Breast station Flashcards

1
Q

How can a breast lump be assessed on examination?

A

4S- site, size, shape, symmetry
4Ts- Tranillumination, temperature, tethering, tenderness
3C-colour, consistency, compressability

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2
Q

What causes breast cancer?

A

90%sporadic 10% hereditary

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3
Q

What are the risk factors for breast Ca

A

Risk factors for breast carcinoma include:

Increased hormone exposure
Early menarche or late menopause
Nulliparity or late first pregnancy
Oral contraceptives or Hormonal Replacement Therapy
Susceptibility gene mutations
Most commonly BRCA mutations (BRCA1/BRCA2)
Advancing age
Caucasian ethnicity
Obesity and lack of physical activity
Alcohol and tobacco use
Past history of breast cancer
Previous radiotherapy treatment
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4
Q

How common is male breast cancer?

A

1% of all breast cancers are male.loss os chest hair ,klinefletiers

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5
Q

What is the tumour marker for breast cancer

A

CA 15.3

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6
Q

What inherited syndromes can cause breast cancer

A

High pentrance

BRACA 1 &2,PLAB2
Li fraumeni(tp53)-brain tumours, leukemias and sarcomas
Cowden PTEN(microcephaly, autism,thyroid kidney caendometrial ca)
CDH1(diffuse gastric ca)
STK11(Peutz Jeghers)

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7
Q

What is the Nottingham criteria for breast cancer?

A

The most basic prognostic factors aregradeof tumour,sizeof tumour, and axillalymph nodestatus.

Grade: a measure of cellular differentiation, from grade 1 (well differentiated) to grade 3 (poorly differentiated). Essentially, a measure of how “aggressive” the individual cells are deemed to be.

Lymph nodes can be scored from 1-3, with 1 = 0 nodes affected and 3 = >3 nodes affected.

These basic prognostic factors can be combined to give a 5-year survival probability in theNottingham Prognostic Index (NPI):

(0.2*size) + grade + lymph node score

A score below 2.5 has a 93% 5-year survival, and a score of 5.5+ has a 50% 5-year survival.

Other prognostic factors includehistologyandstage.

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8
Q

What is oncotype dx?

A

PREDICTIVE AND PROGNOSTIC – ONCOTYPE DX:Oncotype Dxis a predictive test that gives the likeliness of a patientbenefitting from chemotherapy(and hormone therapy),and the likelihood ofcancer recurrence. It is carried out in some ER+ HER2- LN- patients.

Detailed explanation:

Oncotype DX is an assay carried out on a surgical specimen. Unlike the previous two tests, it does not look at the expression of one or two specific receptors. Instead, it looks at expression of 21 genes associated with breast cancer. The oncotype DX assay will output a score of 0-100, which predicts the likeliness of cancer recurrence, and who is likely to benefit from chemotherapy. Based on their score, patients are considered “low risk”, “intermediate risk”, or “high risk”. They will be subsequently directed towards or away from chemotherapy to avoid either under- or over-treatment.

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9
Q

What is the Manchester criteria for BRACA?when should testing be offered?

A

BRCA1/2 testing is indicated in an unaffected person where there is no living affected person available for testing. The Manchester score should be 20 or above
The individual should have a 1st degree relative affected with a relevant cancer
Ideally testing should be offered to an affected individual where there is a greater chance of identifying a mutation
Testing for the 3 Ashkenazi founder mutations offered to women with breast cancer and Ashkenazi ancestry. Full analysis of offered when Manchester Scoring is 20 and above
Testing of other genes e.g. PALB2, P53, Stk11, CDH1, PTEN can also be considered if appropriate

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10
Q

When is prophylactic mastectomy offered?

A

In women who have been assessed and deemed “high risk” for developing breast cancer, a bilateral mastectomy can be considered. High risk is defined by NICE as having a lifetime risk of ≥30%. The majority of patients that undergo risk reduction surgery have been diagnosed with a specific gene mutation (most commonly BRCA-1, BRCA-2 or p53).

Note that the procedure is referred to as risk reducing, not ‘prophylactic’. This is due to the fact that there is a residual risk of developing breast cancer, even after bilateral mastectomy surgery. Therelative riskreduction of a bilateral mastectomy is 95%. This means that the post-procedure lifetime risk is 5% of whatever the individual’s risk was considered to be pre-operatively. For example, if the patient was given a 9lifetime risk of approximately 80% (as might be the case with a BRCA-1 gene mutation), then the residual risk after bilateral mastectomy would be around 4%.

The decision to undergo a bilateral mastectomy for risk reduction can be difficult and is often associated with a significant psychological burden. As such, formal psychological assessment is a requirement during the counselling process and it is important to discuss all of the alternative options and ensure that the patient has all of the information to make an informed decision.

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11
Q

What is the referral criteria for breast cancer

A
  • Refer people using a suspected cancer pathway referral(for an appointment within 2 weeks) for breast cancer if:
    • They are aged 30 and over and have an unexplained breast lump with or without pain or
    • They are aged 50 and over with any of the following symptoms in one nipple only:
      • Discharge
      • Retraction
      • Other changes of concern (new NICE recommendation for 2015)
  • Consider a suspected cancer pathway referral(for an appointment within 2 weeks) people:
    • With skin changes that suggest breast cancer or
    • Aged 30 and over with an unexplained lump in the axilla (new NICE recommendation for 2015).
  • Consider non-urgent referralin people aged under 30 with an unexplained breast lump with or without pain (new NICE recommendation for 2015).
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12
Q

What are the contraindications for radiotherapy?

A

Radiotherapy is carried out around 6 weeks after the end of chemotherapy (or after surgery, if the patient is not receiving chemotherapy). The patient will first have a planning CT scan to map out the area to focus. Small blue marks will be tattooed onto the skin to ensure the correct locations are used for all future sessions. Tangential beam radiotherapy will then be used in short sessions 5 days per week for 3 weeks, with an occasional “boost” week. Tangential beam therapy involves low dose radiotherapy at 40Gy from multiple directions. The intensity of the beams is low so as to minimise harm to surrounding structures, but will be high where the beams cross at the target location. There is still a risk of developing complications from radiotherapy usage, however.

If a patient is diagnosed with osteoporosis or has a fragility fracture further investigations may be warranted. NOGG recommend testing for the following reasons:
exclude diseases that mimic osteoporosis (e.g. osteomalacia, myeloma);
identify the cause of osteoporosis and contributory factors;
assess the risk of subsequent fractures;
select the most appropriate form of treatment

The following investigations are recommended by NOGG:
History and physical examination
Blood cell count, sedimentation rate or C-reactive protein, serum calcium,
albumin, creatinine, phosphate, alkaline phosphatase and liver transaminases
Thyroid function tests
Bone densitometry ( DXA)

Other procedures, if indicated
Lateral radiographs of lumbar and thoracic spine/DXA-based vertebral imaging
Protein immunoelectrophoresis and urinary Bence-Jones proteins
25OHD
PTH
Serum testosterone, SHBG, FSH, LH (in men),
Serum prolactin
24 hour urinary cortisol/dexamethasone suppression test
Endomysial and/or tissue transglutaminase antibodies (coeliac disease)
Isotope bone scan
Markers of bone turnover, when available
Urinary calcium excretion

So from the first list we should order the following bloods as a minimum for all patients:
full blood count
urea and electrolytes
liver function tests
bone profile
CRP
thyroid function tests
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13
Q

What are side effects of chemotherapy

A

Normally given as an adjuvant therapy to reduce recurrence and improve survival, chemotherapy can also be taken as a neo-adjuvant therapy to shrink a tumour prior to surgery. It is generally a combination of 2-3 cytotoxic medications taken IV in sessions lasting a few hours and followed by a break of a few weeks. This is considered one “cycle”, and treatment may involve up to 8 cycles. Historically, disease factors indicating need for chemotherapy were TNM staging based decisions. Now, disease factors indicating need for chemotherapy also include HER2+ subtype, triple negative subtype, having a high oncotype DX score, and otherwise having a poor prognosis.

Chemotherapy increases mortality and has a high morbidity. As such, molecular subtyping is important in determining whether chemotherapy will be beneficial and outweigh the risks.

Regime options includeFEC(fluorouracil, epirubicin, and cyclophosphamide) andEC(epirubicin and cyclophosphamide). These regimes may have other medications added on top of them.Taxanes(e.g. docetaxel) may be added in patients with poor prognoses, for example node positive patients (a common example of a taxane containing regime isFEC-T). Taxanes comes with the risk of additional side effects, such as neuropathy, but reduce recurrence risk.Platinum-basedmedications (e.g. carboplatin) may be added if the cancer is triple negative.

Side effects

Common side effects of chemotherapy include:

Nausea, appetite and weight loss, changes to taste, changes to skin and nails, severe fatigue, immunosuppression, easy bleeding and bruising, bowel disturbance, hair loss

Potentially serious complications include:

Deterioration in kidney function, thrombosis, changes in hearing

Severe complications include:

Cardiotoxicity,neutropenic sepsis (especially with taxanes),death

Possible late effects include:

peripheral neuropathy, early menopause,infertility,secondary malignancy(with certain chemotherapies)

It is important to discuss these risks with the patient prior to treatment.

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14
Q

When mastectomy be preferred over wide local excision

A

Surgery is the first line of treatment in the majority of patients that are diagnosed with breast cancer. Nowadays, most of these patients undergo a breast conserving procedure (see wide local excision [hyperlink])but in approximately 25% of cases, a mastectomy is still performed. The decision to perform mastectomy versus breast conserving surgery is multifactorial, including:

·Tumour size (in relation to the individual’s breast volume)

·Multifocal tumour

·Contraindication to chest wall radiotherapy (most patients who have breast conserving surgery also require radiotherapy to the remaining tissue whereas a mastectomy often permits the omission of radiotherapy). Example contraindications = previous radiotherapy to the same area, p53 gene mutation (Li-Fraumeni Syndrome).

·Patient choice
Common indications for mastectomy include

  • Breast cancer
  • “Risk reduction” surgery
  • Symmetrising surgery (in patients with a contralateral mastectomy)
  • Very rarely other reasons such as recurrent infections or necrotising fasciitis

After a mastectomy with no reconstruction (termed a simple mastectomy), most patients choose to wear an external prosthesis that sits in the cup of their bra. This is professionally fitted to match the contralateral breast. However, a minority of patients request a contralateral mastectomy simply to provide symmetry and remove the necessity to wear the prosthesis (which can be uncomfortable or heavy).

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15
Q

Most common side of metastasis

A

Increasingly, women present as a consequence of mammographic screening. Around 40% of patients will have axillary nodal disease, the likelihood of this rising with increasing size of the primary tumour. The involvement of axillary nodes by tumour is the strongest prognostic predictor. Distant metastases are infrequently present at diagnosis and the commonest sites of spread are: bone (70%), lung (60%), liver (55%), pleura (40%), adrenals (35%), skin (30%) and brain (10–20%).

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16
Q

What hormonal contraception methods are safe to use in patients who have a family history of breast cancer

A
  • The copper-bearing intrauterine device (Cu-IUD).
  • The levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system
  • .Etonogestrel-only implant (Nexplanon®)
  • Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (Depo-Provera®, SAYANA PRESS®).
  • Progestogen-only pill (POP).
  • Combined hormonal contraceptives (CHC).
  • Inform women aged over 35 years with a family history of breast cancer that there is an increased risk of breast cancer associated with taking the oral contraceptive pill, given that their absolute risk increases with age.
  • Advice to women up to age 35 years with a family history of breast cancer should be in keeping with general health advice on the use of the oral contraceptive pill.
  • For women who are known carriers of a gene mutation associated with breast cancer (such as BRCA1 or BRCA2):
    • TheCu-IUDmay be usedwithout restriction (UKMEC category 1).
    • The following methods may be generally used (UKMEC category2):
      • POP.
      • Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (Depot-Provera, SAYANA PRESS).®®
      • Etonogestrel-only implant (Nexplanon).®
      • LNG-IUS.
    • If the CHC is being considered (UKMEC category 3), discusswith (or refer the woman to) a specialist genetics service, as views are conflicting on whether or not the protective effects of CHC against ovarian cancer outweigh the increased risk of breast cancer.
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17
Q

Breast anatomy

A

notebook

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18
Q

What are the tanner staging of breast development

A

notebook

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19
Q

What are the causes of gynaecomastia?

A

Chronic liver disease
Hypogonadism-klinefelter’s
adolescent males
drugs-spironolactone,digoxin,oestrogen,methyldopa

20
Q

what are the causes of galactorrhea?

A

pregnancy
hyperprolactinoma
drugs-antipsychotics,ssris,metaclopromide

21
Q

When is thromboprophylaxis gien to hospitalised patients?

A

VTEs can cause severe morbidity and mortality, but they are preventable. Current NICE guidelines (updated for 2018) outline recommendations for assessment and management of patients at risk of VTE in hospital.

Risk factors

All patients admitted to hospital should be individually assessed to identify risk factors for VTE development and bleeding risk. For medical and surgical patients the recommended risk proforma is the department of healths VTE risk assessment tool.

The following inpatients would be deemed at increased risk of developing a VTE:

Medical patients:
significant reduction in mobility for 3 days or more (or anticipated to have significantly reduced mobility)

Surgical/trauma patients:
hip/knee replacement
hip fracture
general anaesthetic and a surgical duration of over 90 minutes
surgery of the pelvis or lower limb with a general anaesthetic and a surgical duration of over 60 minutes
acute surgical admission with an inflammatory/intra-abdominal condition
surgery with a significant reduction in mobility

General risk factors:
active cancer/chemotherapy
aged over 60
known blood clotting disorder (e.g. thrombophilia)
BMI over 35
dehydration
one or more significant medical comorbidities (e.g. heart disease; metabolic/endocrine pathologies; respiratory disease; acute infectious disease and inflammatory conditions)
critical care admission
use of hormone replacement therapy (HRT)
use of the combined oral contraceptive pill
varicose veins
pregnant or less than 6 weeks post-partum

After a patients VTE risk has been assessed, this should be compared to their risk of bleeding to decide whether VTE prophylaxis should be offered. If indicated VTE prophylaxis should be started as soon as possible.

22
Q

What DVT prophylaxis can be provided?

A

Mechanical:
Correctly fitted anti-embolism (aka compression) stockings (thigh or knee height)
An Intermittent pneumatic compression device

Pharmacological:
Fondaparinux sodium (SC injection)
Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)
e.g. enoxaparin
reduced doses should be used in patients with severe renal impairment
Unfractionated heparin (UFH)
used as an alternative to LWMH in patients with chronic kidney disease

23
Q

How to prevent DVT’s in hospitalised patients?

A

Pre-surgical interventions:
Advise women to stop taking their combined oral contraceptive pill/hormone replacement therapy 4 weeks before surgery.

Post-surgical interventions:
Try to mobilise patients as soon as possible after surgery
Ensure the patient is hydrated

24
Q

What is Osteoporosis?

A

Osteoporosis is a progressive, systemic skeletal disorder characterised by low bone mass and micro-architectural deterioration of bone tissue, with a consequent increase in bone fragility and susceptibility to fracture. Bone formation exceeds bone resorption in youth, but by the third decade of life there is a gradual loss of bone mass. Osteoporosis is therefore usually an age-related disease. It can affect both sexes, but women are at greater risk because the decrease in oestrogen production after the menopause accelerates bone loss to a variable degree.

25
Q

What are the risk factors for Osteoporosis?

and secondary causes

A
The major risk factors for osteoporosis are age and female gender. Other risk factors include:
corticosteroid use
smoking
alcohol
low body mass index
family history
Other risk factors
sedentary lifestyle
premature menopause
Caucasians and Asians
endocrine disorders: hyperthyroidism, hypogonadism (e.g. Turner's, testosterone deficiency), growth hormone deficiency, hyperparathyroidism, diabetes mellitus
multiple myeloma, lymphoma
gastrointestinal disorders: inflammatory bowel disease, malabsorption (e.g. Coeliac's), gastrectomy, liver disease
chronic kidney disease
osteogenesis imperfecta, homocystinuria
Medications that may worsen osteoporosis (other than glucocorticoids):
SSRIs
antiepileptics
proton pump inhibitors
glitazones
long term heparin therapy
aromatase inhibitors e.g. anastrozole

In general, secondary causes can include:

  • Malignancy: myeloma, metastatic carcinoma
  • Endocrine: Cushing’s disease, thyrotoxicosis, primary hyperparathyroidism, hypogonadism, DM.
  • Renal disease:reduces vitamin D metabolism and important for absorbing it via PTH.
  • Drugs: long-term corticosteroids (includes transplant patients), heparin, aromatase inhibitors,androgen deprivation therapy, SSRIs, PPIs, anticonvulsant drugs,in particular enzymeinducing drugs such as carbamazepine.
  • Rheumatological: RA, AS.
  • GI: malabsorption syndromes (e.g. coeliac, partial gastrectomy, UC, CD, chronic pancreatitis), chronic liver disease (PBC), anorexia, malnutrition (includes obesity).
  • Conditions that cause long periods of immobility e.g. stroke
  • Low levels of oestrogen in women due to anorexia nervosa, early menopause (before age of 45) with removal of ovaries and excessive exercise.

Low levels of testosterone in men can occur for a no. of reasons including following surgery for some cancers.

26
Q

How and when can Osteoporosis be assessed?

A

Guidelines recommend using a screening tool such as FRAX or QFracture to assess the 10-year risk of a patient developing a fragility fracture. A patient who has sustained a fragility fracture (e.g. following a Colles’ wrist fracture) should also be assessed for osteoporosis.

To assess the actual bone mineral density a dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan is used. The DEXA scan looks at the hip and lumbar spine. If either have a T score of < -2.5 then treatment is recommended.

We worry about osteoporosis because of the increased risk of fragility fractures. So how do we assess which patients are at risk and need further investigation?

NICE produced guidelines in 2012: Osteoporosis: assessing the risk of fragility fracture. The following is based on those guidelines.

They advise that all women aged >= 65 years and all men aged >= 75 years should be assessed. Younger patients should be assessed in the presence of risk factors, such as:
previous fragility fracture
current use or frequent recent use of oral or systemic glucocorticoid
history of falls
family history of hip fracture
other causes of secondary osteoporosis
low body mass index (BMI) (less than 18.5 kg/m²)
smoking
alcohol intake of more than 14 units per week for women and more than 14 units per week for men.

27
Q

What scoring tools can be used to assess this risk?

A

NICE recommend using a clinical prediction tool such as FRAX or QFracture to assess a patients 10 year risk of developing a fracture. This is analogous to the cardiovascular risk tools such as QRISK.

FRAX
estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture
valid for patients aged 40-90 years
based on international data so use not limited to UK patients
assesses the following factors: age, sex, weight, height, previous fracture, parental fracture, current smoking, glucocorticoids, rheumatoid arthritis, secondary osteoporosis, alcohol intake
bone mineral density (BMD) is optional, but clearly improves the accuracy of the results. NICE recommend arranging a DEXA scan if FRAX (without BMD) shows an intermediate result

QFracture
estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture
developed in 2009 based on UK primary care dataset
can be used for patients aged 30-99 years (this is stated on the QFracture website, but other sources give a figure of 30-85 years)
includes a larger group of risk factors e.g. cardiovascular disease, history of falls, chronic liver disease, rheumatoid arthritis, type 2 diabetes and tricyclic antidepressants

Interpreting the results of FRAX

Once we’ve decided that we need to do a risk assessment using FRAX and have entered all the data we are left with results to interpret.

If the FRAX assessment was done without a bone mineral density (BMD) measurement the results (10-year risk of a fragility fracture) will be given and categorised automatically into one of the following:
low risk: reassure and give lifestyle advice
intermediate risk: offer BMD test
high risk: offer bone protection treatment

Therefore, with intermediate risk results FRAX will recommend that you arrange a BMD test to enable you to more accurately determine whether the patient needs treatment

If the FRAX assessment was done witha bone mineral density (BMD) measurement the results (10-year risk of a fragility fracture) will be given and categorised automatically into one of the following:
reassure
consider treatment
strongly recommend treatment

If you use QFracture instead patients are not automatically categorised into low, intermediate or high risk. Instead the ‘raw data’ relating to the 10-year risk of any sustaining an osteoporotic fracture. This data then needs to be interpreted alongside either local or national guidelines, taking into account certain factors such as the patient’s age.

28
Q

When would Dexa be done instead of using the clinical; predictive tools?

A

before starting treatments that may have a rapid adverse effect on bone density (for example, sex hormone deprivation for treatment for breast or prostate cancer).
in people aged under 40 years who have a major risk factor, such as history of multiple fragility fracture, major osteoporotic fracture, or current or recent use of high-dose oral or high-dose systemic glucocorticoids (more than 7.5 mg prednisolone or equivalent per day for 3 months or longer).

29
Q

When should a person’s risk of osteoporosis be reassessed?

A

if the original calculated risk was in the region of the intervention threshold for a proposed treatment and only after a minimum of 2 years, or
when there has been a change in the person’s risk factors

30
Q

When should Osteoporosis be treated without doing DEXa?

A

The management of patients following a fragility fracture depends on age.

Patients >= 75 years of age

Patients who’ve had a fragility fracture and are >= 75 years of age are presumed to have underlying osteoporosis and should be started on first-line therapy (an oral bisphosphonate), without the need for a DEXA scan.

It should be noted that the 2014 NOGG guidelines have a different threshold, suggesting treatment is started in all women over the age of 50 years who’ve had a fragility fracture - ‘although BMD measurement may sometimes be appropriate, particularly in younger postmenopausal women.’

31
Q

What investigations can be done to exclude secondary causes of osteoporosis?

A

If a patient is diagnosed with osteoporosis or has a fragility fracture further investigations may be warranted. NOGG recommend testing for the following reasons:
exclude diseases that mimic osteoporosis (e.g. osteomalacia, myeloma);
identify the cause of osteoporosis and contributory factors;
assess the risk of subsequent fractures;
select the most appropriate form of treatment

The following investigations are recommended by NOGG:
History and physical examination
Blood cell count, sedimentation rate or C-reactive protein, serum calcium,
albumin, creatinine, phosphate, alkaline phosphatase and liver transaminases
Thyroid function tests
Bone densitometry ( DXA)

Other procedures, if indicated
Lateral radiographs of lumbar and thoracic spine/DXA-based vertebral imaging
Protein immunoelectrophoresis and urinary Bence-Jones proteins
25OHD
PTH
Serum testosterone, SHBG, FSH, LH (in men),
Serum prolactin
24 hour urinary cortisol/dexamethasone suppression test
Endomysial and/or tissue transglutaminase antibodies (coeliac disease)
Isotope bone scan
Markers of bone turnover, when available
Urinary calcium excretion

So from the first list we should order the following bloods as a minimum for all patients:
full blood count
urea and electrolytes
liver function tests
bone profile
CRP
thyroid function tests
32
Q

What type of HRT is available?

A

HRT generally consists of an oestrogenic compound, which replaces the diminished levels that occur in the perimenopausal period. This is normally combined with aprogestogen if a woman has a uterus to reduce the risk of endometrial cancer.

Choice of hormone

  • oestrogens
    • ‘natural’ oestrogens such as estradiol, estrone and conjugated oestrogen are generally used rather than synthetic oestrogens such as ethinylestradiol (which is used in the combined oral contraceptive pill)
  • progestogens
    • ‘synthetic’ progestogens such as medroxyprogesterone, norethisterone, levonorgestrel, and drospirenone are usually used
    • a levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (e.g. Mirena) may be used as the progestogen component of HRT, i.e. a woman could take an oral oestrogen and have endometrial protection using a Mirena coil
  • tibolone
    • synthetic compound with both oestrogenic, progestogenic, and androgenic activity

Route

  • HRT can be taken orally or transdermally (via a patch or gel)
  • transdermal is preferred if the woman is at risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), as the rates of VTE do not appear to rise with transdermal preparations
33
Q

What are the side effects of HRT?

A

Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen (combined with a progestogen in women with a uterus) to help alleviate menopausal symptoms.

Side-effects

  • nausea
  • breast tenderness
  • fluid retention and weight gain

Potential complications

  • increased risk of breast cancer
    • increased by the addition of a progestogen
    • in the Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study there was a relative risk of 1.26 at 5 years of developing breast cancer
    • the increased risk relates to the duration of use
    • the risk of breast cancer begins to decline when HRT is stopped and by 5 years it reaches the same level as in women who have never taken HRT
  • increased risk of endometrial cancer
    • oestrogen by itself should not be given as HRT to women with a womb
    • reduced by the addition of a progestogen but not eliminated completely
    • the BNF states that the additional risk is eliminated if a progestogen is given continuously
  • increased risk of venous thromboembolism
    • increased by the addition of a progestogen
    • transdermal HRT does not appear to increase the risk of VTE
    • NICE state women requesting HRT who are athigh risk for VTE should be referred to haematologybefore starting any treatment (even transdermal)
  • increased risk of stroke
  • increased risk of ischaemic heart disease if taken more than 10 years after menopause
34
Q

Whar are the Indications for hormone replacement therapy?

A

Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, combined with a progestogen (in women with a uterus), to help alleviate menopausal symptoms.

The indications for HRT have changed significantly over the past ten years as the long-term risks became apparent, primarily as a result of the Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study.

Indications

  • vasomotor symptoms such as flushing, insomnia and headaches
    • this is considered themost important factor in choosing whether to start HRT, rather than other possible health benefits such as increased bone mineral density
    • other indications such as reversal of vaginal atrophy should be treated with other agents as first-line therapies
  • premature menopause
    • should be continued until the age of 50 years
    • the most important reason in giving HRT to younger women is preventing the development of osteoporosis

Other benefits include a reduced incidence of colorectal cancer.

35
Q

What pharmacological treatment can be given for osteoporosis?

A

Some pharmacological treatments you may have come up with include:

  1. Resorptive medications - IV bisphosphonates (Alendronic acid, Risedronate sodium) – These form the mainstay of treatment and are given in weekly doses.
  • They are absorbed into the bone, enter osteoclasts and induce their apoptosis.
  • They need to be taken on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before food for optimum absorption.
  • They also need to be taken whilst stood up or sat straight to prevent the risk of gastritis or oesophagitis.
  • Goal: to prevent bone loss and reduce risk offractures. Compliance is an issue.
  • There is evidence to show that giving IV bisphosphonates early on in a fracture can help shorten the period of severe pain.

2.Selective oestrogen receptor modulators (SERMs):

  • SERMs have a similar effect on bone as the hormone oestrogen. They help to maintain bone density and reduce the risk of fracture, especially the spine.
  • Raloxifene is the only typeof SERM currently available for treating osteoporosis and is taken as a daily tablet.
  • Side effects include: hot flushes, leg crampsand a potential increased risk of venous thromboembolism.
  1. Parathyroid hormone (PTH):
  • PTH is a hormone that is produced naturally in the body.It regulates the amount of calcium in bone.
  • PTH treatments (e.g. teriparatide) are used to stimulate cells that create new bone and are given by injection.
  • Unlike other medications that can only slow down the rate of bone thinning, PTH can increase bone density but is only used in a small number of people whose bone density is very low and when other treatments are not working.
36
Q

What are the side effects of IV bisphosphonates

A

What are the side effects of IV bisphosphonates? What advice would you give to the patient?

Side effects of IV bisphosphonates:

  • Oesophagitisandulcers - patient told to look out for symptoms such as dysphagia and seek attention if they develop symptoms.This is a side effect of alendronate and we specifically give IVZolendronateto avoid it.
  • Atypical femoral fractures - rare, hip/thigh/groin pain, are unable to weight bear. No history of trauma. X-ray will show bone healing from a small fracture with a callous around it. This can be managed conservatively.
  • Jawosteonecrosis- patientshouldhave a dental check-up prior to treatment and regularly thereafter, give advice on oral hygiene.Here are some great images on jaw osteonecrosis:https://radiopaedia.org/articles/medication-related-osteonecrosis-of-the-jaw?lang=gb
  • EA canal osteonecrosis - very rare. Consider in a patient who presents with ear symptoms.
37
Q

What Co-morbidities are associated with osteoporosis?

A
  • Depression – patients with osteoporosis may be limited in their activity and ADLs and this can take away some of their independence. This in turn may promote social isolation and can have a negative impact on their mental health.
  • Loss of social activity– Many patients, as we saw in the forum quotes in the section, lose the confidence to do certain activities that involve movement. For example, in Molly’s case, she had loved to go dancing every Saturday evening at her local community centre but now, she has developed a fear of falling and no longer feels steady on her feet. Her continually worsening stooped posture had made it difficult for her to maintain a steady balance.
  • Chronic pain -Osteoporotic fractures of the spine can cause chronic long-term back pain and postural changes affecting balance and gait. The loss of height in the spinal column means the spine is no longer able to support the body’s weight and causes a hunched posture, which can be particularly painful when it happens, but can also lead tolong-termpain.
  • Poor sleep - The chronic pain can prevent a restful nights sleep. It may also be very uncomfortable for the individual to sleep in certain positions due to the kyphosis.
  • Drug side effects - see the last chapter for side effects commonly associated with anti-osteoporosis medications.

As well as the psychosocial effects of living with the condition, osteoporosis can also cause physical effects on the body and internal organs.

  • Respiratory - The hunched posture caused by a vertebral fracture can cause the abdominal muscles to move out of alignment and restrictrespiratory movement. This caneventually lead to obstructive lung disease.
  • Gastrointestinal - The kyphosis can also reduce the abdominal space and compress the abdominal organs including the bowels which can lead to chronic constipation. To relieve this, the patient may have to be put onto long-term laxatives.
38
Q

How is the triple assessment score calculated?

A
At each stage of the triple assessment, thesuspicion for malignancy is gradedto create an overall risk index, as discussed below. The key here is toestablish whether this is likely a benign lesionor whether the patient should go ontohave more definitive biopsy and further intervention.
P1 – Normal
P2 – Benign
P3 – Uncertain/likely benign
P4 – Suspicious of malignancy
P5 – Malignant
39
Q

When should genetic testing be offered?

A
  • Any of the following are present in the family history in addition to breast cancers in relatives not fulfilling the above criteria:Bilateral breast cancer.Male breast cancer.Ovarian cancer.Jewish ancestry.Sarcoma in a relative younger than 45 years of age.Glioma or childhood adrenal cortical carcinomas.Complicated patterns of multiple cancers at a young age.Two or more relatives with breast cancer on the father’s side of the family.There is uncertainty about whether or not to refer.The person is not sufficiently reassured by the information provided.
  • Refer directly to a specialist genetics serviceif a high-risk predisposinggene mutation(such as BRCA1, BRCA2, or TP53) has been identified.
40
Q

When is axillary clearance done in breast cancer?

A

At diagnosis, the axilla will undergo ultrasound imaging to look for cancerous spread. This is key in deciding which type of operation will be performed. If there is evidence of a lot of cancerous spread to the lymph nodes (“LN+”), with 4+ lymph nodes affected,axillary clearancewill be carried out. This involves removal of all the lymph nodes in the area. If 1-3 lymph nodes are affected, many centres will perform axillary clearance. Others performtargeted axillary dissectioninstead. This involves a sentinel node biopsy, removal of the affected lymph nodes only, and then radiotherapy. Evidence points to it being just as safe oncologically, with lower morbidity than clearance, and it will likely become more prevalent with time.

If ultrasound imaging is clear, asentinel node biopsywill be performed. Sentinel lymph nodes are the first lymph nodes a cancer will spread to. This is determined by injecting radioisotope into the breast, which will then travel to the closest lymph node. These sentinel lymph nodes are then biopsied to check for cancerous spread. As radioisotope must be injected into the breast, a sentinel node biopsy is always performed if the breast surgery is to be a mastectomy, as it cannot be performed in hindsight.

Axillary surgery may beomittedaltogether if, on histology, the lesion is solely aductal carcinoma in-situ(DCIS) as DCIS do not metastasise.

Axilla surgery carries high morbidity. There is a 30% lifetime risk of lymphoedema with axillary clearance. With targeted axillary dissection and radiotherapy, this is 11%. Lymphoedema can be triggered by taking blood, so it is important for healthcare professionalsnot to take bloodfrom thesame arma patient has had axillary clearance surgery on.

41
Q

What genetic testing is done in breast cancer?

A

Single mutation predictive test-known mutation

Standard panel test-braca1/2/PLAB2

Bespoke panel test-by adding other relevant genes to the above panel

42
Q

What is the Screening criteria for moderate to high risk patients with breast cancer/

A

moderate-17-30%-annual mammos 40-50

high >30%-annual mammos -40-60

VERY HIGH->50%-annual screening from 30 initially by MRI

43
Q

What risk reduction options are available for breast cancer?

A

moderate-17-30%-Lifestyle,chemoprophylaxis?

high >30%-Lifestyle,chemoprophylaxis?
bRRM

VERY HIGH->50%-Lifestyle,chemoprophylaxis?
bRRM

Chemoprophylaxis
premenopausal-tamoxifen 5 years
menopausal-anastrozole 5 years

44
Q

How can metastasis to the bone be treated?

A

There are four main goals in managing patients with metastatic disease to the skeleton:

  • pain relief
  • preservation and restoration of function
  • skeletal stabilization
  • local tumour control (e.g., relief of tumour impingement on normal structures, prevention of release of chemical mediators that have local and systemic effects)
45
Q

What are the complications of breast cancer?

A

Breast can produce a number of complications that can be local or distant:

  • Local invasion
    • Lymphoedema
    • Pleural effusion, ascites
  • Distant metastasis
    • Bone, liver, lung, brain
    • Spinal cord compression
  • Non-metastatic
    • Hypercalcaemia
46
Q

How does Paget’s disease of the nipple present?

A

Paget’s disease of the nipple accounts for 1% of all breast cancer cases and presents with a relatively long history of eczematous change in the nipple area with itching, burning, oozing or bleeding. There may be a palpable underlying lump. The nipple contains malignant cells singularly or in nests. Prognosis is related to the underlying tumour.

  • Neck and axilla: lymphadenopathy
  • Nipple: is there discharge or retraction?
  • Breast tissue: is there discolouration, oedema, peau d’orange, erythema, nodules, ulceration, lack of symmetry, skin thickening?
  • Chest: signs of consolidation, nodules in skin
  • Abdomen: hepatomegaly
  • MSK: focal tenderness in axial and peripheral skeleton due to bone involvement