Bugs & Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

hemolytic anemia associated with G6PD deficiency can present with _______

A

fatigue and scleral icterus (yellow in eyes) with elevated lactate dehydrogenase and total bilirubin

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2
Q

patients with G6PD deficiency are susceptible to developing ____ when they are exposed to ____ drugs

A

hemolysis when they are exposed to oxidizing agents such as sulfonamides like sulfamethoxazole

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3
Q

trimethoprim and pyrimethamine mechanism

A

inhibits dihydrofolate reductase (folate synthesis need for DNA)

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4
Q

sulfonamides and dapsone mechanism

A

inhibits dihydropteroate synthase (folate synthesis needed for DNA)

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5
Q

aminoglycosides are commonly associated with what side effects?

A

ototoxicity (high frequency hearing loss) and nephrotoxicity

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6
Q

tetracyclines toxicity includes:

A

tooth discoloration, photosensitivity reactions and inhibition of bone growth in children

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7
Q

flouroquinolone toxicity includes:

A

achilles tendonitis

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8
Q

macrolides toxicity includes:

A

acute cholestatic hepatitis, eosinophilia and skin rashes

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9
Q

what are the aminoglycosides?

A

30s ribosomal subunit against gram negative rod infections. Cannot treat anaerobes bc requires O2 for uptake
“GNATS”
gentamicin, neomycin, amikacin, tobramycin, streptomycin

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10
Q

when combined with alcohol, ____ causes a disulfiram-like “hangover” reaction

A

metronidazole
buildup of acetylaldehyde

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10
Q

what are the fluoroquinolones?

A

end in “floxacin”
inhibit topo 2 (DNA gyrase)
bactericidal
against gram negative rods of urinary and GI tracts (including pseudomonas)

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10
Q

symptoms and treatment of trichomonas vaginitis

A

frothy, yellow-green foul smelling discharge. pear shaped trichomonads
metronidazole

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10
Q

symptoms and treatment of candida vulvovaginitis

A

thick, white, “cottage cheese” discharge.
pseudohyphae
treat with azoles

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11
Q

how does metronidazole work?

A

forms toxic free radical metabolites in the bacterial cell that damage DNA
bactericidal and antiprotozoal

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12
Q

what is the mechanism of resistance to aminoglycosides?

A

inactivation via enzymatic modification like acetylation, phosphorylation, adenylation etc.

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13
Q

what is the mechanism of resistance for vancomycin?

A

amino acid modification of D-Ala-D-Ala to D-Ala-D-Lac

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14
Q

what is the mechanism of resistance for penicillins?

A

structural change in transpeptidases (PBPs = penicillin binding proteins)

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15
Q

what is the mechanism of resistance against macrolides?

A

methylation of 23S rRNA-binding site to prevent the drug from binding

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16
Q

what are the penicillinase-resistant penicillins?

A

dicloxacillin, nafcillin, oxacillin

use “Naf” for staph! (except MRSA)

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17
Q

what is the mechanism for penicillinase-resistant penicillins?

A

similar to penicillin but has a narrow spectrum. Penicillinase resistant because bulky R groups block access of beta-lactamase to beta-lactam ring

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18
Q

aspergillus fumigatus

A

branching of septate hyphae, catalase positive
immunocompromised patients can get aspergillomas after TB infection
treat with voriconazole or echinocandins (2nd line)

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19
Q

cryptococcus neoformans

A

narrow budding, heavily encapsulated yeast. can see clear halo with india ink
found in soil and pigeon droppings

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20
Q

sores on penis can indicate ____

A

syphillis, confirm diagnosis with flourescent treponemal antibody test. treat with penicillin G

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21
Q

how do macrolides work?

A

inhibits protein synthesis by blocking translocation

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22
how do cephalosporins work?
beta lactam drugs that inhibit cell wall synthesis but are less susceptible to penicillinases
23
what type of infection does ciprofloxacin treat?
aerobic gram-negative rod infections
24
what drug can cause "red man syndrome" and is also often used to treat MRSA?
vancomycin
25
what categories of bacteria does clindamycin treat?
anaerobes and gram positive organisms, good for treating pulmonary abscess
26
what is the first line treatment of UTIs in pregnant women?
nitrofurantoin, it damages bacterial DNA and ribosomal proteins after intracellular reduction into reactive molecules
27
what is the mechanism of resistance for macrolides?
methylation of rRNA at a ribosome-binding site
28
what type of bacteria is C. Diff?
gram positive, anaerobic, spore former
29
what is the treatment for clostridium profringes?
clindamycin
30
what is bacitracin active against?
gram positive staph and strep
31
chlamydia has what type of discharge?
watery
32
gonorrhoeae has what type of discharge
thick, can be green-yellowish or white
33
what is the treatment for chlamydia?
azithromycin (macrolide) or doxycycline (tetracycline)
34
what is the treatment for gonorrhoeae?
cephtriaxone (cephalosporin)
35
what penicillins are beta lactamase resistance?
nafcillin and oxacillin have a bulky R side chain that blocks beta lactamases from beta lactam ring
36
what drug works synergistically with beta lactams?
aminoglycosides (concentration dependent)
37
what is the drug of choice for staph aureus? (not MRSA)
nafcillin
38
what are the anti pseudomonal penicillins?
piperacillin and ticarcillin
39
what fungal disease presents as annular plaques?
tinea corporis "ringworm"
40
what is used to treat systemic ringworm?
itraconazole, blocks the formation of fungal membrane sterols by inhibiting fungal cytochrome P-450
41
what antifungal is used for chronic suppression of cryptococcal meningitis in people with HIV?
fluconazole
42
how does MRSA resist beta lactams?
by altering its penicillin binding protein
42
treatment for leishmania donovani
atovaquone and azythromycin
43
what parasite presents with bloody stool?
entamoeba hystolytica
44
what parasite presents with swollen eye?
trypanososma cruzi (chagas disease caused by kissing bug)
45
what is the treatment for complicated malaria?
quinine
46
what is the treatment for uncomplicated malaria?
chloroquine, second choice primaquine but can cause cardiac arrhythmia
47
what are the prophylactics for malaria?
atovaquone (inhibits ETC) proguanil (inhibits DHFR)
48
what parasite presents with maltese cross in blood smear?
babesa (tick bite in northeast)
49
what kind of virus is HIV?
retrovirus (+ ssRNA)
50
what enzyme do retroviruses (+ssRNA) use?
reverse transcriptase
51
all DNA viruses except poxvirus replicate in the ____
host cell nucleus
52
all RNA viruses except influenza replicate in the ____
cytoplasm
53
DNA viruses use what machinery to replicate?
enters the nucleus and uses host cell nucleic acid synthesis machinery
54
RNA viruses use what machinery to replicate?
since they replicate in the cytoplasn, they use their own machinery in combo with host cell ribosomes +ssRNA can be directly translated by host ribosomes -ssRNA brings RNA-dependent RNA polymerase to switch to +ssRNA
55
what are some DNA viruses?
herpesvirus & pox virus (enveloped), papillomavirus (naked)
56
what does the diptheria exotoxin do
ribosylates EF-2, inhibiting protein synthesis
57
what does the cholera exotoxin do
ribosylates GTP binding protein, increasing cAMP = fluid loss as seen in rice water stools