Bugs Flashcards
Frothy, greasy stool is mnemonic for what parasitic infection?
Giardiasis
what is the medical treatment for giardiasis?
metronidazole or tinadazole
EVERYONE who is + culture for Streptococcus gallolyticus needs immediate followup with a ______ ?
why?
colonoscopy!
gallolyticus is linked to colorectal cancer
gallolyticus GUT
what bug causes severe pain, fever, crepitus, darkened skin, and blisters around a deep, foul-smelling wound?
aka
gas gangrene
Clostridium perfringens
why can a pt taking Chloroquine STILL catch malaria?
what drug therapy is used in this case?
P. falciparum is resistant to Chloroquine
for Chloroquine-resistant malaria use a combo of Dapsone + Pyrimethamine
In order to develop Taenia solium cyst-icercosis, you have to ingest the parasites ____ which are located in ______?
ingestion of Taenia solium EGGS excreted in human FECES
so, eggs = cysts
larva = stomach probs
what does CMV retinitis look like on fundoscopic exam?
pizza pie slice hemorrhages :)
which bug lives on congenital valve defects?
Strep viridans/sanguinis
what is another name for strep viridans?
sanguinis
latin for blood
what is the most common cause of epididymitis?
chlamydia & gonorrhea
epididymitis is like cervicitis for males
What syndrome does HIV cause in HEALTHY, not yet immunocompromised HIV pts?
Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS).
abcdefGHIV
how do you confirm that a patient has chronic Hep C infection?
PCR for viral RNA
an elevated Beta-D-Glucan indicates invasive systemic infection with what organisms
fungal organisms = Candida spp., Aspergillus spp., and Pneumocystis jirovecii.
what is the cause of epidemic keratoconjuctivitis?
what is the recommended tx?
cause of pink eye = adenovirus!!
supportive treatment (artificial tears and cold compresses)
what are the special contraindications for giving a 4 month old the rotavirus vaccine?
hx of:
Intusseption
SCID, or
GI tract malformation (meckel diverticulum)
what does a FTA-ABS test measure?
How long is the test positive?
= Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody-absorption for syphilis infection
positive up to 2–3 weeks after infection with Treponema pallidum
what will a brain abscess look like on brain MRI?
round-like encapsulated (clean hyperintense ring) mass with central necrosis (DARKNESS) and surrounding EDEMA
what are the common causes of brain abscesses?
otitis media dental infection mastoiditis sinusitis IE embolization to brain brain sx/shunt infection
is rabies a bacteria or a virus?
Rabies = VIRUS
explain the Jarisch-Herxheimer rxn.
what is the causative organism class?
Jarisch-Herxheimer rxn is when a pt with a spirochete infection (syphilis, borreliosis, leptospirosis) is treated w/ medication, BUT a few hours later develop flu like symptoms (fever, myalgia, chills) + hypotension
what stage of syphilis will a pt experience the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction?
stage 2= diffuse maculopapular rash
what is the cause of necrotizing pneumonia in adults vs children?
what infection does it follow?
Adults= staph children = pseudomonas
viral infection > secondary bacterial pna > nectrotizing pna
what bugs cause secondary bacterial pna?
staph #1
strep pna
haemophilus influenzae.
what is the mnemonic for the causative agents in Reactive arthritis?
she may be REACTIVE, but She Can Cook Yummy Salmon
Shigella Campylobacter Chlamydia Yersinia Salmonella
When is the chance of vertical transmission of HIV highest?
Highest during the actual pregnancy (aka baby is more likely to get HIV in the womb than during delivery day)
what does your viral load have to be in order to be considered for a vaginal delivery?
< 1000
You need to have LESS than 1,000 miles/bodies to have VAGINAL sex with me
what does zidovudine prevent?
what viral load receives it?
when is it administered?
Zidovudine prevents INTRAPARTUM transmission from mom to baby
only pts w/ >1000K miles get zidovudine ==== only pts who will get induced Csection @ 38 weeks
it is given INTRAPARTUM/during pregnancy (usually @ 38 weeks b4 Csection)
true or false:
Newborns of HIV moms always receive post-prophylaxis cART regardless of what moms viral load was
TRUE! baby will be in a cART no matter what moms load was at delivery
what are Tzanck cells?
what disease are they classically present in?
multi-nucleated giant cells
Pemphigus vulgaris
Herpes simplex type 1 (HSV-1)
Varicella zoster virus infection (chickenpox or shingles)
Cytomegalovirus
a child presenting with failure to thrive, white plaques in the mouth, fever, and lymphadenopathy has what infection?
HIV
what is the cause of vesicular rashes that are ass seen in the SAME STAGE of development?
Small Pox virus== have the SAME age of eruption
what is the vaccine for SMALL pox vs CHICKEN pox?
SMALL POX = Vaccinia (vaccinia is the country where small boxes are manufactured)
chicken pox = varicella
what bacteriaS and parasite infections are functionally asplenic & physically asplenic pts at risk of developing?
encapsulated infections:
H flu Strep PNA Klebsiella Neisseria menin Pseudomonas Babesia
what is the cause of PID?
neisseria AND chlamydia
1 way to differentiate btw Neisseria vs Chlamydia infection?
PCR
what is a hint in the question stem to Coxsackievirus being the answer ?
The stem will mention warm SUMMER camp/job or fall weather
what type of Coxsackievirus causes aseptic/viral meningitis?
BOTH A & B causes meningitis
what are the Clx features of Coxsackievirus A?
Hand, foot & mouth (herpangina) rash
Aseptic meningitis
What are the Clx features of Coxsackievirus B?
dilated cardiomyopathy
Pleurodynia (Bornholm disease- spasms of abd & chest from inflamed pleura & muscles)
aseptic meningitis
what are the 3A’s on the tail of the Klebsiella PNA sketchy?
Alcoholics w/ DM
Abscess (lung + liver) similar to TB cavitation
Aspiration
Klebsiella granulomatis causes what genital findings?
what is the tx for Klebsiella granulomatis?
Granuloma inguinale:
painless genital nodules that eventually ulcerate to form large, beefy-red lesions that bleed easily
tx: doxycycline & azithromycin
For Hep A, B, & C:
transmission
vaccine?
cure?
Hep A: transmitted fecal/oral. YES vaccine. supportive care
Hep B: transmitted sexual/parenteral(IVDU)/perinatal. YES vaccine, but NO CURE
Hep C: transmission parenteral(IVDU). NO vaccine, but very curable/manageable
What are the causative bugs for chorioamnionitis?
how do you treat them?
1 ureaplasma (but AB regimen for chorio does NOT fight this bug)
Gardnerella vaginalis (clindamycin)
Bacteroides (clindamycin)
Group B Streptococcus (penicillin> IV ampicillin)
E. coli (penicillin> IV ampicillin)
what is another name for Measles?
Measles = Rubeola measle in a ruby red dress
what is the difference in the contagion period of adults and congenital infants with Rubella?
adults = contagious 7 days before the rash & 7 days after the rash
congenital = newborn will be contagious until 12 months old!
what is the cause of toxic shock syndrome?
staph EXOTOXIN production by staph bacteria
what day of cycle will TSS present?
what is the symptoms
around day 3 or 4 of cycle
flulike symptoms (N/V fever >102)»_space;» macular rash on palms/soles »_space; mucosal involvement (red conjunctiva, hyperemia of throat, vaginal)
what bug most commonly causes bacterial keratitis? (eye infection w/ white exudate in the anterior chamber)
Pseudomonas (tx w/ fluroquinolones)
pneumococcal polysaccharide valent 23 (PPSV23) is given to adults > _____ yo
OR
to adults with what medical conditions?
PPSV23 covers MORE S. pneumo variants so it is given to HIGH RISK pts
- > 65yo
OR - any age of pts w/ cardiac, lung, liver, kidney disease; smokers ; DIAGNOSED alcoholics ; DM, functional or anatomic ASPLENIA, immunosuppression, CSF leaks, etc
pneumococcal conjugate valent 13 (PCV13) is given to what age range?
only covers 13 variants of S. pneumo
is given routinely to kids <18 yo
what 2 dermatophytes causea tinea capitis?
Trichophyton & Microsporum
what organism is most likely the cause of a diabetic foot ulcer?
POLYMICROBIAL (mixed aerobe * anaerobe)
mnemonic for Whipple disease?
PAS the CAN of foamy WHIPPed cream
PAS + macrophages
Cardiac valve insufficiency
Arthritis
Neuro defects
