BRS Phys Review Flashcards

1
Q

What is the site of highest resistance in the CV system?

A

Arterioles

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2
Q

What part of the CV system has the largest total cross sectional and surface area?

A

Capillaries

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3
Q

_____ are formed from merged capillaries

A

Venules

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4
Q

What contains the highest proportion of blood in the CV system?

A

Veins

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5
Q

How is velocity of blood flow calculated?

A

V = Q/A

Where Q is flow (mL/min) and A is cross sectional area

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6
Q

How is blood flow (Q) calculated?

A

Q = change in pressure/R

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7
Q

How would you calculate CO using MAP and TPR

A

CO = (MAP - right atrial pressure)/TPR

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8
Q

Parallel resistance is illustrated by the ______ circulation; when an artery is added in parallel, the total resistance _________

A

Systemic; decreases

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9
Q

_______ resistance is illustrated by the arrangement of blood vessels within a given organ (series or parallel?)

A

Series

The largest proportion of resistance in series is contributed by arterioles. As blood flows through the series of blood vessels, the pressure decreases

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10
Q

When Reynolds number increases, there is greater tendency for turbulence, which causes audible vibrations called _______.

What 2 factors increase Reynold’s number?

A

Bruits

  1. Decreased blood viscosity (decreased hematocrit, anemia)
  2. Increased blood velocity (narrowing of a vessel)
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11
Q

_____ is a consequence of the fact that blood travels at different velocities within a blood vessel

Velocity of blood is ______ at the wall and _______ at the center of the vessel

A

Shear

Zero; highest

[shear is therefore highest at the wall, where the difference in blood velocity is greatest]

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12
Q

How is capacitance (compliance) calculated?

A

C =V/P

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13
Q

Where is compliance greater, veins or arteries?

A

Veins (as a result more blood is contained in unstressed volume than stressed volume)

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14
Q

What happens to capacitance of the arteries with age? What effect does this have?

A

Capacitance of the arteries decreases with age; as a person ages, the arteries become stiffer and less distensible.

Result is an increase in pulse pressure

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15
Q

As blood flows through systemic circulation, pressure decreases progressively because of the resistance to blood flow. Thus, pressure is highest in the ______ and large _______, and lowest in the __________

A

Aorta; arteries

Vena cavae

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16
Q

Where does the largest decrease in pressure occur in the CV system?

A

Arterioles - because they are the site of highest resistance

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17
Q

What are the mean pressures in the following:

Aorta
Arterioles
Capillaries
Vena cava

A

Aorta = 100 mm Hg

Arterioles = 50 mm Hg

Capillaries = 20 mm Hg

Vena cava = 4 mm Hg

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18
Q

________ = the difference between the systolic and diastolic presures

A

Pulse pressure

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19
Q

What is the most important determinant of pulse pressure?

A

Stroke volume

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20
Q

______ = average arterial pressure with respect to time

A

Mean arterial pressure

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21
Q

How is MAP calculated?

A

MAP = diastolic pressure + 1/3 pulse pressure

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22
Q

______ atrial pressure is estimated by pulmonary wedge pressure

A

Left

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23
Q

Resting membrane potential of ventricles, atria, and purkinje system

A

-90 mV (approaches K+ equilibrium potential)

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24
Q

Where is conduction velocity the fastest vs. the slowest in the heart?

A

Fastest in the Purkinje system

Slowest in the AV node (PR interval on ECG)

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25
Chronotropic effects produce changes in what?
HR (by changing the firing rate of the SA node)
26
Dromotropic effects produce changes in what?
Conduction velocity (primarily in the AV node) [this would increase or decrease the PR interval on ECG]
27
Which of the following does not have parasympathetic vagal innervation? A. SA node B. Atria C. Ventricles D. AV node
C. Ventricles
28
The SA node, atria, and AV node have parasympathetic innervation, where the NT is _________, which acts on _________ receptors
ACh; muscarinic
29
An increased heart rate occurs d/t sympathetic stimulation of _____ receptors
B1 [same receptor for sympathetic increases in conduction velocity via AV node, and contractility]
30
Sympathetic activity causes constriction of vascular smooth muscle of skin, splanchnic vessels, and vessels around skeletal muscles occurs via _____ receptors
Alpha1
31
Relaxation of vascular smooth muscle occurs via _____ receptors
B2
32
What is the mechanism of a negative chronotropic effect?
Heart rate is decreased due to decreased inward Na+ current, thus decreasing the rate of phase 4 slow depolarization in the SA node
33
What is the mechanism of a negative chronotropic effect?
Decrease in conduction velocity through the AV node is due to decreased inward Ca+ current and increased outward K+ current, thus increasing the PR interval
34
Sympathetic effects on heart rate and conduction velocity occur using ______ as the NT, which acts on _____ receptors
NE; B1
35
A positive chronotropic effect increases heart rate due to increased inward _____ current responsible for phase 4 depolarization in the SA node
Na
36
Positive dromotropic effects increase conduction velocity through the AV node due to increased inward ____ current which decreases the ______ interval on ECG
Ca+; PR
37
_________ is the contractile unit of the myocardial cell which runs from ______ to ______
Sarcomere; Z line to Z line
38
_____________ occur at the ends of myocardial muscle cells and maintain cell to cell cohesion
Intercalated disks
39
what are present at intercalated disks, acting as low resistance paths between cells that allow for rapid electrical spread of APs?
Gap junctions (account for heart as an electrical syncytium)
40
Where are mitochondria more numerous, in cardiac muscle or skeletal muscle?
Cardiac
41
_____ are continues with cardiac muscle cell membranes and invaginate the cells at the Z lines where they carry APs into the cell interior. They form _______ with the SR
T tubules; dyads
42
T tubules are well developed in the _______ of the heart, but poorly developed in the _____
Ventricles; atria
43
What are the sites of storage and release of Ca++ for excitation-contraction coupling in cardiac muscle cells?
SR
44
During the plateau of the cardiac action potential, Ca+ conductance is increased and Ca+ enters the cell from the ECF through _____ channels, aka _______ receptors
L-type; DHP
45
Initial calcium entry from the ECF triggers release of even more Ca from the SR through release channels called ________ receptors
Ryanodine
46
The amount of Ca released from the SR depends on what 2 factors?
- amount of Ca previously stored | - size of inward Ca current during the plateau of the AP
47
The magnitude of the tension that develops during excitation contraction coupling is proportional to what?
The intracellular Ca concentration
48
______ = intrinsic ability of cardiac muscle to develop force at a given muscle length
Contractility (aka ionotropism)
49
Contractility is related to the intracellular Ca concentration and can be estimated by the _________
EF
50
How is ejection fraction calculated? What is normal EF?
SV/EDV Normally 55%
51
What are the 3 major factors that have positive ionotropic effects?
Incrased heart rate (Bowditch staircase, postextrasystolic potentiation) Sympathetic stimulation (catecholamines) via B1 receptors Cardiac glycosides (digitalis)
52
Sympathetic stimulation (catecholamines) have positive ionotropic effects via B1 receptors. What are the 2 major mechanisms by which these increase force of contraction?
1. Increases the inward Ca current during the plateau of each cardiac AP 2. Increases activity of Ca pump of the SR by phosphorylation of phospholamban (more is accumulated in SR so that more can be released in subsequent beats)
53
What is the MOA of cardiac glycosides like digitalis as a positive ionotropic effector?
Increase in force of contraction by inhibiting Na/K ATPase in the cell membrane --> increasing intracellular Na and diminishing the Na gradient so that Na/Ca exchanger pumps out less Ca ,--> increasing intracellular Ca
54
What is the major factor that causes a negative ionotropic effect? What is the MOA?
Parasympathetic (ACh) via muscarinic receptors - decreases force of contraction in the ATRIA by decreasing inward Ca current during plateau of the AP [because ventricles do not have parasympathetic vagal innervation!]
55
What is preload
EDV, which is related to right atrial pressure
56
What is afterload for the left and right ventricles?
Afterload for LV is aortic pressure Afterload for RV is the pulmonary artery pressure
57
What determines the maximum number of cross-bridges that can form between actin and myosin?
Sarcomere length
58
Velocity of contraction at a fixed muscle length is maximal when afterload is _______. Velocity is _______ by increases in afterload.
Zero Decreased
59
What is the Frank Starling relationship and how does it relate EDV to CO?
FS relationship describes increases in stroke volume and CO that occur in response to an increase in venous return or EDV. Increases in EDV cause an increase in ventricular fiber length, which produces an increase in developed tension, and thus a greater cardiac output
60
The ventricle develops greater tension than usual during systole, causing a _______ in stroke volume, which then results in a ______ in EDV
Increase; decrease
61
______ is the point at which the vascular function curve intersects the x-axis
Mean systemic pressure
62
What determines the slope of the venous return curve?
Resistance of the arterioles [a decrease in TPR causes an increase in venous return, an increase in TPR causes a decrease in venous return]
63
Positive ionotropic agents cause increased contractility, a higher cardiac output, and a correspondingly _______ right atrial pressure
Lower [right atrial pressure decreases because more blood is ejected from the heart on each beat - increased stroke volume]
64
What effect does an increase in blood volume or decrease in venous compliance have on cardiac output and right atrial pressure?
Both are increased
65
How is stroke volume calculated
SV = EDV - ESV
66
How is CO calculated
CO = SV x HR
67
How is stroke work calculated
SW = aortic pressure x SV
68
How would changes in the following increase cardiac oxygen consumption? Afterload Size of the heart Contractility HR
Cardiac O2 consumption increases with: Increased afterload (increased aortic pressure) Increased size of the heart Increased contractility Increased HR
69
What is the Fick principle for measuring cardiac output based on O2 consumption?
CO = O2 consumption/[O2]pulm v. - [O2]pulm a.
70
What causes the fourth heart sound
Filling of the ventricle by atrial systole
71
During which part of the cardiac cycle would you hear the first heart sound
Isovolumetric ventricular contraction (AV valves closing)
72
Why might the first heart sound be split?
The mitral valve closes slightly before the tricuspid valve
73
During which phase of the cardiac cycle does the aortic valve open? A. Atrial systole B. Rapid ventricular ejection C. Reduced ventricular ejection D. Rapid ventricular filling
B. Rapid ventricular ejection
74
When is aortic pressure the greatest? A. Rapid ventricular ejection B. Reduced ventricular ejection C. Isovolumetric ventricular contraction D. Rapid ventricular filling
B. Reduced ventricular ejection
75
Which part of the cardiac cycle corresponds to the second heart sound?
Closure of semilunar valves; occurs in isovolumetric ventricular relaxation
76
The "blip" in the aortic pressure tracing occurs after closure of the aortic valve during isovolumetric relaxation and is called the _____
Dicrotic notch, or incisura
77
During which phase of the cardiac cycle does the mitral valve open? A. Reduced ventricular ejection B. Isovolumetric ventricular relaxation C. Rapid ventricular filling D. Atrial systole
B. Isovolumetric ventricular relaxation
78
What causes the third heart sound
Rapid flow of blood from the atria into the ventricles
79
What part of the cardiac cycle corresponds to the third heart sound?
Rapid ventricular filling
80
What is the longest phase of the cardiac cycle?
Reduced ventricular filling (diastasis)
81
What are the 4 effects of angiotensin II in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system?
Stimulates secretion of aldosterone (which increases Na reabsorption by DCT) Increases Na/H exchange in PCT Increases thirst Vasoconstriction of the arterioles
82
What is the Cushing reaction?
Response to cerebral ischemia: Increases in intracranial pressure --> compression of cerebral blood vessels --> cerebral ischemia and increased cerebral PCO2 --> vasomotor center directs an increase in sympathetic outflow which causes profound increase in Pa
83
What is the action of vasopressin (ADH)
Potent vasoconstrictor that increases TPR by activating V1 receptors on arterioles Increases water reabsorption by the DCT and collecting ducts by activating V2 receptors
84
What is the action of ANP?
Released from atria in response to increase in blood volume and atrial pressure --> causes relaxation of vascular smooth muscle and increased excretion of Na and water Also inhibits renin secretion
85
A decreased protein concentration in the blood would ________ filtration in capillaries
Increase
86
___________ = blood flow to an organ remains constant over a wide range of perfusion pressures. What organs exhibit this property
Autoregulation Brain, heart, kidney
87
What is active hyperemia?
Blood flow to an organ is proportional to its metabolic activity
88
What is reactive hyperemia?
Increase in blood flow to an organ that occurs after a period of occlusion to flow
89
Bradykinin causes arteriolar _______ and venous _______
Dilation; constriction [same effect as histamine]
90
What is the action of thromboxane A2
Vasoconstrictor
91
Sympathetic stimulation of ______ receptors in the heart causes vasoconstriction Sympathetic stim of _____ receptors in the heart cause vasodilation
Alpha1 Beta2