BREATHING CIRICUIT Flashcards

1
Q

What is the function of the Oxygen Analyzer?

A

To check the gas mixture before it reaches the patient.

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2
Q

How does a Galvanic Fuel Cell operate?

A

It operates based on a chemical reaction that generates an electrical current proportional to oxygen concentration.

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3
Q

What are the advantages of a Galvanic Fuel Cell?

A
  • Long Life: Up to 2 years
  • Self-Powered: Generates its own current.
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4
Q

What are the disadvantages of a Galvanic Fuel Cell?

A
  • Slow Response
  • Requires regular calibration.
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5
Q

What principle does a Paramagnetic Device operate on?

A

It uses a magnetic field to detect oxygen, as oxygen is a paramagnetic gas.

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6
Q

What are the advantages of a Paramagnetic Device?

A
  • Rapid Response
  • High Accuracy.
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7
Q

What are the disadvantages of a Paramagnetic Device?

A
  • Higher cost
  • Requires external power.
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8
Q

What is an open anesthesia circuit?

A

A simple anesthesia delivery system with no rebreathing components.

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9
Q

What are the basic components of an open circuit?

A
  • Source of fresh gas
  • Delivery system (mask, nasal prongs)
  • Unidirectional flow path.
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10
Q

What are the situations where open circuits are used?

A
  • Short, minor procedures
  • Emergency situations.
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11
Q

What are the advantages of open circuits?

A
  • Simplicity
  • Rapid induction and recovery
  • Low resistance to breathing.
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12
Q

What are the disadvantages of open circuits?

A
  • Inefficiency in gas usage
  • Lack of control over gas composition
  • Risk of pollution.
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13
Q

What are the four stages of anesthesia?

A
  • Stage I: Induction or Analgesia
  • Stage II: Excitement or Delirium
  • Stage III: Surgical Anesthesia
  • Stage IV: Overdose.
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14
Q

What characterizes Stage I of anesthesia?

A

Period from the beginning of anesthesia to loss of consciousness.

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15
Q

What occurs during Stage II of anesthesia?

A

Involuntary movements, irregular breathing, heightened reflexes.

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16
Q

What is the goal during Stage II of anesthesia?

A

To pass through this stage quickly to minimize risks and discomfort.

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17
Q

What defines Stage III of anesthesia?

A

Further divided into four planes, diminishing reflexes, increasing muscle relaxation.

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18
Q

What is Stage IV of anesthesia characterized by?

A

Severe CNS depression, cessation of spontaneous respiration, potential circulatory collapse.

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19
Q

What are Mapleson Circuits?

A

Semi-open breathing systems used for inhalation anesthesia.

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20
Q

What is the principle of operation for Mapleson Circuits?

A

Fresh Gas Flow (FGF) flushes out exhaled gases to prevent rebreathing.

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21
Q

What is the function of the reservoir bag in Mapleson Circuits?

A

To monitor the patient’s breathing and assist in manual ventilation.

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22
Q

What is Mapleson A (Magill’s Circuit) used for?

A

Mainly for spontaneous ventilation.

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23
Q

What is a key feature of Mapleson D (Bain Circuit)?

A

Coaxial design with fresh gas flow tube inside the expiratory limb.

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24
Q

What is the Pethick Test used for?

A

To check the proper functioning of the Bain circuit.

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25
Q

What should happen to the reservoir bag during the Pethick Test when the patient end is occluded?

A

The reservoir bag should inflate and remain inflated.

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26
Q

What is Fresh Gas Coupling (FGC)?

A

A mechanism where fresh gas flow influences the volume of gas delivered to the patient.

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27
Q

How does Fresh Gas Coupling affect tidal volume?

A

It increases the volume of gas delivered by adding fresh gas flow to the set tidal volume.

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28
Q

What are the clinical implications of Fresh Gas Coupling?

A
  • Anesthetic Depth
  • Volume Control
  • Machine Differences.
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29
Q

What is required for calculating the actual tidal volume in Fresh Gas Coupling?

A

Actual Tidal Volume = Set Tidal Volume + FGC Effect.

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30
Q

What is the formula to estimate the actual tidal volume delivered to a patient?

A

Actual Tidal Volume = Set Tidal Volume + FGC Effect

Where FGC Effect is the additional volume contributed by the fresh gas flow.

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31
Q

What factors are considered when calculating the FGC Effect?

A
  • Fresh Gas Flow Rate (FGF)
  • Duration of Inspiration

FGC Effect is calculated as FGC Effect = FGF x Duration of Inspiration.

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32
Q

Define tidal volume in the context of mechanical ventilation.

A

Tidal volume is the volume of air delivered to the lungs with each breath during mechanical ventilation.

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33
Q

How does fresh gas flow (FGF) impact tidal volume?

A

An increase in FGF can artificially inflate the tidal volume.

34
Q

What is the I:E ratio?

A

The I:E ratio is the ratio of time spent in inspiration versus expiration during mechanical ventilation.

35
Q

How does FGF affect the I:E ratio?

A

If FGF increases tidal volume significantly, it might require adjustments in ventilatory settings, including potentially altering the I:E ratio.

36
Q

What is respiratory rate in the context of mechanical ventilation?

A

Respiratory rate is the number of breaths delivered to the patient per minute by the ventilator.

37
Q

Does fresh gas flow directly change the set respiratory rate?

A

No, FGF doesn’t directly change the set respiratory rate.

38
Q

What is the filling mechanism of ascending bellows?

A

Ascending bellows are filled from the bottom.

39
Q

What is a safety feature of ascending bellows?

A

Leak detection occurs when the bellows fail to ascend or ascend less than expected.

40
Q

How do descending bellows fill?

A

Descending bellows are filled from the top.

41
Q

What is a safety concern with descending bellows?

A

A leak may not be immediately apparent, as the bellows can still descend due to gravity.

42
Q

What is the primary mechanism of piston ventilators?

A

Piston ventilators use an electric motor to drive a piston within a cylinder.

43
Q

What are the advantages of piston ventilators?

A
  • Precision in tidal volume delivery
  • Independence from driving gas
  • Equipped with feedback mechanisms

Feedback systems adjust based on the patient’s lung compliance and resistance.

44
Q

List the five tasks of oxygen in the anesthesia machine.

A
  • Proceeds to the fresh gas flowmeter
  • Powers the oxygen flush valve
  • Activates the fail-safe mechanism
  • Activates the low-pressure alarm
  • Compresses the bellows of mechanical ventilators.
45
Q

Define spontaneous breathing.

A

Spontaneous breathing refers to the patient’s own respiratory effort without any assistance from a mechanical ventilator.

46
Q

What characterizes assisted breathing?

A

The patient initiates the breath, and the ventilator provides additional volume or pressure.

47
Q

What is controlled breathing?

A

Controlled breathing is when the ventilator completely takes over the work of breathing for the patient.

48
Q

What are the clinical applications of Controlled Mandatory Ventilation (CMV)?

A
  • Deep anesthesia
  • Respiratory failure
  • Neuromuscular disorders.
49
Q

What are considerations when using CMV?

A
  • Risk of hypoventilation or hyperventilation
  • Lung protection
  • Patient sedation.
50
Q

What is the purpose of Assist Control Ventilation (ACV)?

A

Used for patients who can breathe spontaneously but need assistance to maintain adequate ventilation.

51
Q

What are the risks associated with ACV?

A
  • Risk of hyperventilation
  • Patient comfort
  • Adjustment of sensitivity.
52
Q

What is Synchronized Intermittent Mandatory Ventilation (SIMV) used for?

A

Often used in the weaning process, allowing patients to gradually take over more of the breathing work.

53
Q

What are the clinical applications of Pressure Control Ventilation - Volume Guaranteed (PCV-VG)?

A
  • Lung protective ventilation
  • Variable respiratory conditions.
54
Q

What are considerations when using PCV-VG?

A
  • Monitoring and adjustments
  • Balance of pressure and volume
  • Patient comfort and synchrony.
55
Q

What is Pressure Support Ventilation (PSV) primarily used for?

A

Commonly used in the weaning process, allowing patients to gradually take on more of the work of breathing.

56
Q

What are the considerations for PSV?

A
  • Risk of hypoventilation
  • Patient-ventilator synchronization
  • Adjusting pressure support.
57
Q

What is Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP) used for?

A
  • Prevention of airway collapse
  • Lung expansion therapy
  • Weaning and post-extubation.
58
Q

What is required for CPAP to be suitable for a patient?

A

Adequate spontaneous breathing is required.

59
Q

What is Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP) used for?

A

Commonly used in conditions like obstructive sleep apnea (OSA), lung expansion therapy, and post-extubation support.

CPAP helps prevent airway collapse and atelectasis.

60
Q

What is a key consideration when using CPAP?

A

Adequate spontaneous breathing is required for effectiveness.

CPAP is suitable only for patients who can maintain their own respiratory effort.

61
Q

What are the risks associated with CPAP?

A

Risk of barotrauma and patient comfort issues.

Monitoring is necessary to prevent complications.

62
Q

How does the transition from CPAP occur?

A

Based on the patient’s ability to maintain ventilation and airway patency without continuous positive pressure.

Adjustment is made according to the patient’s condition.

63
Q

What is Bilevel Positive Airway Pressure (BiPAP) primarily used for?

A

Respiratory insufficiency, reduction of respiratory workload, and nocturnal ventilation support.

BiPAP is beneficial for patients who can breathe spontaneously.

64
Q

What is a critical consideration when using BiPAP?

A

Patient comfort and risk of asynchrony between patient and ventilator.

Monitoring is crucial to ensure effective settings.

65
Q

What defines the transition from BiPAP?

A

Adjustment based on improvement of the patient’s respiratory status.

Levels of support can be reduced as the patient’s condition improves.

66
Q

What is Airway Pressure Release Ventilation (APRV) used for?

A

Lung protective strategy, reduced sedation needs, and improved oxygenation.

Particularly beneficial in managing ARDS.

67
Q

What must be monitored when using APRV?

A

Monitoring and adjustment are required to optimize oxygenation and ventilation.

Careful assessment helps mitigate risks.

68
Q

What are the risks associated with APRV?

A

Risk of hypoventilation and hemodynamic impact due to sustained high intrathoracic pressure.

Requires careful cardiovascular monitoring.

69
Q

How does the transition from APRV occur?

A

Gradual adjustment of P-high and time settings as the patient’s lung function improves.

This helps in reducing respiratory support gradually.

70
Q

What is the primary application of Inverse Ratio Ventilation (IRV)?

A

Used in refractory hypoxemia and lung recruitment.

Effective for conditions like ARDS.

71
Q

What are the risks of using IRV?

A

Risk of lung injury and hemodynamic compromise.

Increased airway pressure can lead to complications.

72
Q

What is required during the transition from IRV?

A

Gradual reduction of inspiratory time to return to a conventional I:E ratio.

This is done as the patient’s lung function improves.

73
Q

What is High Frequency Ventilation (HFV) used for?

A

Lung protection, pediatric and neonatal care, and airway surgery.

Particularly useful when conventional ventilation is not optimal.

74
Q

What considerations are important when using HFV?

A

Monitoring ventilation and oxygenation, hemodynamic impact, and specialized equipment requirements.

HFV necessitates specific ventilators and expertise.

75
Q

How does the transition from HFV occur?

A

Gradual transition to conventional ventilation as the patient’s condition improves.

This should consider the patient’s lung mechanics.

76
Q

What principle does Jet Ventilation utilize?

A

The Venturi effect, which allows entrainment of additional gas or fluid into the main flow.

This principle enhances ventilation volumes.

77
Q

What are Airway Exchange Catheters (AECs) used for?

A

Facilitate changing or removing endotracheal tubes and can deliver jet ventilation.

AECs must be placed properly to avoid trauma.

78
Q

What is Needle Cricothyrotomy with Transtracheal Jet Ventilation (TTJV)?

A

An emergency technique for ‘cannot intubate, cannot oxygenate’ scenarios.

Involves using a large-bore catheter for ventilation.

79
Q

What is the typical respiratory rate for TTJV?

A

~8-10 breaths/min with an appropriate I:E ratio of 1:3 or 1:4.

This helps prevent air trapping.

80
Q

What are the risks associated with TTJV?

A

Barotrauma, subcutaneous emphysema, pneumothorax, and catheter obstruction.

Lower inspiratory pressures improve safety.