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BTC Oral Flashcards

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1
Q

What is an AIC

A

Aeronautical Information Circular

A notice containing information which does not qualify for a NOTAM or AIP inclusion.

Examples:
White - Admin - AIP Charges
Yellow - Operational/ATS - Requests not to overfly cultural events/flypasts
Pink - Safety - Helicopter flying in degraded weather conditions
Mauve - UK Airspace restrictions
Green - Maps and charts

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2
Q

What are the three NOTAM codes?

A

NOTAMN - New
NOTAMC - Cancel
NOTAMR- Replace

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3
Q

What information is in the AIP?

A

National documents (rules of the air etc)
Supplements
AIP/Amendment service
AICs

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4
Q

Name four of the ICAO technical divisions

A 
MAP
MET
SAR
RAC
AGA
AIS
COM
AIG
OPS
PEL
AIR
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5
Q

What is the definition of Notified

A

The information is published in the Nation’s AIP or NOTAM

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6
Q

What actions can take place with ATCO licenses pending/after investigation?

A

Suspension - placing the license or ratings in abeyance with set conditions. Temporary.

Revocation - withdrawing a licence and/or associated ratings. Permanent.

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7
Q

What are the ATCO ratings?

A 
The main qualifications
ADI
ADV
APP
APS
ACS
ACP
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8
Q

What are rating endorsements?

A

Specialist additions to ratings

SRA
PAR
TCL
AIR
GMC
GMS
OCN
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9
Q

What are licence endorsements?

A

Specialist additions to licence

OJTI
Assessor

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10
Q

What is a MOR

A

Mandatory Occurrence report. Complies with CA939 (legal document)

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11
Q

How should an ATCO file an MOR?

A

Through the ECCAIRS website (or published ANSP alternative) within 72 hours of incident

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12
Q

An aircraft’s nav lights have failed. What are the restrictions?

A
  • Ac shall not depart at night if there is a failure of required lighting which cannot be fixed or replaced.
  • If in flight, ac should land as soon as safely able unless otherwise authorised. Not authorised outside CAS or Class E.
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13
Q

When is an ac considered in flight?

A

From when the ac first moves under its own power until the moment it comes to rest after landing.

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14
Q

What is the definition of QFE?

A

Atmospheric pressure at a specified datum (usually aerodrome level). when set, the subscale will read 0 at the datum.

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15
Q

What is the definition of QNH?

A

Atmospheric pressure at MSL. When set on the subscale, it will read the aerodrome elevation when the ac is on the ground at the aerodrome.

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16
Q

What is the definition of QNE?

A

Indication on altimeter when ac on the ground at an airfield with 1013 set. Usually used when ac cannot sent 950hPa or below.

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17
Q

What is the definition of Height?

A

The vertical distance of a level, point or object considered as a point, measured from a specified datum. (QFE in aviation)

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18
Q

What is the definition of Altitude?

A

The vertical distance of a level, point or object considered as a point measured from MSL

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19
Q

What is the definition of elevation?

A

The vertical distance of a point of level, on or affixed to the surface of the earth, measured from MSL

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20
Q

What is the definition of Flight Level

A

Surfaces of constant atmospheric pressure, related to 1013.25hPa. Separated from by specific constant pressure intervals.

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21
Q

What is Transition Altitude?

A

The altitude at or below which the vertical position of the ac is controlled by reference to altitude. Usually 3000ft in UK but specified distances in aerodrome MATSIIs

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22
Q

What is the Transition Level?

A

the lowest flight level available for use above the Transition Altitude. At least 1000ft above.

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23
Q

What is the Transition Layer?

A

The airspace between the Transition Altitude and the Transition level. At least 1000ft in depth. Ac descending through Tlayer will be descending on altitude, ac climbing through will be climbed on FL.

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24
Q

When would a pilot fly IFR?

A
  • in Class A Airspace

- When met conditions preclude VFR or SVFR

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25
What levels are RVSM
FL290 - FL410
26
What is the RVSM minima?
Suitably equipped ac can fly in RVSM airspace at 1000ft intervals. Outwith and above FL290 the interval is 2000ft.
27
What is VMC?
Visual Meteorological Conditions
28
What is IMC?
Instrument Meteorological Conditions
29
What is the the VMC minima for flying VFR by Day?
At or above FL100 (all airspace) - 1500m/1000ft from cloud, 8km visibility Below FL100 in all classes - 1500m/1000ft from cloud, 5km visibility At/below 3000ft AMSL in Classes B, C, D and E, 1500m/1000ft, 5km visibility At/below 3000ft AMSL in F/G (uncontrolled) ac Clear of cloud in sight of the surface, 5km flight visibility. If in Class G and flying at less than 140kts, visibility may be reduced to not less than 1500m
30
How many Oktas in each cloud category?
FEW - 1-2 SCT - 3-4 BKN - 5-7 OVC - 8
31
What is the requirement for CAVOK?
Visibility 10km or more No cloud below 5000ft or MSA, whichever is highest No significant weather in the vicinity of the ad No CB or TCU present anywhere
32
What is RVR?
Runway visual Range The range over which the pilot of an aircraft on the centreline of a runway can expect to see surface markings, runway edge lights or runway centreline lights. Included in METAR when visibility is below 1500m, and minimum value is 50m.
33
How is RVR measured?
instrument - photo-optical sensors measure the amount of light received from rwy lights for each third of the rwy - requires at least 10% of runway lighting. Human observer method - counting visible lights and comparing against a table of values.
34
What is fog?
Suspension of water droplets giving a visibility of less than 1000m
35
What is mist?
Suspension of water droplets giving a visibility of not less than 1000m
36
What is haze?
Suspension of solid particles reducing visibility to not less than 1000m. Humidity must be less than 95%
37
When vis is below 5km, what must be reported?
Reason for obscuration: Fog, mist, dust, sand, smoke, haze, volcanic ash, spray FG, BR, DU, SA, FU, HZ, VA, SY
38
What is an Air Traffic Service?
Either an: - Air Traffic Control Service - Air Traffic Advisory Service - Flight Information Service - Alerting Service
39
What information of given in a FIS?
Information essential for the safe conduct of flight. SIGMET, AIRMET, VOLMET, release of toxic chemicals or radiation, navaid serviceability, aerodrome conditions, unmanned balloons, collision hazards in Classes C, D, E, F and G
40
What is a Basic Service?
Provided for the purpose of giving advice and information useful the safe and efficient conduct of flights. E.g. weather information, conditions at aerodromes and general airspace activity. Avoidance of traffic is entirely pilot's responsibility but advice may be given with duty of care if risk of collision exists.
41
What is a Traffic Service?
surveillance-based UK FIS, in addition to the provisions of BS, controlled provides surveillance-derived traffic information to assist pilots in avoiding other traffic. Headings and levels may be given for positioning or sequencing, however no deconfliction minima and collision avoidance with terrain and other aircraft remains responsibility of the pilot.
42
What is a Deconfliction Service?
Surveillance-based UK FIS where the controlled provides specific surveillance-derived traffic information and issues headings and level information to achieve deconfliction minima, or for positioning/sequencing. Avoiding traffic is ultimately pilot's responsibility.
43
What is a Procedural Service?
In addition to the provisions of a BS, the controlled provides restrictions, instructions and clearances to achieve deconfliction minima against participating traffic. No information can be passed about unknown traffic.
44
What is an alerting service?
Service notifying appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of SAR, and assisting those organisations as required
45
What is the definition of co-ordination?
The act of negotiation between two more parties, each with the vested authority to make executive decisions appropriate to the task being discharged.
46
What are the two types of co-ordination?
Tactical - co-ordination of individual aircraft receiving or about to receive an ATS. Achieved either verbally or silently using an electronic data comms system. silent co-ordination procedures are to be detailed in the MATS P2. Standing Co-ordination - co-ordination implemented automatically on a permanent basis without communication between the controllers involved. Effected iaw written agreement between sectors or units involved, and only valid for the aircraft and circumstances specified.
47
What are the stages of coordination?
Notification of Flight - Coordination of conditions - acceptance or amendment of conditions - transfer of control
48
What are the flight priorities?
Cat A: Emergency aircraft, police emergency, ambulance when safety of life involved. Cat B - SAR/ Humanitarian rescue, post-accident flight checks, Open skies, normal police flights Cat C - Royal flights, flights carrying visiting heads of state Cat D - Heads of government or very senior government ministers Cat E - Time or weather critical calibration flights, other flights authorised by CAA, repositions ambulance flights Cat Z - Training Normal flights - flights under normal routing procedures, Exam flights by CAA
49
What are the departure separations?
1 minute - Tracks divering by 45 degrees or more immediately after take-off 2 minutes - Preceding ac filed TAS 40kts or more faster. Neither ac to make manouevre to reduce separation 5 minutes - Preceding ac filed TAS 20kts faster 5 minutes - If 5 minutes of separation will be maintained to a point where ac will be separated either vertically, by tracks of 30 degrees or more or by radar. 10 minutes - basic departure separation
50
What is the Readability Scale?
``` 1 - Unreadable 2 - Readable now and then 3 - readable with difficulty 4 - Readable 5 - Perfectly readable ```
51
When would an ac be told to freecall and when to contact?
Contact - details have been passed to next agency | Freecall - no details have been passed
52
What are the CAA groups?
SARG - Safety and Regulatory Group RPG - Regulatory Policy Group CPG - Consumer Protection group
53
How is the CAA funded?
Through charges to those it regulated. Not government funded.
54
What is an AIRPROX?
A situation in which a pilot or controller believes that the distance between aircraft as well as their positions/speeds has been such that safety was or may have been compromised.
55
To which ICAO annexes does the UK generally conform?
1 - Personnel and Licensing 2 - Rules of the Air 11 - Air Traffic services Also some PANS-ATM, PANS-OPS and Doc 7030
56
Where are the UK differences to ICAO SARPS published?
AIP gen 1.7
57
Which UK document contains differences in procedures from SERA?
CAP 393 - the Air Navigation Order
58
What are the Mandatory descriptive words?
Is to, must, shall, Are to
59
What is the informative descriptive word?
Will
60
What is the permissive descriptive word?
May
61
What is the strongly advisable descriptive word?
Should
62
Which documents reflect temporary differences from EU regulations?
The Official Record Series
63
SARG may use what additional mechanism for licensing action, in response to an incident?
Provisional suspension
64
What are the three stages of ATC incident investigation?
Initial Phase - Full investigation - Remedial Action
65
How may an MOR be filed?
Via ECCAIRS or ADREP (aerodrome report, specific to ANSPs)
66
What is the maximum weight for a small unmanned aircraft?
20kg
67
Small unmanned aircraft are limited to not above what height in Class A, C, D or E?
400ft
68
How many balloons can be release at a single site without CAA written notice?
1000
69
How many days notice is required for the CAA before releasing >1000 balloons?
28
70
How many balloons can be released at a single site without CAA written permission?
2000-10,000
71
What is the UK definition of night?
the time between half an hour after sunset to half an hour before sunrise
72
What is the weather minima for SVFR?
Clear of cloud and in sight of the surface, Fixed wing, not less than 1500m flight vis, heli not less than 800m flight visilibity, speed of 140kts or less
73
What are the two emergency frequencies?
121. 5 Mhz | 243. 0 MHz
74
What is the accuracy of an NDB?
5 degrees
75
What is the accuracy of a VOR?
2 degrees
76
What is the accuracy of a DME?
1nm (cannot be used for separation within 15nm)
77
When should an ac not hold over a VRP?
Outside CAS - as other ac may be using it as a turning point
78
Who provides the UK met services?
Met Office, Exeter
79
What met information does the Met Office not provide?
Local met conditions - windspeed, direction, RVR, sudden deteriorations, PIREPS, weather clutter on PSR, weather observations by qualified observers, unofficial reports
80
When can only 1 IRVR value be used?
If it is either TDZ or mid point - cannot be the final third. If only final third sensor is serviceable, then an option could be to swap runways.
81
What are the dimensions of an ATZ?
2000ft vertical, 2nm radius, except if the length of the longest runway is longer than 1850m, or the ATZ boundary would be less than 1nm from the end of a runway, in which case the radius is 2.5nm
82
How many ASRs in the UK?
20
83
When should an ATCO pass the RPS?
If pilot requests, or at ATCO's discretion
84
What are the UK wake turbulence categories?
``` L - <17000kg S - 17000-40,000kg LM - 40 - 104000kg UM - 104 - 136000kg H - >136000 Kg Super - A380 ```
85
What is the alcohol legal limit?
20mg/100ml
86
What is the VMC flight minima by night?
As per day, except: - Cloud ceiling not less than 1500ft - There is no reduction in visibility for lower speeds (Class G exemption doesn't exist) - Ac flying below 3000ft AMSL must maintain continous sight of the surface - VFR flights at night must be made at a minimum of 2000ft (mountainous)/1000ft (normal) above the highest obstacle within 8km of the position of the ac
87
What are the restrictions for flying VFR?
- Must apply with VMC Minima - Not available above FL195 or in Class A - Not less than 1000ft above settlements/assemblies of people within 600m of aircraft position - Minimum of 500ft, or 500ft above highest obstacle within 500ft of aircraft
88
What flights are exempt from VMC/VFR restrictions?
SAR, HEMS and police flights, ac in support of national infrastructure (pipeline)

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