Breeding/reproduction (year 2) Flashcards

1
Q

what are the three goals of spermatogenesis?

A

produce spermatozoa
replenish supply of primordial stem cells
create genetic diversity

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2
Q

what are the three stages of spermatogenesis?

A

proliferation, meiotic, differentiation

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3
Q

what are the beginning and end products of proliferation?

A

start - spermatogonia

end - spermatocyte

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4
Q

what are the beginning and end products of the meiotic phase?

A

start - spermatocyte

end - haploid spermatid

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5
Q

what stages of spermatogenesis are found in the basal compartment?

A

spermatogonia

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6
Q

what stages of spermatogenesis are found in the adlumenal compartment?

A

spermatocyte, spermatid, spermatozoa

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7
Q

what are the beginning and end products of the differentiation stage of spermatogenesis?

A

start - spermatid

end - spermatozoa

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8
Q

describe the process of the proliferation phase of spermatogenesis

A

mitosis occurs creating genetically identical daughter cells, these cells are all joined together allowing them to divide at the same time

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9
Q

describe the process of the meiotic phase of spermatogenesis

A

creates genetic diversity by primary and then secondary spermatocytes forming haploid spermatids

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10
Q

what happens during the differentiation phase of spermatogenesis?

A

the round spermatid becomes a self propelled package of enzyme and DNA through 4 phases

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11
Q

what are the 4 phases of differentiation?

A

golgi, cap, acrosomal, maturation

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12
Q

what is spermiation?

A

the process of the sperm being released into the lumen of the seminiferous tubule

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13
Q

describe the morphology of a spermatozoa

A

head containing nucleus, acrosome and post-nuclear cap

tail which is a self-powered flagellum composed of a middle, principle and terminal piece

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14
Q

what is in the acrosome in the head of the spermatozoa?

A

hydrolytic enzymes that penetrate the zone pellucida

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15
Q

what is the range of spermatogenesis in most animals?

A

1-2 months

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16
Q

how do hormones regulate spermatogenesis?

A

hypothalamus releases GnRH which acts on the anterior pituitary to release LH and FSH

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17
Q

what does LH act on in the testes?

A

act on the leydig cells to produce testosterone

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18
Q

what does testosterone act on?

A

the Sertoli cells and also has a negative feedback effect on the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary

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19
Q

what does FSH act on in the testes?

A

the Sertoli cells

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20
Q

what do the Sertoli cells produce?

A

inhibin which has negative feedback on the anterior pituitary

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21
Q

where is sperm matured?

A

head of the epididymis

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22
Q

where is sperm stored?

A

tail of the epididymis

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23
Q

how long does transport through the epididymis take?

A

1-2 weeks

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24
Q

why is the sperm-testis barrier important?

A

spermatids are genetically unique so they will be rejected and attacked if they are accessible to the immune system

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25
Q

how is the appearance of sperm graded?

A
0 - clear water
1 - cloudy
2 - milky
3 - thin creamy
4 - creamy
5 - thick creamy
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26
Q

give some examples of things that may kill sperm?

A

water, smoke, temperature, bright light, blood, detergent

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27
Q

what are the three stages of parturition?

A

initiation of myometrial contractions
expulsion of foetus
expulsion of foetal membrane

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28
Q

what are species called that have singular offspring?

A

monotocous

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29
Q

what are species called that have multiple offspring?

A

polytocous

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30
Q

what are the ball park figures for how long each stage of parturition should take?

A

1 - 2-6 hours
2 - 30 minutes
3 - 1-6 hours for large animals

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31
Q

how long are the stages of parturition in the queen?

A

1 - 4-42 hours
2 - 30-60 minutes
3 - pass with neonate

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32
Q

what are the three terms used to describe the foetal disposition?

A

presentation
position
posture

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33
Q

what is described by the term presentation?

A

relation between the long axis of the foetus and birth canal
longitudinal or transverse

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34
Q

what is meant by the term position?

A

the relationship between the surface of the birth canal to which the foetal vertebral column is in contact
dorsal, vental, lateral

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35
Q

what is meant by the term posture?

A

the disposition of the head, neck and limbs

flexion, extension and direction

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36
Q

what is the term used for a normal birth?

A

eutocia

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37
Q

how may dystocia be prevented?

A

good selection of dam/sire

good husband and health care

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38
Q

name some consequences of dystocia

A
increase stillbirth
increased neonatal mortality
increased dam mortality
reduced productivity of dam
reduced fertility of dam
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39
Q

what are three reasons dystocia may occur?

A

insufficient expulsion force
inadequate size/shape of birth canal
size/disposition of foetus

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40
Q

what are the causes of foetal dystocia?

A

maldisposition
feto-maternal disproportion
fetal monsters
multiple births

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41
Q

what are the two types of abnormalities of the birth canal? give examples

A

skeletal - fractures, deformaties

soft tissue - excess fat, tumour, prolapse

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42
Q

what is primary uterine inertia?

A

when myometrial contractions fail to be initiated

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43
Q

what is secondary uterine inertia?

A

myometrial contraction cease after a while before parturition is complete may be due to fatigue or blockage

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44
Q

what is foetal programming?

A

environmental cues during foetal development have long term effects of the offspring

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45
Q

what are the modifications to the foetal circulation?

A

foramen ovale
ductus arteriosus
ductus venosus

46
Q

what changes occur to the neonates circulation?

A

foramen ovale closes - increased pulmonary circulation due to increase pressure in the left atrium
ductus arteriosus closes - reflex response due to oxygenated blood
ductus venosus closes

47
Q

what is the role of surfactant and when does it develop?

A

prevent alveolar collapse and develops in late gestation

48
Q

what happens to the lung fluid at and after birth?

A

physically removed and absorbed

49
Q

what are the physiological stimuli of breathing?

A

hypoxia, hypercapnia, respiratory acidosis

50
Q

what are the physical stimuli of breathing in the neonate?

A

lower temperature, tactile stimuli (licking/rubbing), gravity

51
Q

what are the differences between thermogenesis in young ruminants and foal?

A

ruminants - brown fat - don’t shiver as much

foal - endogenous glycogen - shiver more

52
Q

what change occurs in the liver at birth?

A

change from blood-forming to a metabolic organ

53
Q

describe the concentration of neutrophils in the neonate compared to adults

A

more neutrophils in the neonate

54
Q

what is the percentage activity of the complement system at birth?

A

10-60%

55
Q

when do the calves immunoglobulins first appear?

A

IgA and IgM - 4 days

IgG - 8 to 32 days

56
Q

is cell mediated immunity present at birth?

A

yes T cells are present at birth

57
Q

are B lymphocytes present at birth?

A

yes but 1/3 of the adults - this reaches full concentration at 20 days old

58
Q

what type of pathogens are neonates able to respond to?

A

soluble protein antigens

viral, bacteria, protozoa at 15-30 days old

59
Q

when are kidneys functional and what is excreted?

A

kidneys become functional in the second half of gestation and excrete urine into the urachus

60
Q

what two spinal reflexes develop early in gestation?

A

withdrawal and righting

61
Q

what are two reflexes that are present at birth?

A

suckling reflex

pupillary light reflex

62
Q

when in gestation does the foetus become able to move?

A

mid-gestation

63
Q

how would the tendons/ligaments be described in the neonate?

A

have tendon and ligament laxity (looseness)

64
Q

what are some features that indicate prematurity?

A

absence of incisors
tendon laxity (unable to support weight)
floppy ears
very fine silky coat (precocial species)

65
Q

what signs are used in cattle for heat detection?

A
stands to be mounted
mounts other cows
chin pressing/licking
sniffing
swollen vulva with discharge
66
Q

which is the most important sign of detecting cows in heat and when after this should they be served?

A

stands to be mounted

will ovulate 30 hours after the beginning of standing heat

67
Q

what oestrus detection aids are used in cattle?

A
tail paint/chalk
mount indicators (kamar)
activity monitors
68
Q

at what size will the follicle of a mare ovulate?

A

> 35mm

69
Q

what shape does the mares follicle become before ovulation?

A

teardrop shape within 24 hours of ovulation

70
Q

will the follicle of a mare become softer or harder when approaching ovulation?

A

softer within 6-12 hours of ovulation

71
Q

will the follicle wall of the mare become thicker or thinner when nearing ovulation?

A

thicker 24 hours prior to ovulation

72
Q

what is used in the bitch to determine the stage of the oestrus cycle?

A

vaginal cytology

73
Q

when the bitch is in anoestrus what cells would you expect to see?

A

parabasal - round with large nucleus

74
Q

when the bitch is in proestrus what cells would you expect to see?

A

cornified - irregular shape and small nucleus

75
Q

using vaginal cytology how would you tell a bitch is coming into oestrus?

A

number of cornified cells increase by 10% each day until oestrus where they reach 100%

76
Q

when do you know a bitch has reach dioestrus using vaginal cytology?

A

on day one of dioestrus there is a drop in the number of cornified cell by 50%

77
Q

what are the reasons for manipulating oestrus?

A

poor oestrus detection
synchronisation
enable AI or ET
trigger postpartum resumption

78
Q

how is the luteal phase shortened?

A

prostaglandin (PGF2alpha)

79
Q

how is the luteal phase extended??

A

progesterone

80
Q

what can be used to recruit/grow follicles?

A

GnRH

81
Q

what can be used to trigger ovulation?

A

GnRH or gonadotropins

82
Q

what is used to temporarily arrest the oestrus cycle?

A

progesterone

83
Q

name some causes of anoestrus

A
pregnancy
lactation - can depend how often offspring feeds
season
negative energy balance
stress
pathology/disease
84
Q

what is a programme used to synch beef cattle <50 days postpartum and dairy cattle?

A

fixed time AI using ovsynch

85
Q

describe fixed time AI for beef cattle <50 days postpartum and dairy cattle

A

GnRH on day 0 to synchronise the new follicular waves
on day 7 give PGF2alpha to cause luteolysis, this will remove the CL whether it is mature and ovulated or immature
on day 9 give another dose of GnRH to stimulate the follicle to ovulate
AI on day 10

86
Q

describe the cycling heifers can be synchronised

A

2 doses of PGF2alpha 11 days apart and the AI at 72 and 96 hours after the second dose or once at 84 hours after the second dose

87
Q

how does using two doses of PGF2alpha work in cyclicling heifers?

A

1st dose - CL undergo luteolysis then a new follicle will form and ovulate forming a new CL but if there is no CL present the follicle ovulates and CL forms
2nd dose - all have CL so undergo luteolysis a new follicle will form and ovulate

88
Q

what programme is used for heifers and cycling beef cattle more than 50 days postpartum?

A

intravaginal progesterone devices such as CIDR or PRID placed in and then PGF2alpha is given just before they are removed

89
Q

what is used to synchronise sheep flocks?

A

progesterone sponges are placed inside the vagina and PMSG is given on removal

90
Q

what are the negative effects of using progesterone sponges in sheep?

A

lower pregnancy rate compared to normal
higher ram to ewe ratio needed
higher risk of triplets and quads

91
Q

how is the oestrus cycle manipulated in gilts?

A

puberty is induced using a PMSG and hCG

2nd oestrus is then synchronised using PGF2alpha 18 days after the PMSG/hCG

92
Q

how is oestrus activity stimulated post-farrowing?

A

prostaglandin 24 hours after farrowing then PMSG/hCG at weaning

93
Q

what is the lifespan of fresh, chilled and frozen semen in the mare?

A

fresh - 72 hours
chilled - 36 hours
frozen - 12 hours

94
Q

why is pregnancy diagnosis done?

A

check pregnancy
litter size
due date
sexing

95
Q

using rectal palpation, what are you looking for to confirm a pregnancy?

A
enlarged horn
fluid
membrane slip
foetus
cotyledons
fremitus
96
Q

what is fremitus?

A

turbulence/vibration in the uterine artery

97
Q

what happens during the membrane slip when rectally palpating an animal?

A

allantoic membrane slips through fingers just before the uterine wall

98
Q

ultrasonography can be used, how long into gestation of cattle can you do this?

A

28 days

99
Q

what are you looking for to confirm a pregnancy when using ultrasonography?

A

fluid filled sac that appears black

100
Q

how can hormone assays be used to confirm pregnancy?

A

measure progesterone on day 0 and day 21 should stay high if she conceives
pregnancy associated proteins
eCG levels in the mare
oestrone sulphate

101
Q

what are the advantages of artificial insemination?

A

large gene pool
known traits
biosecurity
no male needed

102
Q

what are the disadvantages of artificial insemination?

A

oestrogen detection

handling animals

103
Q

if you see a cow in oestrus one morning when should she be AIed and why?

A

in the afternoon - oestrus is 9-14 hours and ovulation occurs 12-18 hours after the end of oestrus

104
Q

where do you deposit the semen when doing AI?

A

into the horn

105
Q

how is sex semen separated?

A

X sperm contains more DNA so attracts more dye, the sperm are then deactivated by a laser

106
Q

what can be used to trigger parturition in pigs?

A

prostaglandin on day 114 the sow will farrow within 36 hours

107
Q

how is parturition/abortion triggered in cattle?

A

corticosteroid or prostaglandin depending on the how far into the gestation they are
use prostaglandin if more than 255 days

108
Q

what is to used to treat misalliance in the mare?

A

progesterone (fluprostenol) on day 35

109
Q

what is used to treat misalliance in the bitch?

A

aglepristone (progesterone antagonist) up to 45 days of gestation

110
Q

what is used to treat misalliance in cattle?

A

prostaglandin from day 6 to 150

111
Q

what drugs can be used to suppress reproduction?

A

progesterone, oxytocin, testosterone, GnRH vaccine