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Body log broad notes > Broad notes > Flashcards

Broad notes Flashcards

1
Q

Define homeostasis

A

The process whereby cells, tissues and organisms maintain an internal balance despite external changes

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2
Q

What is the average blood pH? What is it in veins and what is it in arteries?

A

Average blood pH = 7.4
Arteries = 7.45
Veins = 7.35

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3
Q

Describe the long term control of pH control, short term is done by the lungs

A

Long term is done by the kidney excreting and retaining either H+ or bicarbonate (HCO3-)

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4
Q 
haemotoxylin stains blue 
eosin stains pink
gram positive stain purple 
gram negative stain red 
Check this
A

T

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5
Q

What is meant by ‘transitional epithelium’

A

More than one layer thick and can expand under distension e.g. bladder has umbrella cells

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6
Q 
What kind of epithelial cels are:
bowmans capsule/lung serosa
stomach lining 
thyroid follicles
upper respiratory tract (trachea and bronchi)
vagina
skin
bladdder
A 
simple squamous 
simple columnar epithelium
simple cuboidal (glands)
pseudostratified
non-keratinised stratified squamous 
ketainised stratified squamous
transitional
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7
Q

order these steps - compaction, implantation, fertilisation, hatching, cleavage
(all occur in week 1)

A

Fertilisation - in ampulla of fallopian tubes
Cleavage - series of mitotic divisions to form a morula
compaction - to form a blastocyst
hatching - blastocyst needs to interact with the maternal tissues so ‘hatches; from the zona pellucida
implantation - ideally in the posterior body of the uterine wall - gives the zygote access to maternal blood supply

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8
Q

When does the zona pellucida form and what is its function?

A

after fertilisation, to prevent another sperm fertilising the same egg

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9
Q

The blastocyst which forms after compaction is the formation of the first cavity, what are the names of the masses that are present at this stage?

A

Outer cell mass - trophoblast - will give us foetal membranes such as the placenta
Inner cell mass - embryoblast - willl give us the body

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10
Q

Explain what happens in week 2 - the week of two’s

A

Trophoblast becomes the
yncytiotrophoblast - a multinucleate sheet of epithelium across which transport of stuff between Mother and foetus can occur AND the…
Cytotrophoblast - a stem cell layer which will keep adding to the syncytiotrophoblast enlarging it

Embryoblast becomes the bilaminar disk - epiblast and hypoblast

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11
Q

Give two implantation defects

A

Ectopic pregnancy - implantation occurs outside the uterine body commonly in the fallopian tubes
Placenta praevia is implanation in the lower uterine segment - can cause placenta to grow over the uterus opening meaning a C section will be required, also risk of haemorrhage

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12
Q

What is the primitive yolk sac

A

When the hypoblast lines the blastocoele

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13
Q

If teratogenesis occurs in the following periods, what will be the result?
pre-embryonic
embryonic
foetal

A

pre-embryonic - lethal
embryonic - structural abnormalitie
Foetal - growth wil be fine except CNS -> CNS abnormalities

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14
Q

Order the following:

Gastrulation, segmentation, embryonic folding, neurulation, fertilisation

A 
Fertlisation 
Gastrulation
Neurulation
Segmentation
Embryonic folding
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15
Q

If two primitive streaks occur in the third week what does it indicate?

A

conjoined twins

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16
Q

Describe gastrulation

A

Cells of the epiblast proliferate and migrate towards the primitive streak where they invaginate and replace the hypoblast layer. They differentiate to form three discrete layers, the mesoderm, endoderm and ectoderm. Apart from two bits where there’s no mesoderm - future mouth and anus

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17
Q

What creates left/right asymmetry?

A

Ciliated cells at the primitive node beat left sided and right sided signals to their correct poles prior to gastrulation

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18
Q

Describe neurulation

A

Notochord forms and releases signals that are picked up by the local ectoderm (neuroectoderm) - this thickens to form the neural plate and the edges curl inward to form the neural tube. Mesoderm differentiates into it’s specific regions

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19
Q

What are the derivatives of the somatic and splanchnic mesoderm?

A

Somatic - bones, ligaments etc.

Splanchnic - viscera

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20
Q

What is the functino of the intraembryonic coelom?

A

Provides space for the viscera to be built in

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21
Q

What mesodermal derivative becomes the somites?

A

Paraxial mesoderm (31 pairs - 31 pairs of spinal nerves)

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22
Q

Segmentation describes the formation of the somites and the followin…Somites degenerate into the dermomyotome (dorsal) and sclerotome (ventral) - what do these become?

A

Dermomyotome - dermatomes (deep layer of skin) and myotomes (muscle precursor cells)

Sclerotome - bones

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23
Q

Give an example of some of the derivatives of the endoderm

A

Tracts such as the respiratory tract, urinary tract etc.

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24
Q

What specific collagen is in loose connective tissue? What is the function of loose connective tissue?

A

Holds organs and tissues in place

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25
Q

What makes up the ECM?

A

Water, proteoglycans bound to GAG’s like hyaluronic acid and collagen fibres

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26
Q

Give an example of regular dense connective tissue

A

LIgaments and tnedons (resist stress in one direction because of parallel fibres of collagen)

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27
Q

How can a vitamin C defiicency cause scurvy?

A

Vitamin C is required for intracellular production of procollagen -> without collagen fibres have a kink in them meaning they can’t aggregate sufficiently to form fibrils

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28
Q

Give some symptoms of scurvy

A

poor wound healing/ gum disease/ bruising of the sin

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29
Q

Marfans syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder of a mutation in the fibrillin 1 gene. Fibrillin cross links elastin fibres to form elastic fibres with elastic recoil. Give some symptoms of marfans syndrome

A

arachnodacyly (long hands and slender fingers)
abnormally tall
risk of aortic rupture
scoliosis

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30
Q

Mutation in the Col1A gene can cause osteogenesis imperfecta. Give some symptoms

A

Recurrent fractures
Hearing loss
Poor teeth development
blue sclera

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31
Q

What is cancellous bone?

A

A network of fine plates that are filled with bone marrrow

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32
Q

Distinguish between yellow marrow and red marrow

A

Red marrow - Haemopoietic centres where the blood cels are generated. Full of blood cells hence the red appearance
Yellow marrow - full of adipocytes, poor blood supply. Acts as a schock absorber and an energy supply for the red marrow. But can convert to red marrow in times of anaemia

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33
Q

Where are bone marrow samples taken?

A

The superior ilian crest

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34
Q

How do blood cells enter the circulation?

A

Via sinusoids

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35
Q

What are the functions of precapillary sphincters which allow blood to flow into the capillary bed or if they’re closed bypass the bed?

A

Open to control fluid and nutrient exchange between the capillaries and the bodies tissues

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36
Q

Descibe some differences between the structure of veins and arteries

A

Veins have bigger lumens, thinner tunica media (less muscle), arteries have double membraned tunica media, thicker tunica externa and a smaller lumen

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37
Q

Haemopoiesis occurs in the bone marrow in the adult. Give two regions it occurs in the foetus

A

Liver/spleen/yolk sac

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38
Q

What types of fibres exist in:
hyaline cartilage
elastic cartilage
fibrocartilage

A

Hyaline - type 2 collagen
elastic - elastic fibres and type 2 collagen
Fibrocartilage - mainly type 1 but some type 2

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39
Q

What is the only cell that exists in mature hyaline cartilage?

A

Chondrocytes

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40
Q

Chondrocytes lay down the matrix of the cartilage. In early foetal development hyaline cartilage is the precursor model for bones, the bones develop from this by a process called _____ _______

A

Endochondral ossification

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41
Q

Where does hyaline cartilage remain after endochondral ossification?

A

At the articular surfaces and at the epiphysis’ (growth plates)

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42
Q

Chondrocytes grow in depressions called _____ until they burst - releasing the ECM contents

A

Lacunae

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43
Q

Describe appositional and interstitial growth of cartilage

A

Appositional - Chondroblasts at the perichondrium divide and secrete matrix thus increasing cartilage width
Interstitial - Chondrocytes within lacunae receive growth signals -> they revert back to chondroblasts, divide and secrete matric thus increasing cartilage length

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44
Q

Give two examples of where you’d find hyaline cartilage

A

Articular surfaces/ trachea - cricoid cartilage - keeps airway open

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45
Q

Elastic cartilage is only found in three points in the body, give one

A

Pinna of the ear
Eustachian tube
Epiglottis (flap over trachea that prevents food from entering)

46
Q

Describe the strucutre of fibrocartilage and give some places where it exists in the body

A

Fibroblasts and chondrocytes (hyaline cartilage and densre regular connective tissue). Acts as a shock absorber in intervertebral discs.

47
Q

Describe endochondral ossification

A

Ossification beings at diaphysis -> nutrient artery penetrates and forms a primary ossification centre in the middle of the shaft -> Medulla becomes cancellous bone and secondary ossification centres form at the epiphyses -> Growth plates move until finished and then cortical ossification occurs af the periosteum -> growth plates replaced by bone cartilage remains at articular surfaces

48
Q

In the cancellous bone osteoblasts are proliferating and making matrix laying down collagen type I which is then mineralised (calcified) to bone, the osteoblasts then become trapped (in osteon) and are now called _____

A

Osteocytes

49
Q

What are the function of osteocytes?

A

Maintain the bone by extending filipodia to get nutrients from neighoburs

50
Q

Define haverisan and volkmann’s canals

A

Haversian - exist in the centre of osteons in cortical bone, they penetrate to the cancellous bone to get a blood supply

Volkmann’s - Run at right angles to haversian canals connecting them and distributing the bloody supply

51
Q

Whilst long bones undergo endochondral ossification, what do all other bones undergo?

A

Intramembranous ossification

52
Q

Give two functions of bone

A

Mechanical - act to protect organs and provide a framework for the body
Haemopoiesis via bone marrow
Metabolic - mineral storage, fat storage (yellow marrow), acid-base homeostasis - absorbs and releases salts to regulate blood pH

53
Q

Intramembranous ossification is the formation of bone from xlusters of MSC’s in the centre of the bone that grow via interstitial growth. Describe the process in detail - it thickens adult bones as well

A 
MSC's aggegate to form a tight cluster
MSC's differentiate into osteoblasts
Osteoblasts lay down osteoid
Osteoid is mineralised to bone spicules
Spicules joint to form trabeculae (cancelous bone) which merges to form woven bone
Trabeculae remodelled to cortical bone
54
Q

What stimulates the activity of osteoclasts?

A

PTH

55
Q

Why is vitamin D vital for bone development?

A

Processed to calcitriol which is necessary for calcium absorption

56
Q

Describe the stages of fracture repair

A

1) haematoma formation
2) inflammation
3) Formation of granulation tissue
4) Soft callus formation
5) hard callus formation
6) Bone remodelling

57
Q

What happens in osteoporosis

A

Loss of cancellous bone mass resulting in weaker centres and higher chance of fracture

58
Q

Rickets (and osteomalacia in adults) is the result of a citamin D deficiency meaning there is poor calcium absorption from the diet. What are the symptoms?

A

Soft bones/ bowed legs/shortened height and stature/pain when walking

59
Q

Give a cause of osteomalacia

A

Kidney disease (activation of vitamin D happens here)/phenytoin (reduces vitamin D absorption)

60
Q

Differentiate between type 1 and type 2 PRIMARY osteoporosis

A

Type 1 - Postmenopausal due to an increase in osteoclast number
Type 2 - occurs in older men and women - loss of osteoblast function as a result of loss of both oestrogen and androgens

61
Q

What is secondary osteoporosis

A

Result of drug therapy or hyperparathyroidism

62
Q

endochondral ossification is a form of _____ growth whilst intramembranous is a form of _____ growth

A

appositional/interstitial

63
Q

Name two factors that affect bone stability

A

Activity of osteoblasts/activity of osteoclasts/exercise/vitamins

64
Q

Explain the pathophysiology of rickets

A

vitamin D deficiency -> not enough calcitriol -> poor calcium absorption -> bone isn’t mineralised -> soft bones

65
Q

Give som risk factors for osteoporosis

A

Smoking in women/insufficient calcium intake/lack of exercise/anti-epileptic drugs like phenytoin

66
Q

What is achondraplasia?

A

Short stature but normal breadth body, so a mutation that affects endochondral ossification but not intramembranous

67
Q

What is the process whereby x-rays are absorbed by bone and dense tissues giving the x-ray appearance

A

Attenuation

68
Q

Explain PET scanning

A

Inject a radioactively labelled substance (normally glucose) which shows highly metabolic areas often for tumour imaging

69
Q

Is oxygen released more readily at low or high pH?

A

Low

70
Q

Describe some differences between myoglobin and haemoglobin

A

Myoglobin has one subunit and one haemo group. Has no affinity for carbon dioxide

71
Q

In a sarcomere, define - Z lines, I band, A bands, H zone and M line

A

M - Midline of sarcomere
H zone - region within the A band that contains just myosin filaments
A band - contains both filaments
I band - just actin filaments
Z band - superimposed to show the ends of the sarcomere, these are anchoring points for actin

72
Q

In which kind of muscle is myoglobin absent?

A

smooth muscle

73
Q

Which filaments are the thick filaments?

A

myosin. Actin are thin filaments

74
Q

Each dascicle contains fast and slow twitch fibres. Give an example comprised of mainly slow and one of mainly fast

A

Slow - soleus

fast - eye

75
Q

Slow twitch fibres have a high amount of myoglobin, mitochondria, cytochrome and a good blood supply. What colour are both types of fibre?

A

Slow - red

Fast - white

76
Q

Communication between cardiomyocytes occurs by calcium moving through what?

A

Gap junctions called intercalated discs.

77
Q

Describe some defining features of smooth muscle

A

Not striated, No sacromeres, no T tubules, slower but more sustaied contraction, lots of caveolae (small invaginations, dense bodies (focal adhesions) where the actin/myosin complexes assemble

78
Q

Explain the steps in the power stroke

A

1) actin-myosin are bound with no ATP in the rigor conformation
2) ATP binding causes dissociation of the myosin head
3) Myosin head moves along through hydrolysis of ATP
4) Actin rebinds and the power stroke occurs

79
Q

Name some differences between skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle

A

in cardiac - Z bands overlap/no T tubules/ presence of ANP granules/nucelu are central presence of intercalated disks

80
Q

Give some examples of lymphatic tissues and lymphatic organs

A

Lymphatic tissues - tonsils, peyers patches, veniform appendix
Lymphatic organs - lymph nodes, thymus, spleen

81
Q

Why are there no lymphatic vessels in the CNS?

A

To prevent cerebral oedema

82
Q

What is the cisterna chyli?

A

Largest lymph vessel in the body, drains chyle from the gut. Alsom arks the modline of which side of the bodies lymph vessels drain into left or right subclavian vein

83
Q

RUQ and right limb drain into right subclavian vein, rest drains into _____ _____ ____

A

left subclavian vein

84
Q

What encapsulated bacteria does splenectomy leave you vulnerable to?

A

Neisseria (meningitidis)/haemophilius/streptococci (pyogenes)

85
Q

Give three of the four functions of the lymphatic system

A

FLuid balance in interstitial fluid/transport of fat soluble vitamins/Filtering of lymph to remove pathogens/Destruction of old erythrocytes (spleen)

86
Q

What are the treatments for lymphoedema?

A

Compression hosiery/exercise whilst wearing hosiery/manual lymphatic drainage

87
Q

What are the three major layers of the skin?

A

Epidermis , Dermis, hypodermis

88
Q

Give the major functions of the epidermis, dermis and hypodermis

A

Hypodermis - Provides an energy store for heat generation/acts as a shock absorber/insulates underlying muscles/makes leptin

Dermis - contains hair and sweat glands fo rthermoregulation/contains special sensory structures for touch/contains elastin giving the skin its elastic nature

Epithelium - contains dendritic cells for antigen presentation/contains merkel mechanosensory cells/contains melanocytes for melanin production/protection via keratin

89
Q

What are the three layers of the dermis?

A

Papillary - upper
Interdigitating dermal papillae (top of papillary)
Reticular - lower

90
Q

Give the layers of the epidermis from the top down and explain a bit about them

A

Stratum corneum (dead keratinocytes)
Stratum lucidum
Stratum granulosum - contains keratin and lamellar bodies which make keratin
Straum spinosum - contains some Lamellar bodies which make keratin
Stratum basal - Melanocytes here and renewal of keratinocytes (no golgi in this layer)

91
Q

What is happening in psoriasis?

A

Increased transit time of keratin so no protection thus the skin is easily damaged.

92
Q

What muscle rasies hair follicles for thermoregulation?

A

arrector pili muscles

93
Q

What are the functions of nails?

A

protect end of finger/enhances sensitivity of fingertip/enhances delicate movements/used as a tool

94
Q

Give three functions of skin

A

Vitamin D synthesis/absorption of water and oxygen/sensation/lubrication via sebaceous glands/temperature regulation via sweat glands/protection from UV via melanin

95
Q

Give some constituents of grey matter

Give some of white matter

A

Nerve cell bodies/dendrites/non-myelinated axons/glial cells/axon terminals
Myelinated material

96
Q

What cells is myelin produced by in the

a) PNS
b) CNS

A

PNS - schwann cells

CNS - oligodendrocytes

97
Q

Explain the steps in neurotransmitter synthesis

A

1) Synthesis of neurotransmitter in cell body/NT moves to axon hillock via microtubules/action potential stimulates the release of the NT into the synapse/empty vesicles reutrn to the soma

98
Q

What complexes are needed for exocytosis of the NT vesicles?

A

SNARE

99
Q

_____ conudction occurs in myelinated neurons across the _____ __ ______

A

Saltatory

Nodes of ranvier

100
Q

What are astrocytes and what is their function?

A

star-shaped glial cells
They contol the flow of nutrients in the CNS/their feet contribute to the BB/regulate nervous imuplses by releasing inhibitory glutamate

101
Q

What cells synthesise and secrete CSF?

A

Ependymal cells

102
Q

What causes MS and what are the symptoms?

A

Autoimmune degradation of myelin
Symptoms are
-Fatigue/vision problems/slurred speech/muscle spasms

103
Q

Preganglionic neurones are myelinated, post-ganglionic ones are _____

A

Not

104
Q

Which system has thoracolumbar originas and which has brain stem and sacral origins?

A

Thoracolumbar - SYM

Brainstem and sacral - PARA

105
Q

What is contrast media? Give an example?

A

Something we inject into the body to make structures clearer in imaging techniques/ barium sulphate

Needs to be biologically inert, low osmolality and stable

106
Q

What is myasthenia gravis

A

An autoimmune condition where AChR are blocked resulting in intermittent muscle weakness, characterised by skeletal muscle weakness and ptosis

107
Q

Give some symptoms of compartment sutndrome

A

Parasthesia/pain/prolonged capillary refill time

108
Q

Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder where the dystrophin gene is mutated. Excess calcium enters the cell and water follows causing mitochondria to burse, muscle is replaced by fat. Give some symptoms

A

Bent knees to take weight/foot drop/poor balance/belly sticks out due to weak muscles

109
Q

organophosphate poisoning leads to SLUDGE syndrome. What is this?

A 
Salivation
Lacrimation
Urination
Defectaion
GI cramping 
Emesis
110
Q

below which temperature is considered hypothermia?

A

35 degrees

111
Q

Whats the functino of the ito cell?

A

Storage of vitamin A

112
Q

confocal microscopy is not light microscopy it uses lasers they are capable of live cell imaging

A

T

Body log broad notes (1 decks)

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