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BTM Flashcards

1
Q

What is Authority?

A

the government’s legal power to act.

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2
Q

How many fundamental sources of authority are there?

A

5

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3
Q

What are the 5 fundamentals of CG authority?

A

MLE, Customs, Protection and Security of Vessels, Harbors, and Waterfront Facilities (PWCS); including Law Enforcement (LE) Ashore, Assistance, and CGIS

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4
Q

What is 14 USC 522

A

The Coast Guard may make inquiries, examinations, inspections, searches, seizures, and arrests upon the high seas and waters over which the United States has jurisdiction, for the prevention, detection, and suppression of violations of laws of the United States.

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5
Q

Who can be LE Officcers

A

Petty Officers, Warrant Officers, and Commissioned Officers

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6
Q

What is 14 USC 102

A

The Coast Guard shall enforce or assist in the enforcement of all applicable Federal laws on, under, and over the high seas and waters subject to the jurisdiction of the United States….”

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7
Q

What is Jurisdiction?

A

a government’s power to exercise legal authority over its persons, vessels, and territory.

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8
Q

What are the 3 elements of jurisdiction

A

Substantive Law, Vessel Status/Flag, and Location

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9
Q

What is Substantive Law

A

A substantive law is one that prohibits certain action or requires affirmative conduct (M16247.1 2.B.1)

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10
Q

What are the types of Flag statuses?

A

US, Foreign, Without Nationality, Assimilated to without nationality

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11
Q

What are Territorial seas

A

waters within the belt, 12 NM wide, that is adjacent to the coast of the U.S. and seaward of the baseline

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12
Q

What is the EEZ

A

the zone of waters beyond and adjacent to the territorial sea not extending beyond 200 NM from the baseline.

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13
Q

What is the Contiguous Zone

A

adjacent to the territorial sea and extending 24 NM from the baseline.

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14
Q

What are Customs Waters

A

waters shoreward of a line drawn 12 NM from the baseline (including territorial sea and internal waters with ready access to the sea)

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15
Q

What are High Seas

A

all parts of the ocean seaward of the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ); if a coastal State has not proclaimed an EEZ, the high seas begin at the seaward edge of the territorial sea.

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16
Q

What are internal waters

A

waters shoreward of the baseline, including all waters on the U.S. side of the international boundary of the Great Lakes

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17
Q

What are international waters

A

waters seaward of the outer limit of the territorial sea of any nation, but encompassing the high seas, Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ), and contiguous zones.

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18
Q

What is Force Majeure

A

a vessel forced into coastal State waters by virtue of distress, whether brought about by natural or man-made causes, is generally not subject to coastal State jurisdiction during a reasonable period of time necessary to remedy such distress

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19
Q

What is a Consensual boarding

A

A “consensual boarding” means the master or person in charge of a foreign flagged vessel, other than a warship, on the high seas or other waters not within coastal State jurisdiction consents to the boarding of his/her vessel, regardless of whether the Coast Guard otherwise has jurisdiction to board.

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20
Q

What is probable Cause

A

The level of suspicion that would cause a reasonable and prudent person, given the overall circumstances, to believe a crime has been or is being committed.

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21
Q

What is reasonable suspicion?

A

The belief by a reasonable and prudent person, based on articulable facts, that something has happened

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22
Q

What is the Use of Force guiding principle

A

“Only that force reasonably necessary under the circumstances may be used. Force must not be used where assigned duties can be discharged without it. Excessive force may never be used; however, nothing in the application of the Coast Guard Use of Force Policy must be construed as to require personnel to meet force with equal or lesser force.”

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23
Q

What is Deady Force

A

any force that is likely to cause death or serious physical injury

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24
Q

When is deadly force authorized

A

Deadly force may be used to effect a lawful arrest or prevent an escape of a person in custody when:

  1. There is probable cause that the suspect has committed a felony involving the use or threatened use of deadly force;
  2. The suspect is armed, or otherwise poses an imminent threat of death or serious physical injury to any person; and
  3. The suspect has failed to obey an order to halt (such order must be given when it is feasible to do so and would not increase the danger to the officer or others).
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25
Q

What is Non-Deadly force

A

any level of force other than deadly force.

26
Q

What are the 3 types of self-defense

A

Individual, Unit, National

27
Q

What is Individual Self-defense

A

the use of force to defend oneself or others from the imminent threat of physical injury.

28
Q

What is Unit Self-defense

A

the act of defending a particular unit of U.S. military forces or law enforcement agency assets from imminent danger.

29
Q

What is Nation Self-defense

A

Defense of the United States, U.S. Forces, and, in certain circumstances, U.S. persons and their property, and/or U.S. commercial assets from a hostile act or demonstration of hostile intent.

30
Q

How many leaves of Force are there

A

6

31
Q

What is the 1st level of force

A

Officer Presence Ex. (Appearance, Demeanor)

32
Q

What is the 2nd level of force

A

Verbal Commands, Commands given as task direction with consequences

33
Q

What is the 3rd level force

A

Control Techniques Ex. (Pressure points, OC Spray)

34
Q

What are control techniques

A

techniques or actions with a low probability of causing (i.e., possible, but not likely to result in) connective tissue damage, lacerations of the skin or broken bones. These techniques include the proper use of restraint devices and pain compliance and strength techniques.

35
Q

What is the 4th level of force

A

Aggressive Response Techniques Ex. (Punches, Kicks, Stuns)

36
Q

What are Aggressive response techniques

A

techniques or actions likely to result in connective tissue damage, lacerations of the skin, broken bones, or that will produce irritation of the skin, eyes, and/or mucous membranes.

37
Q

What is the 5th level of force

A

Intermediate Weapon Ex. (Expandable Baton)

38
Q

What are Intermediate Weapons

A

techniques or actions with a high probability of causing connective tissue damage, lacerations of the skin or broken bones

39
Q

What are acceptable baton target areas

A

Meaty portions of Arms, Upper Torso, Legs, and Butt

40
Q

What is the 6th level of force

A

Deadly force

41
Q

What are the 4 types of subjects

A

Passive Compliant, Passive Resistor, Active Resistor, Active Aggressor

42
Q

What is a Passive Compliant subject

A

a subject who follows the officer’s requests or verbal directions

43
Q

What is a Passive Resistor subject

A

a subject who does not follow the officer’s requests or verbal directions, but offers no physical resistance to the officer’s attempts to gain control

44
Q

What is a Active Resistor subject

A

a subject who does not follow the officer’s requests or verbal directions, offers physical resistance that prevents or may prevent the officer from gaining control, but does not attempt to harm the officer (i.e., bracing or pulling away, attempting to flee)

45
Q

What is a Active Aggressor subject

A

a subject who attempts to harm or attack the officer

46
Q

What does the 4 Gas Analyzer do?

A

Detects Oxygen, Lower Explosive Limit (LEL), Hydrogen Sulfide, and Carbon Monoxide

47
Q

When does the 4 Gas Analyzer alarm

A

when Oxygen lower than 19.5% and higher than 23.5%, Hydrogen Sulfide limits are exceeded, or atmospheric conditions exceed the LEL of 10%

48
Q

What does S.M.A.C mean

A

Stop, Move away, Alert, Close off

49
Q

What does A.L.A.R.A mean

A

As Low As Reasonably Achievable

50
Q

What is a BISS

A

(Basic Initial Safety Sweep) is a quick and limited protective inspection of a vessel for boarding team safety.

51
Q

What is a EISS

A

(Extended Initial Safety Sweep) is still part of the protective sweep of a vessel for the safety of the boarding team, but is more focused. An EISS may be conducted only when reasonable suspicion exists that there is a particular hazard that may threaten the boarding team.

52
Q

What are the reasons for an EISS

A

Unaccounted for Person, Known Weapons, Safety Hazard

53
Q

What is the 4th Amendment

A

“The right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers, and effects, against unreasonable searches and seizures, shall not be violated, and no Warrants shall issue, but upon probable cause, supported by Oath or affirmation, and particularly describing the place to be searched, and the persons or things to be seized.”

54
Q

What is the Two-Prong test for private v common space

A

Is there and expectation to privacy and;

Is that expectation reasonable

55
Q

What is the Fatal Funnel

A

The cone shaped area in front of a door, window, or hatch that does not provide law enforcement personnel with cover or concealment.

56
Q

What is the Reactionary Gap

A

intentional distance placed between law enforcement personnel and the subject to provide law enforcement personnel with time necessary to respond to a threat.

57
Q

What is a Frisk Search

A

The crushing and passing of hands over the outer clothing of a person in search of weapons, when the officer suspects an individual may have a weapon that poses a threat to the boarding team or others.

58
Q

Can a person not under arrest be Frisked

A

A person who is not under arrest may be frisked when reasonable suspicion exists that the individual may have a weapon secreted upon his or her body that could endanger an officer or others.

59
Q

What is a SIA

A

(Search Incident to Arrest) A detailed “crush and feel” search of an arrested individual’s person and thorough search of outer clothing.

60
Q

What is the Scope of SIA

A

a very thorough search of a person and his/her clothing.

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