Breast Histopathology Flashcards

1
Q

Give the 3 most common presenting symptoms for breast pathology

A

Mastalgia/mastodynia (seem like the same thing)
Palpable masses
Nipple discharge

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2
Q

Name the 4 inflammatory breast conditions

A

Acute mastitis,
Periductal mastitis,
Mammary duct ectasia,
Fat necrosis

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3
Q

Give 3 general symptoms/signs of acute mastitis

A

Mastalgia, red breast, fever

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4
Q

What is the most common mechanism for acute mastitis

A

Almost all cases occur during lactation/breast feeding due to a staph aureus infection via nipple cracks.

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5
Q

What would you see on histology of acute mastitis

A

Necrotic breast tissue and neutrophil infiltrates

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6
Q

What is the treatment of acute mastistis?

A

continued milk expression, antibiotics, +/- surgical drainage.

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7
Q

What group of people does periductal mastitis most often occur in? Is it associated with lactation?

A

Usually smokers, NOT associated with lactation

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8
Q

What would you see on histology for periductal mastitis

A

keratinizing squamous epithelium extending deep into nipple duct orifices

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9
Q

What group of people does mammary duct ectasia most often occur in? What kind of discharge is it associated with?

A

Mainly multiparous 40-60yo women.

Thick white secretions from the nips

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10
Q

What kind of mass is there in mammary duct ectasia?

A

Poorly defined palpable periareolar mass

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11
Q

What is the cause of mammary duct ectasia

A

granulomatous inflammation and dilation of large breast ducts

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12
Q

What are the findings on cytology for mammary duct ectasia?

A

proteinaceous material, inflammatory cells

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13
Q

What do mammographical findings for mammary duct ectasia look similar to?

A

CANCER.

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14
Q

What is the pathophysiology of fat necrosis?

A

inflammatory response to damaged adipose tissue

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15
Q

How does fat necrosis present?

A

Often painless, sometimes tender breast mass/lesion

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16
Q

What are 3 causes of fat necrosis?

A

trauma, radiotherapy, surgery

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17
Q

Name the 2 main groups of benign proliferative breast conditions

A

Fibrocystic/fibroadenosis

Gynaecomastia

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18
Q

What are the 3 types of changes in fibrocystic/fibroadenosis and describe them

A
  1. cystic change- small cysts form by dilation of lobules. contain fluid. often calcified
  2. fibrosis- inflammation and fibrosis secondary to cyst rupture
  3. adenosis- increased number of acini per lobule (normally seen in pregnancy)
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19
Q

Describe gynaecomastia including:

definition, causes, and histology

A
  1. unilateral or bitlateral enlargement of the main titties
  2. indicator of hyper-oestrinism (AFLD, cirrhosis, age, obesity, functioning gonadal tumour
  3. histology- epithelial hyperplasia, finger like projections into ducts
20
Q

what are the 3 main groups of benign neoplastic conditions

A

Fibroadenoma (‘breast mouse’)
Duct papilloma
Radial scar

21
Q

Describe a fibroadenoma

group affected, tissue of origin, hormone responsiveness, calcification

A

Occurs between menarche and menopause, usually at 20-30. Most common benign tumour, arises from stroma. Overgrowth of collagenous mesenchyme. Hormone responsive, increases in size during pregnancy and calcifies after menopause. ‘shelling out’ is curative.

22
Q

Describe fibroadenoma

location, shape and consistency

A

Often multiple lesions and bilateral. Spherical, freely mobile, variable size and rubbery.

23
Q

Describe features of a duct papilloma

A

Can be within small terminal ductules (peripheral papillomas) or larger lactiferous ducts (central papillomas). Causes a bloody discharge, no lump. Not seen on mammogram, need to conduct galactogram

24
Q

Describe a radial scar

A

Benign schlerosing lesion- central scarring surrounded by proliferating glandular tissue in a stellate pattern. Resembles carcinoma on mammogram

25
Q

What are the key feature of a phyllodes tumour

A

can be benign, pre-malignant or malignant. grow in a ‘leaf like’ pattern. more common in women with fibroadenomas.

26
Q

What is the lifetime risk of breast cancer for women

A

1/8, most common cancer in women.

Most commonly at 75-80yo (younger in black people)

27
Q

Give 8 risk factors for breast cancer

A

Genetic mutations, estrogen exposure, increased age, family history, obesity, tobacco, alcohol

28
Q

Describe the susceptibility genes for breast cancer. what other cancers can they predispose to?

A

BRCA1/BRCA2 cause an increased lifetime risk of up to 85%. Both are tumor suppressor genes. also increase the risk of prostate, ovarian and pancreatic malignancy.

29
Q

Give 4 ways in which breast cancer most commonly presents

A

hard fixed lump, paget’s disease, peau d’orange, nipple retraction

30
Q

Describe the NHS breast cancer screening programme

A

screening: 47-73 yo women invited for mammography (looks for abnormal calcification or a mass)

31
Q

Define carcinoma in situ (for the breast)

A

epithelial proliferation limited to ducts/lobules by the basement membrane (30%)

32
Q

Describe investigation findings of LCIS

A

ALWAYS incidental finding on biopsy (no microcalcifications or stromal reactions). 20-40% bilateral.

33
Q

Describe histological features of LCIS

A

cells lack adhesion protein E-cadherin. risk factor for subsequent invasive breast carcinoma. ‘Signet cells’ under microscopy.

34
Q

Describe investigation findings of DCIS

A

Appears as areas of microcalcification. 10% have clinical symptoms at presentation. Much higher risk of becoming invasive than LCIS.

35
Q

Define invasive breast carcinoma

A

malignant epithelial tumours which infiltrate within breast with the capacity to spread to distant sites (80%)

36
Q

What are the 4 subcategories of invasive breast carcinoma

A

Histologically categorise into:

ductal, lobular, tubular, mucinous

37
Q

What is the most common invasive breast cancer

A

invasive ductal carcinoma. cannot be subclassified.

38
Q

what are the histological findings for invasive lobular carcinomas?

A

cells are aligned in single file chains/strands

39
Q

What are the histological findings for invasive tubular carcinomas?

A

well formed tubules with low grade nuclei. rarely palpable as they are usually

40
Q

What is the triple assessment after taking the history

A

examination, imaging (mmgraphy/USS/MRI), FNA and cytology

41
Q

Why do neoplastic lesions undergo core needle biopsy?

A

to confirm histological subtype AND grading. assessment of nuclear pleomorphism (/3), tubule formation (/3) and mitotic activity (/3) is performed to determine cell differentiation.(/9). higher scoer=poorer differentiation.

42
Q

ER/PR/HER2 receptor status is assessed to determine treatment and prognosis. which ones have better/worse prognosis?

A

ER/PR+ means the tumour is hormone responsive and is associated with a better prognosis.
HER2+ is associated with a bad prognosis

43
Q

What is basal-like carcinoma and what does it stain positively for?

A

Sheets of atypical cells with lymphocytic infiltrates. Stains positively for CK/6/14

44
Q

Where does phyllodes tumour originate from and how does it present?

A

Interlobular stroma (like fibroadenomas, can also arise from pre-existing fibroadenomas). Presents as a palpable mass, usually age>50yo

45
Q

Are phyllodes tumors aggressive?

A

Usually benign, but can be aggressive. Excised with wide local excision.mastectomy to limit local recurrence. mets are very rare.