

C. cobblestones

D. concrete

Answer 28

Solution

A safe pedestrian walk should not have a slope exceeding ¼ in/ft (20 mm/m) perpendicular to the direction of travel. This allows for drainage without creating a danger­ous cross slope. Of the materials listed, concrete could be finished to provide a continuous, uniform slope for drainage in conjunction with a smooth walking surface.

Asphalt could be used, but it is more difficult to smooth uniformly at such a low slope. Minor dips and surface irreg­ularities in the asphalt might cause ponding of water against or toward the building. Both brick pavers and cobblestone would allow water to seep into the joints near the building.

The answer is D.

Question 29

For a large building being planned with a two-level basement used for meeting rooms, which of these water­ related soil problems would be the most important to solve?

A. uplift pressure on the lowest slab

B. moisture penetration caused by hydrostatic pressure

C. deterioration of foundation insulation

D. reduced load-carrying capacity of the soil

Answer 29

Solution

All of the answer choices listed would need to be addressed, but because the question asks which is most important, a judgment call is required. Choice D is unlikely because a large building would probably utilize piers or caissons for the foundation, so the load-carrying capacity of the soil would not be as critical. Foundation insulation could be easily selected to avoid deterioration problems, so choice C is an unlikely answer. Of the two remaining answers, hydrostatic pressure could cause the most problems, so this is the primary problem to be solved.

The answer is B.

Question 30

If a soil is analyzed as being primarily silty, how should it be characterized?

A. very fine material of organic matter

B. rigid particles with moderately high bearing capacity

C. particles with some cohesion and plasticity in their behavior

D. smaller particles with occasional plastic behav­ior

Answer 30

Solution

Choice A describes organic material, choice B describes gravels, and choice C describes clays.

The answer is D.

Question 31

In the partial plan of a concrete basement shown, what would be the best way to improve the economy of the concrete formwork?

A. Make the column square.

B. Separate the pilaster at A2 from the wall.

C. Form the pilaster at Al with a diagonal.

D. Make the wall along grid line 1a uniform thick­ ness.

Answer 31

Solution

Forming corners in concrete always adds to the cost, so making the wall a uniform thickness would be most eco­nomical even though more concrete would be required. Making the column square would decrease the amount of concrete but would still require the same amount of form­ ing. Separating the pilaster from the wall would actually increase the cost of formwork. Forming the pilaster with a diagonal would not be appropriate because of the structural problems caused by decreasing the column area and placing reinforcement.

The answer is D.

Question 32

In the drawing shown, what is the purpose of the gravel?

A. to reduce hydrostatic pressure

B. to keep the soil from direct contact with the concrete

C. to provide a firm base for concrete bearing

D. to hold the membrane in place and protect it

Answer 32

Solution

The gravel provides open spaces for any water under hydro­static pressure to lose its pressure and drip to drains near the footing. Although it does this by preventing direct con­tact of the soil with the wall, preventing contact is not the sole purpose.

The answer is A.

Question 33

Which of the following building areas is excluded from a calculation of the architectural area of a building?

A. a mechanical penthouse with 6 ft (1.8 m) head- room

B. an open courtyard

C. a duct shaft

D. a porch

Answer 33

Solution

The architectural area of a building is the sum of the areas of all of the floors. However, certain spaces within the building are treated differently from others for the purposes of this calculation. Some are excluded entirely, such as courtyards and other open areas like fire escapes and exterior stairs. Others, such as rooms with less than 6 ft (1.8 m) of headroom and porches, are multiplied by 0.5.

A full description of the methods of calculating the areas of spaces is available in the Architect’s Handbook of Professional Practice, and a summary can be found in Architectural Graphic Standards.

The answer is B.

Question 34

Which of the following factors accounts for the highest cost of a lighting system overtime?

A. lamps

B. luminaires

C. installation

D. operation

Answer 34

Solution

Over the life cycle of a lighting system, the continuing oper­ating cost for electricity is the single largest expense. For non-residential applications, maintenance (such as the replacement of lamps and cleaning of luminaires) is the sec­ond greatest expense.

The answer is D.

Question 35

Which of the following installed suspended ceiling systems is the least expensive?

A. concealed spline set in a grid with 12 in by 12 in (300 by 300) mineral-fiber tiles

B. gypsum wallboard attached to furring channels attached to 11” in (38) cold-rolled channels

C. metal pan with acoustic pads set in 2 ft by 2 ft (600 by 600) exposed grids

D. mineral board tiles set in 2 ft by 4 ft (600 by 1200) exposed grids

Answer 35

Solution

Of the choices listed, a standard 2 ft by 4 ft (600 by 1200) exposed grid with mineral fiber ceiling tile is the least expensive. It is followed, in increasing order of cost, by gyp­ sum wallboard, concealed spline mineral fiber, and metal pan with acoustic pads.

Study Note: Problems related to material costs and con­struction methods generally ask one of two questions: “Which is the least expensive?” or “Which is the most expensive?” Although you do not need to know specific costs, you should have a general idea of the relative costs of similar materials and systems.

The answer is D.

Question 36

Which of the following wood flooring types has the lowest material cost?

A. maple strip over sleepers

B. oak strip, no. 1 common

C. oak plank

D. white oak parquet

Answer 36

Solution

Oak strip flooring is one of the least expensive wood floor­ing types. White oak parquet and oak plank are the most expensive.

The answer is B.

Question 37

1. Which of the following door frame materials would provide the greatest durability at the lowest possible cost?

A. aluminum

B. hollow metal

C. stainless steel

D. wood (e.g., oak)

Answer 37

Solution

A wood frame would be the least expensive option but would not provide the same durability as a metal door frame. Of the metal door frames listed, standard hollow metal (steel) would be the least expensive.

Study Note: Although most questions regarding costs of materials and methods are objective, some may require a judgment call or the setting of priorities.

The answer is B.

Question 38

1. Which of the following wall coverings has the highest material cost?

A. acrylic glazed coating

B. cork tile

C. commercial-grade grass cloth

D. medium-weight vinyl wallcovering

Answer 38

Solution

Cork tile is the most expensive material listed. Acrylic glazed coatings have the lowest cost of those listed, followed by medium-weight vinyl wall covering and grass cloth.

The answer is B.

Question 39

Which of these statements about reinforcing bar (rebar) sizes is FALSE?

A. American and metric sizes are now based on a unitless number.

B. American bar numbers equal the number of eighths of an inch across the diameter.

C. Soft metric numbers approximately equal the diameter in millimeters.

D. Hard metric numbers are based on the cross­ sectional area in square millimeters.

Answer 39

Solution

The designation system for American standard sizes of rebar is based on the number of eighths of an inch in the nomi­nal diameter of a bar, up to 1in.The soft metric sizes are based on the approximate number of millimeters in the nominal diameter. For example, a no. 5 bar in the American designation is 5/s in, which in soft metric is 15.9 mm or a no. 16 bar. In hard metric, the actual size is different, and the numbering system is based on round numbers of the cross-sectional area, using the letter “M” as a suffix. For example, the nearest size to an Ameri­ can no. 5 bar is a 15M with an area of 200 mm2 .

The answer is A.

Question 40

One nondestructive test used to measure the strength of concrete after it has hardened in its final form is the

A. core cylinder test

B. cylinder test

C. impact hammer test

D. Kelly ball test

Answer 40

Solution

The impact hammer test involves snapping a spring-loaded plunger against a concrete surface and measuring the amount of rebound. The amount of rebound gives an approximate reading of concrete strength.

A cylinder test requires that a sample be taken at the time the concrete is poured, before it has hardened. A core cylin­der test can give the strength of hardened concrete, but the test is destructive to the concrete, and the sample needs to be tested in a laboratory. Both the core cylinder test and the Kelly ball test require the use of fresh concrete.

Study Note: Questions on the various types of concrete tests are common on the ARE. Review tests: slump test, cylinder test, core cylinder test, Kelly ball test, K-slump test, and impact hammer test.

There are also tests that measure the moisture in concrete. These tests are meant for slabs that are to receive moisture­ sensitive finishes. They include the following.

• polyethylene sheet test: This test uses a plastic sheet taped tightly to a concrete floor. After 16 hours the underside of the plastic is inspected for moisture.
• electrical resistance test:* This test determines moisture by measuring the electrical conductivity of the con­ crete between the meter probes.
• quantitative calcium chloride test: This test uses a quan­ tity of calcium chloride sealed under a plastic dome placed on the concrete for 60 to 72 hours. The amount of moisture the chloride absorbs is mathe­ matically converted to a moisture emission expressed in pounds per 1000 ft2 per 24 hour period (grams per mm2 per 24 hour period).
• hygrometer test or relative humidity test: This test deter­ mines moisture emission by measuring the relative humidity of the atmosphere confined adjacent to the concrete floor.

The answer is C.

Question 41

If too much water is placed in a concrete mix, which of the following problems might develop?

A. laitance

B. efflorescence

C. hydration

D. segregation

Answer 41

Solution

• Laitance* is a surface deposit of low-strength material con­taining cement and fine aggregates (sand) brought to the surface of concrete. It is caused by having too much water in the concrete mix, which results in water bleeding to the top.
• Efflorescence* is a white, crystalline deposit of water-soluble salts on the surface of masonry and sometimes concrete. It is caused when water seeps into the masonry and dissolves soluble salts, which are brought to the surface. When the water evaporates, the salts are left on the surface. Hydration is simply the chemical process of the hardening of concrete when water mixes with cement. Segregation is the separation of the constituent parts of the concrete when the concrete is either dropped too far or moved excessively in the horizon­ tal direction while it is being placed.

The answer is A.

Question 42

A section of a precast concrete panel attached to a cast-in-place concrete structure is shown.

Which connection point should allow for both vertical and lateral movement?

A. point A

B. point B

C. point C

D. point D

Answer 42

Solution

A precast panel should have only two points of bearing on the structure. These are indicated at point C. One point should be a rigid connection and the other should provide for lateral movement. The remaining points of connection to the structure, or tiebacks as they are often called, should allow for both vertical and lateral movement of the panel due to differential movement of the structure and panel, and due to expansion and contraction caused by tempera­ ture differences.

The answer is B.

Question 43

Which of the concrete joints shown connects two successive pours of concrete?

Answer 43

Solution

Illustration B shows a construction joint, which would be used to physically connect a new pour of concrete to a pre­ viously poured section. In most cases the two sections are connected with a keyed joint. Reinforcing bars across the joint are also commonly used.

The drawing in option A shows a control joint. Option C shows an isolation joint, which can be used for successive pours of concrete but does not connect the two pairs. Option D shows an expansion joint used to allow two sec­ tions of a building to move independently.

The answer is B.

Question 44

1. Expansion joints in concrete walks should be located at a maximum spacing of

A. 5 ft

B. 10 ft

C. 20 ft

D. 25 ft

Answer 44

Solution

Control joints placed where separate sections of concrete are poured and in walks are placed 5 ft (1500) apart. Expansion joints with a joint filler are placed a maximum of 20 ft (6100) apart.

The answer is C.

Question 45

When the architect is on the job observing concrete placement, what is most likely to be of LEAST concern?

A. height of a bottom-dump bucket above the forms as the concrete is being placed

B. type of vibrator being used

C. location of the rebar in relation to the forms

D. method of support of the forms

Answer 45

Solution

The height of the dump bucket is important because drop­ ping concrete too far causes segregation, which should not be allowed. The location of rebar is important because of the minimum coverages required to protect the steel from moisture. The method of form support is important because unstable forms can affect the final appearance and size of the concrete. They can also be a safety hazard, but this is the contractor’s responsibility.

The answer is B.

Question 46

What cement would be used in slip form construc­ tion?

A. Type I

B. Type II

C. Type III

D. Type IV

Answer 46

Solution

Type IIIcement is high-early-strength-the type needed for rapid slip form construction. Type I is normal cement. Type II is low heat and sulfate resistant, and Type IV is slow set­ ting and low heat for massive structures.

The answer is C.

Question 47

What is used to minimize comer chipping of con­crete?

A. chamfer strips

B. hardeners

C. rustication strips

D. walers

Answer 47

Solution

A chamfer strip is a small, triangular piece of material placed in the comers for forms to prevent sharp 90° comers, which are difficult to cast and have a tendency to break off during use or when the forms are removed.

The answer is A.

Question 48

What is the primary purpose of the voids in a cored slab?

A. to allow electrical services to be concealed in the slab

B. to make a more efficient load-carrying member

C. to make erection easier

D. to minimize weight

Answer 48

Solution

As with any beam, the deeper the member, the more effi­cient the beam. Using a cored slab rather than a solid slab allows the depth to be increased without increasing the weight in the center of the beam where it is not needed. Choices A and D are partially correct, but choice B is the best choice.

The answer is B.

Question 49

Which of the vertical joints shown would be appro­ priate for a concrete basement wall?

Answer 49

Solution

Choice A shows a strong keyed joint with a waterstop to prevent water penetration. The other selections show joints that are weak structurally or that do not provide for ade­ quate waterproofing.

The answer is A.

Question 50

At what temperature do workers need to take steps to protect concrete when cold weather is predicted?

A. 0°F (218°C)

B. 32°F (0°C)

C. 40°F (4°C)

D. 45°F (78°C)

Answer 50

Solution

Construction operations generally discontinue or switch from regular activity to cold-weather mode at 40°F (4°C). A concrete pour can proceed at temperatures below 40°F (4°C). However, the water and sand must be heated to ensure that none of the constituents have frozen, and the concrete must be heated for at least seven days after place­ment, during the early curing stage.

Other temperature-sensitive materials, such as sealants, should not be applied when the mercury dips below 40°F (4°C).

The answer is C.

Question 51

When specifying small batches of concrete, what does a 1:2:5 mix mean?

A. 1part cement, 2 parts sand, and 5 parts coarse aggregate

B. 1part coarse aggregate, 2 parts sand, and 5 parts cement

C. 1part water, 2 parts cement, and 5 parts aggre­ gate

D. 1part cement, 2 parts water, and 5 parts aggre­ gate

Answer 51

Solution

Concrete mixes specified by volume follow the standard nomenclature of three values expressed in proportion to one another. The first number expresses the proportion of cement; the middle number expresses the proportion of fine aggregate (sand); and the last number expresses the pro­ portion of coarse aggregate (gravel). The amount of water to be added to the mix is not included in the mix ratio.

The answer is A.

Question 52

1. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A. Type III cement (high-early-strength) is often used for precast concrete members.

B. Precast concrete members can be a maximum of 14 ft (4.3 m) wide.

C. Concrete used in precast members is typically 3000 psi (20,684 kPa).

D. Conditions are more controlled during the pro­ duction of precast concrete members than they would be for similar structural systems built in the field.

Answer 52

Solution

Concrete used in precast members is generally a higher­ strength mix than the 3000 psi concrete typically used for site cast applications.

Type III (high-early-strength) cement and steam curing allows prestress plants to get finished beams and tees out of the beds and into the yard more quickly so that production can continue. They are then warehoused in the yard until they have passed 28-day cylinder testing.

Precast members are generally transported over the high­ way, so their width is limited to the width of a travel lane.

In general, conditions can be better controlled during the production of precast concrete than they can in the field. Forms can be used repeatedly, and curing can take place under shelter and in controlled conditions, making precast concrete products both economical and consistent.

The answer is C.

Question 53

Which type of masonry cement mortar has the high­ est compressive strength?

A. Type M

B. Type N

C. Type 0

D. Type S

Answer 53

Solution

Type M mortar has a minimum average 28-day compressive strength of 2500 psi (17.2 MPa). Type 0 has the lowest compressive strength, 350 psi (2.4 MPa).

Study Note: For exterior walls and interior walls under normal loads, Type N mortar is commonly used. Type S mortar is used for heavier loading on interior walls and

for exterior walls at or below grade, such as foundation walls, retaining walls, pavements, walks, and patios. When high-strength mortar is required for heavy loads or for cases where the mortar will be exposed to severe, saturated freezing, Type S or M mortar is used. Type 0 mortar is used only for light loads and where freezing is not expected.

The answer is A.

Question 54

Which of the following orientations is used in a sol­ dier course of brick? (Shading sides face forward.)

Answer 54

Solution

Option C is used in a soldier course of brick.

Option A is used in a stretcher course of brick. Option B is used in a header course. Option D is used in a sailor course.

• Study Note:* Know the various types of brick courses, bonding patterns, and mortar joints, especially the mor­ tar joints that give maximum protection against weather­ ing and water penetration (concave).
• Terms to Know*
• collar* joint: the vertical joint between masonry withes

The answer is C.

Question 55

In masonry walls, water is prevented from seeping back into the wall through capillary action by using

A. base flashing

B. coping

C. drips

D. weep holes

Answer 55

• Solution*
• Drips* are extensions of through-wall flashing or projections below masonry units that extend beyond the primary plane of the wall. The purpose of a drip is to force water that is draining off flashing or a sill to fall down and away from the wall rather than to adhere to the wall and possibly flow back into the wall through capillary action or cracks below the flashing.

The question asks for the solution that will prevent water from seeping back into the wall, so it can be assumed that the water is already outside, precluding choices A and D. Choice B is incorrect because coping simply covers a para­ pet and may include drips.

Study Note: Study the basic components of masonry construction, including multi-wythe construction, flash­ ing, reinforcing, opening details, and connections to backup walls or the superstructure. Also know the meth­ ods of repairing masonry walls and grout for renova­tions.

The answer is C.

Question 56

Under wind pressures of 20 psf (958 Pa), the maxi­ mum area allowed for individual exterior wall panels using standard unit glass block is ft2 (m2). (Fill in the blank.)

Answer 56

Solution

A standard unit glass block is hollow and has a specified thickness of 3 7/s in (98). Model codes limit the areas of the individual exterior wall panels using this glass block to 144 ft2 (13.4 m2 Solid unit glass block is limited to 100 ft2 (9.3 m2) for both interior and exterior walls. Interior standard unit glass block walls are limited to 250 ft2 (23.2 m2 .

The answer is 144 ft2 (13.4 m2).

Question 57

According to codes, horizontal masonry reinforce­ ment is required every

A. 8.0 in (200)

B. 16 in (400)

C. 24 in (600)

D. 32 in (800)

Answer 57

Solution

Horizontal reinforcement is required in both brick and con­ crete masonry walls a minimum of every 16 in (400). The reinforcing may be a continuous truss or ladder type laid in the mortar joints.

The answer is B.

Question 58

1. Which mortar type has the highest compressive strength?

A. M

B. N

C. 0

D. S

Answer 58

Type M masonry has a compressive strength of 2500 psi (17 237 kPa). Types S and N have strengths of 1800 psi (12 411 kPa) and 750 psi (5171 kPa), respectively, and Type 0 is the lowest with a compressive strength of 350 psi (2413 kPa).

The answer is A.

Question 59

What type of brick would most likely be specified for an eastern exposure in New Hampshire?

A. NW

B. FBX

C. MW

D. SW

Answer 59

Solution

SW stands for severe weathering and would be the type that should be specified for the northeastern United States. NW is normal weathering, and MW is moderate weathering. FBX refers to the finish appearance.

The answer is D.

Question 60

Which area in the masonry wall assembly shown would be most susceptible to water penetration?

Answer 60

Solution

A raked joint like that shown in the masonry wall above the ledge is not a good one to use because water running down the wall can seep into the joint by capillary action. The details at points B and C are correctly executed. The flash­ ing and sealant at B would keep water out, and the drip at point C would prevent water from running under the ledge and into the masonry joint at D.

The answer is A.

Question 61

Three courses of a bull stretcher using a standard brick and standard mortar joints equal

A. 8 in (200)

B. 12 in (300)

C. 15 in (375)

D. 18 in (450)

Answer 61

Solution

A bull stretcher is a brick laid on its face so that the width of the brick is visible. With a width of 35/s in (90) and a mor­ tar joint of 3/s in (10), three courses would be 12 in (300). Three standard stretcher courses equal 8 in (200).

The answer is B.

Question 62

If cracking occurred along the joints of a brick wall in a generally diagonal direction from a window corner up to the top of the wall, which of the following would most likely be the cause?

A. lack of vertical control joints

B. horizontal reinforcement placed too far apart

C. poor grouting of the cavity

D. inadequate mortar

Answer 62

Solution

Vertical cracking is usually an indication that the brick wall is not able to move laterally, which is a condition caused by lack of vertical expansion joints.

The answer is A.

Question 63

What is the most important fire-resistance property of a CMU partition?

A. overall width

B. density

C. joint reinforcement

D. equivalent thickness

Answer 63

Solution

Concrete masonry partitions are usually hollow, so the actual thickness of the solid material, not the actual overall width, is used to rate the fire resistance of the unit.

The answer is D.

Question 64

What is a requirement for a door opening in a masonry partition?

A. bond beam

B. arch action

C. weep holes

D. flashing

Answer 64

Solution

A bond beam is a masonry unit made to accommodate rein­ forcing and grout to span openings in masonry walls. These are often used in place of steel lintels.

The answer is A.

Question 65

Which of the following statements is true?

A. Spalling occurs when water-soluble salts in masonry units or mortar leach out of the brick.

B. Tuck pointing is used to finish mortar joints during construction of a new brick wall.

C. Flashing in a masonry wall should be termi­ nated just before the face of the brick for best appearance.

D. A concealed flashing in a masonry wall with a concrete backup should terminate in a reglet.

Answer 65

• Solution*
• Reglets* are horizontal grooves cast into concrete that allow a piece of flashing to be slipped inside and then carried across the airspace and through the brick for proper drainage and moisture control.
• Efflorescence* (not spalling) occurs when salts leach out of a masonry assembly. This produces a white powdery sub­ stance that stains the face of the brick.
• Tuck pointing* is a process used to repair failing mortar joints. It involves removing the deteriorated mortar to a certain depth and inserting new, compatible mortar into the space, then striking it with a new, water-resistant edge treatment.

Flashing should always be extended at least 3/4 in (19) beyond the face of the brick and turned down at a 45° angle for proper drainage. If the flashing is terminated before the face of the brick, the moisture will seep into the brick and mortar and can cause damage. The 45° bend provides a drip edge that leads the moisture away from the face of the brick.

The answer is D

Question 66

Identify the following brick bond

A. common bond

B. running bond

C. English bond

D. Flemish bond

Answer 66

Solution

The brick bond shown is a common bond. It consists of a header course, five (or more) courses of running bond, and another header course. The pattern then repeats for the height of the wall. Traditionally, in a double-wythe brick wall, the header course “locked” the two wythes together.

The answer is A.

Question 67

What is the designation for the most commonly used structural steel for beams?

A. A36

B. Al53

C. A441

D. A501

Answer 67

A36 steel refers to the American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM) Standard A36/A36M, Standard Specifica­ tion for Carbon Structural Steel. Steel meeting this standard has a minimum yield point of 36,000 psi (250 MPa). A36 is one of the commonly used steels for riveted, bolted, and welded construction of bridges and buildings and for gen­eral structural purposes.

Al53 is the standard for hot-dip zinc coating (hot-dip) on iron and steel hardware. A44 l steel is a high-strength struc­ tural steel used for welded construction. A501 is the desig­ nation for hot-formed welded and seamless carbon steel structural tubing.

The answer is A.

Question 68

1. Which of the following is NOT a standard designa­ tion for open-web steel joists?

A. DLH

B. K

C. LH

D. ML

Answer 68

Solution

DLH is the designation for deep long-span joists. K is the designation for standard open-web joists, and LH is the des­ ignation for long-span joists.

• Study Note:* The depths in the K series range from 8 in
  (200) to 30” in (750) and increase in 2” in (50) incre­ments. The depths in the LH and DLH series range from 18” in (460) to 96” in (2440) and increase in 4” in (100) increments.

The answer is D.

Question 69

The stringers of prefabricated steel utility stairs are normally constructed of

A. angle iron

B. channel sections

C. steel plate

D. tube sections

Answer 69

Solution

Although any of the listed forms can be used, the stringers are normally constructed of steel channel sections with the flanges turned away from the stair. The steel treads and ris­ ers are welded to the webs of the sections.

Study Note: Understand the basic construction of various miscellaneous metal fabrications such as steel stairs, spi­ ral stairs, ladders, handrails, and railings.

The answer is B.

Question 70

In the detail shown, the purpose of the item labeled X is to

A. allow for vertical movement

B. collect condensation

C. provide a fire rating

D. create a sound seal

Answer 70

Solution

The detail shows a building separation joint at the floor line. Fire protection is provided by one or more layers of fire­ resistive material draped below the finish cover plate, which is directly above it.

The answer is C.

Question 71

Which type of brass finish would best prevent tarnish and require the least maintenance?

A. anodized

B. organic

C. oil

D. wax

Answer 71

Solution

An organic brass finish would best prevent tarnish and require the least maintenance.

Option A is incorrect because anodized finishes are used on aluminum, not brass. Options C and D are incorrect because oil and wax, while limiting tarnish, require more maintenance than do organic coatings.

The answer is B.

Question 72

Which of the following is not a copper alloy?

A. austenitic stainless steel

B. Monel metal

C. Muntz metal

D. nickel silver

Answer 72

Solution

Stainless steel is an alloy of iron, carbon, and chromium. Austenitic stainless steel, the most common type, also con­tains some nickel and/or manganese. This kind of steel is non magnetic and not heat treatable.

Monel is a trade name for a metal alloy of copper and nickel. Muntz metal is a common alloy of 60% copper and 40% tin. Nickel silver is a name given to an alloy of 65% copper, 25% zinc, and 10% nickel.

The answer is A.

Question 73

Which of the following additives is NOT added to steel to improve corrosion resistance?

A. chromium

B. copper

C. tungsten

D. molybdenum

Answer 73

Solution

Chromium, copper, and molybdenum as well as nickel are all used as alloys to improve steel’s resistance to corrosion.

Tungsten is added to steel to improve the materials ability to retain its strength when exposed to high temperatures.

The answer is C.

Question 74

Which two of the following would probably NOT be reasons for using a copper roof?

I. workability

II. resistance to denting

Ill. cost

lV. corrosion resistance

Answer 74

Solution

The advantages of copper roofs include their workability and corrosion resistance, so statements I and IV are correct. Because copper roofs are relatively soft and expensive, state­ ments II and Ill are reasons for not using them.

The answer is C.

Question 75

What percentage of carbon does structural steel typi­ cally contain?

A. above 2.0%

B. from 0.50% to 0.80%

C. from 0.20% to 0.50%

D. from 0.06% to 0.30%

Answer 75

Solution

Steel with over 2.0% carbon is classified as cast iron. The other choices are all used, but choice C is considered medium-carbon steel and is most common.

The answer is C.

Question 76

Galvanic action can be avoided by

A. using neoprene spacers

B. increasing the thickness of the materials

C. reducing contact with dripping water

D. all of the above

Answer 76

Solution

Dissimilar metals should be physically separated by non­ conducting materials in order to prevent galvanic action. Increasing the thickness of the materials may postpone the complete deterioration of the materials but not prevent it, so choice B is incorrect. Reducing direct contact with water will minimize galvanic action, but moisture in the air is suf­ficient to cause galvanic action, so choice C is incorrect.

The answer is A.

Question 77

Joining two metals with heat and a filler metal with a melting point above 800°F is called

A. annealing

B. soldering

C. brazing

D. welding

Answer 77

• Solution*
• Welding* is joining two metals by heating them above their melting points. Soldering is joining two metals using lead­ based or tin-based alloys as filler metals that melt below 500°F (260°C).

The answer is C.

Question 78

Which of the following would NOT help to minimize oil canning?

A. Design attachment hardware that allows panels to move in response to expansion and contrac­ tion caused by changes in temperature.

B. Include information in the specifications that requires the installer to transport panels verti­ cally rather than horizontally.

C. Specify a high-gloss painted finish on the pan­ els.

D. Carefully coordinate the design of the support­ ing structure to ensure that it is level and plumb.

Answer 78

• Solution*
• Oil canning* gives a metal siding panel a wavy appearance. Generally, it is not a structural issue, just an aesthetic one. However, it can be minimized through careful design of the panels, attachment hardware, and supporting structure. For example, a textured, ribbed, or matte finish will minimize the appearance of waviness more than a smooth, glossy fin­ish. Allowing space at the hardware connections for expan­sion and contraction will also help to minimize the waviness.

Most of the things that can be done to minimize oil canning fall under the responsibility of the contractor in the field, but the techniques can be written into the architect’s speci­fications to ensure proper handling of materials and installation. Panels should always be transported vertically rather than horizontally, and care should be taken not to twist them. The supporting structure should be as flat, or planar, as possible.

A good summary of oil canning can be found in the Tech­nical Bulletins section of the Metal Construction Associa­tion website, www.mcal.org. Click on “Publications and Resources,” then “Technical Bulletins,” and then select “Oil Canning (TB #95-1060).”

The answer is C.

Question 79

1. Which of the following defects would most affect a wood joist’s ability to resist horizontal shear?

A. knot

B. split

C. wane

D. warp

Answer 79

Solution

A split is a separation of the wood fibers along the grain that extends through the piece of lumber. Because the value of horizontal shear depends on the integrity of the wood along its grain, any break would reduce the ability of the wood to resist horizontal shear.

Terms to Know

knot: a branch or limb embedded in a tree that is cut through in the process of lumber manufacture

wane: the presence of bark or absence of wood from any cause on the edge or corner of a piece of lumber

warp: any deviation from the plane surface of a piece of lumber

The answer is B.

Question 80

The straightest, most uniform grain appearance in board lumber is achieved by specifying.

A. lain sawing

B. quarter sawing

C. rift sawing

D. rotary sawing

Answer 80

Solution

With the rift sawing method, each cut for a board is made by sawing a quarter section of log radially toward the center point of the tree. This requires the quarter section of log being sawn to be shifted slightly for each cut. The grain in the resulting boards is nearly perpendicular to the face of the board. This gives the straightest grain pattern. Rift saw­ ing is normally reserved for oak, to reduce the appearance of flaking, which is caused by medullary cells in the oak.

Quarter sawing is similar to rift sawing except that the quar­ tered log is held in a stationary position as the cuts are made toward the center point of the tree. Yields for this type of sawing are higher than those for rift sawing, but boards made by cutting away from the center will have grains at a slight angle to the face of the board.

Plain sawing cuts an entire log in one direction. Although plain sawing makes the most efficient use of the tree, boards cut near the tree edges will have a less uniform grain pattern. Rotary sawing is not an accurate term; rotary slicing is used only for veneer, not boards.

The answer is C.