breast cancer Flashcards

1
Q

what are the main parts of the breast

A
  1. Glandular tissue
    a. 15-20 lobules, responsible for producing milk
    b. Within the lobules there are alveoli – modified sweat glands – that secrete milk.
    c. Glandular tissues have receptors for oestrogen & progesterone (released by the ovaries) and prolactin (released by the pituitary gland)
    i. Oestrogen and progesterone cause alveolar cells to divide and increase in number, enlarging the lobule
    ii. Without hormones, glandular cells undergo apoptosis – after menstruation, alveolar cells die and breast tissue is replaced by fat.
  2. Stroma, containing adipose (fat tissue), is the majority of the breast.
  3. Lymphatic vessels are found just below the skin covering the breast. They drain lymph – cellular waste & WBCs.
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2
Q

what is breast cancer

A

Breast cancer is uncontrolled growth of epithelial cells in the breast, forming a tumour. Breast cancer accounted for 15% of all new cancer cases in 2015. 1 in 8 women will be diagnosed with breast cancer during their lifetime. It is the second most common cancer in women.

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3
Q

what are the 2 different subtypes of breast cancer

A
  1. Ductal carcinoma in-situ (DCIS) – tumours grow from the wall of the ducts into the lumen. If left untreated, they cross basement membrane. DCIS does invade surrounding tissues.
  2. Lobular carcinoma in-situ (LCIS) – clusters of tumour cells grown within lobules, causing alveoli to enlarge – ducts are not invaded. LCIS does not invade surrounding tissues.
    75% of breast cancers are ductal (spread to surrounding tissues); 17% are lobular (affects milk-producing glands – lobules).
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4
Q

what does it mean when some forms of breast cancers have hormone receptors

A

Some breast cancers have hormone receptors, allowing them to grow in the presence of hormones.
ER or PR-receptor involvement indicates that the tumour is hormone-dependant tumour, so is more likely to respond to hormonal treatments. The prognosis is more favourable.

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5
Q

what does it mean to have HER2+ breast cancer

A

HER2 is a transmembrane tyrosine kinase which regulates growth, survival & migration. If a cancer is HER2+, it will be more aggressive, so prognosis is poorer.

  1. ER-positive & HER2-negative
  2. HER2-positive & ER-positive/ HER2-positive & ER-negative
  3. ER-negative & HER2-negative
  4. ER = oestrogen receptor, PR = progesterone receptor, HER2 = human epidermal growth factor receptor type 2 (aka ErbB2).
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6
Q

what is meant by Carcinoma in situ

A

Carcinoma in situ is proliferation of cancer cells within the epithelial tissue without invasion of the surrounding tissue. In contrast, invasive carcinoma invades the surrounding tissue. Perineural and/or lymphovascular space invasion is usually considered as part of the histological description of a breast cancer, and when present may be associated with more aggressive disease.

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7
Q

what does DCIS stand for and what does it mean

A

Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) is the presence of abnormal cells inside a milk duct in the breast. DCIS is considered the earliest form of breast cancer. DCIS is noninvasive, meaning it hasn’t spread out of the milk duct and has a low risk of becoming invasive.

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8
Q

what does LCIS stand for and what does it mean

A

Lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS) means that cells inside some of the breast lobules have started to become abnormal. LCIS It is not a cancer. The lobules are glands that make breast milk. The abnormal cells are all contained within the inner lining of the lobules

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9
Q

state whether luminal A is DCIS/LSIC, what hormone receptors are involved, is there any other involvement and what is the treatment plan

A
DCIS
hormone receptors that are involved are :
ER +
PR +
HER2 - 

other involvements includes
15% with p53 mutation

and the treatment plan is
Chemo
Radiation
Hormone

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10
Q

state whether luminal B is DCIS/LSIC, what hormone receptors are involved, is there any other involvement and what is the treatment plan

A

DCIS

hormone receptor involvements includes:
ER +
PR +
HER2 +

other involvements includes
30% with p53 mutation

the treatment plan is
Chemo
Radiation
Hormone

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11
Q

state whether triple negative (basal like) is DCIS/LSIC, what hormone receptors are involved, is there any other involvement and what is the treatment plan

A

DCIS

hormone receptor involvement includes
ER -
PR -
HER2 -

other involvements
Most with p53 mutation
BRCA 1 involvement
High levels of Ki-67 protein

the treatment plan is
Chemo
Radiation
Biological (Non-HER2 targeted)

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12
Q

state whether HER2 type is DCIS/LSIC, what hormone receptors are involved, is there any other involvement and what is the treatment plan

A

DCIS

the receptors involved
70% - HER2 +
30% - HER2 -

other involvements
75% with p53 mutation

the treatment plan is
Biological (HER-2 targeted)

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13
Q

what are the risk factors associated with breast cancer

A

• 60-years-old (as median age of diagnosis is 60-65)
• Oestrogen exposure (e.g. late menopause, use of oral contraceptives and early menarche (first menstruation)
• Genetics
o BRCA 1 & 2 genes play a rule in DNA repair; mutations in these genes confer 80-90% lifetime risk
o TP53 – tumour protein 53
o ERBB2 (HER-2) – receptor tyrosine-protein kinase
• Ethnicity may be classed as a risk factor – more common in white populations
• Obesity, smoking and alcohol use
• Nulliparity – not having children
• Stress (initiates DNA damage)
• Socio-economic status – actually less common if living in deprived areas

Avoiding the above (where possible), breastfeeding and engaging in physical activity are protective – reducing the risk of developing BC.

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14
Q

what does screening entail

A

Mammography is an X-Ray, offered to all women aged 50-70 every 3 years. 1/100 screened women in the UK have cancer detected through breast screening. Around 8 in 10 of these are invasive cancers. See radiography for further details.
1% of women have breast cancer (and therefore 99% do not).
80% of mammograms detect breast cancer when it is there; 20% of mammograms miss signs of cancer
10% of mammograms detect breast cancer when it’s not there (and therefore 90% correctly return a negative result).

Probability of a 40-50-year old with breast cancer = 7.47%

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15
Q

what are the presentations of breast cancer

A

BC may present in a variety of ways, including:
Hard, painless lump or swelling
Swelling under armpit (indicates spread to lymph nodes)
Breast immobile
Dimpling, thickening & change in colour (orange) of skin (indicates blockage of lymphatic vessels and involvement of skin)
Retraction/ inversion of the nipple (caused by fibrosis of lactiferous ducts)
Discharge from nipple (paget disease)

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16
Q

how do you diagnose breast cancer

A

Breast cancer does not cause pain, until it spreads to surrounding tissues.
Median age of diagnosis is 60-65.
• Feeling of a breast lump
• Mammography is also used to confirm diagnosis. About 20% of all cancers of the breast detected by mammographic screening are ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS).
• Breast biopsy, using methods such as needle aspiration/ ultrasound guided/ stereotactic or open
o Needle biopsy – fluid and tissue from lump is drawn
o Open biopsy (lumpectomy) – all/ part of a lump is removed & tested for malignancy
• Breast MRI helps better identify the breast lump or evaluate an abnormal change on a mammogram
• Breast ultrasound shows whether the lump is solid or fluid-filled
• FBC, LFT, bone profile may help ensure diagnosis, and evaluate invasive nature of cancer
• CT, CAP and bone scan if high risk, to show whether the breast cancer has spread elsewhere

When diagnosed at its earliest stage, around all women with breast cancer will survive their disease for five years or more, compared with 3 in 20 women when the disease is diagnosed at the latest stage.

The following groups are more likely to be unhappy with their care: Long term/multiple conditions other than cancer; ethnic minorities; young patients (16 – 35 years); those attending London Hospitals; LGBT community.

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17
Q

what is the TNM staging

A

• Tumour size (& extent, of the main tumour)

o T1= <2cm
o T2= 2-5cm
o T3= >5cm
o T4= direct extension to chest wall or skin

• Lymph Nodes (the number of nearby lymph nodes that have cancer)

o N1 = mobile ipsilateral lymph nodes
o N2 = fixed to one another or other structures
o N3 = infraclavicular or ipsilateral internal mammary and axillary nodes

• Metastasis (the development of secondary malignant growths at a distance from a primary site of cancer)

o M0 = no metastasis
o M1= contralateral lymph nodes or any distant metastases
o Mx= Distant metastasis cannot be assessed.

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18
Q

what is meant by the G3 grading pathology

A

• Grade I (well differentiated/low grade)
o cancer cells look similar to normal cells and grow very slowly
o In low grade invasive ductal carcinoma, glands are still seen
• Grade II (moderately differentiated)
o cancer cells look more abnormal and are slightly faster growing
• Grade III (poorly differentiated/high grade)
o cancer cells look very different from normal cells and tend to grow quickly
o In high grade invasive ductal carcinoma, a sheet of cells is seen, where nuclei are pleomorphic (varies in shape and size); no glands can be seen

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19
Q

what is the TNM and survival rate of stage 1, early stage

A

T1N0M0, 95%

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20
Q

what is the TNM and survival rate of stage 11A, early stage

A

T1N1M0
T2N0M0
85%

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21
Q

what is the TNM and survival rate of stage 11B, early stage

A

T2N1M0
T3N0M0
85%

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22
Q

what is the TNM and survival rate of stage 111A, locally advanced

A

T3N1M0
T0-3N2M0
55%

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23
Q

what is the TNM and survival rate of stage 111b, locally advanced

A

T4 Nx M0

55%

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24
Q

what is the TNM and survival rate of stage111c locally advanced

A

TxN3M0

55%

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25
Q

what is the TNM and survival rate of stage Iv, metastatic

A

TxNxM1

15%

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26
Q

what is the treatment for breast cancer

A

• Surgery
o Partial mastectomy for localised tumour
o Total mastectomy (removal of all breast) if tumour has spread. Lymph nodes may be removed if tumour has metastasised.
• Radiation therapy
• Chemotherapy
• Hormonal (biologic) therapy
o If tumour has hormone receptor involvement (ER & HER2), effects/ formation of oestrogen is blocked.

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27
Q

what is meant by the cell cycle

A

The cell cycle (cell-division cycle) is the process by which a single mother eukaryotic cell gives rise to two identical daughter cells.
Most cells have a finite capacity for division and can become senescent at any time; senescence is the process by which cells irreversibly stop dividing and enter a state of permanent growth arrest without undergoing cell death. Senescent cells sit within the tissue and change the plasticity of the tissue – the longer they sit around, can be promoting a cancer.

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28
Q

what is the cell cycle composed of?

A

The cell cycle is composed of interphase (G₁, S, and G₂ phases), followed by the mitotic phase (mitosis and cytokinesis), and G₀ phase.
During interphase, the cell grows and makes a copy of its DNA. During the mitotic (M) phase, the cell separates its DNA into two sets and divides its cytoplasm, forming two new cells.

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29
Q

what is the E2F

A

is a group of genes that encodes a family of transcription factors (TF) in higher eukaryotes.

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30
Q

what does the interphase consists of?

A

G1, s and G2

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31
Q

what is the g1 phase of the cell cycle

A

During the first gap phase, the cell grows physically larger, copies organelles, and makes the molecular building blocks it will need in later steps. The availability of growth factors controls the animal cell cycle at a point in late G1 called the restriction point; if growth factors are not available during G1, the cells enter a quiescent stage of the cycle called G0.

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32
Q

what is the S phase of the cell cycle

A

The cell synthesizes a complete copy of the DNA in its nucleus. It also duplicates a microtubule-organizing structure called the centrosome. The centrosomes help separate DNA during M phase.

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33
Q

what is the G2 phase of the cell cycle

A

During the second gap phase, the cell grows more, makes proteins and organelles, and begins to reorganize its contents in preparation for mitosis. G2 ends when mitosis begins

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34
Q

what occurs in the mitotic M phase of the cell cycle

A

During the mitotic (M) phase, the cell divides its copied DNA and cytoplasm to make two new cells. M phase involves two distinct division-related processes: mitosis and cytokinesis.
• In the prophase of mitosis, chromosomal material condenses to form compact mitotic chromosomes. The cytoskeleton is disassembled, and mitotic spindle is assembled.
• In the prometaphase, the chromosomal microtubules attach to kinetochores of chromosomes and are moved to the spindle equator.
• In the metaphase, chromosomes are aligned along the metaphase plate and are attached to both poles by microtubules.
• In the anaphase the centromeres split, and chromatids separate moving the chromosomes to opposite single poles.
• In the telophase, the chromosomes cluster at opposite poles. The nuclear membrane assembles around the clusters, with daughter cells formed by cytokinesis.

Non-mutagenic replication of every nucleotide once per cycle is essential; only one copy should be made, with no mutations.

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35
Q

what are the 4 DNA nucleotides monomers

A

• Purines:
o A - adenine
o G – guanine

• Pyrimidines:
o T - thymine
o C - cytosine

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36
Q

how are radio labelled nucleotides identified

A

Radiolabelled nucleotides (3H-thymidine) are incorporated into cells at DNA replication. Using X-ray photography or antibody staining, cells in S-phase may be identified. Flow-cytometric detection of cells stained with DNA dyes allows the discrimination of cells with variable DNA content. Cells in G1 phase (peak 1) contain half the DNA of cells after DNA replication in G2 and M (peak 2); cells in the process of replication (S-phase) contain an intermediate quantity.

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37
Q

what is the role of cyclin-dependant kinases (CDKs)

A

In order to drive the cell cycle forward, a cyclin must activate or inactivate many target proteins inside of the cell. Cyclins drive the events of the cell cycle by partnering with a family of enzymes called the cyclin-dependent kinases (Cdks). A lone Cdk is inactive, but the binding of a cyclin activates it, making it a functional enzyme and allowing it to modify target proteins.

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38
Q

how do cyclin-dependant kinases (CDKs) work

A

Cdk1 is the only on required to drive through the cell stages. Cyclin B1 and A2 are essential for normal cell cycle.
• At G1 phase: CDK 4 & CDK 6 binds to Cyclin D – Cyclin D levels are influenced by extracellular signals (mitogens, growth factors and survival factors). The main target of CDK 4 & 6 is Retinoblastoma protein (Rb). Dysfunction of the Rb protein (stuck in on position) may lead to uncontrolled proliferation, where mutations are likely.
• G1/S phase: CDK 2 binds to Cyclin E
• S phase: CDK 2 binds to Cyclin A
• M/ G2 phase: CDK 1 (aka Cdc25) binds to Cyclin B1

• CDKs are activated by activating phosphorylation of threonine around position 160.
• CDK-inhibitors are proteins that bind to CDK-cyclin complexes and block their activity.
o Wee1 kinase inhibits phosphorylation of threonine 14 & tyrosine 15 on CDK 1, inhibiting cell cycle progression
o CDK 1 phosphatase reverses the change of Wee1, leading to active CDK.

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39
Q

what is meant by cell cycle checkpoints

A

The availability of cyclins controls the activity of CDKs and promotes cell progression. CDKs become active via cyclin-binding; when complexed with M-phase cyclin, mitosis machinery is triggered, when complexed to S-phase cyclin, DNA replication is triggered.
There are also several checkpoints which ensure complete genomes are transmitted to daughter cells, and cells with damaged DNA do not replicate.

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40
Q

what are the different cell cycle checkpoints in the cell cycle

A

•At G1, cell size, growth factors & DNA damage are checked. If the cell doesn’t meet the requirements, it will leave the cell cycle and enter a resting state – G0.

oDNA damage causes p53 levels to increase, causing transcription of p21

op21 binds to PNCA – a component of DNA replication machinery – preventing its activity
oBy ensuring that cells don’t divide when their DNA is damaged, p53 prevents mutations; when p53 is defective or missing, mutations can accumulate quickly, potentially leading to cancer. Indeed, out of all the entire human genome

op53 is the single gene most often mutated in cancers
.
•At G2, un-replicated or damaged DNA are checked. If errors or damage are detected, the cell will pause to allow for repairs. Topoisomerase II is responsible for repairing DNA at this stage. If the checkpoint mechanisms detect problems with the DNA, the cell cycle is halted, and the cell attempts to either complete DNA replication or repair the damaged DNA. If the damage is irreparable, the cell may undergo apoptosis, or programmed cell death

oA signal is sent to a series of protein kinases, which phosphorylate and inactivate Cdc25

oThe dephosphorylation of M-Cdk is blocked, and it does not activate, preventing entry to mitotic phase

• At M (aka spindle checkpoint), chromosomal misalignment (i.e. the chromosome is not attached to the spindle) will stop the cycle. If a chromosome is misplaced, the cell will pause mitosis, allowing time for the spindle to capture the stray chromosome.

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41
Q

what is meant by PI3K signalling

A

PI3K signalling is a form of endocrine signalling. The pituitary releases growth hormone, which acts on tyrosine kinase receptors. A kinase is an enzyme that transfers phosphate groups to a protein or other target, and a receptor tyrosine kinase transfers phosphate groups specifically to the amino acid tyrosine, activating it. The signal relay pathway through PI3K, PTEN, AKT, mTOR and S6K1 or 4EBP results in gene expression & cell proliferation.

The PI3K/AKT/mTOR pathway is an intracellular signalling pathway important in regulating the cell cycle. In many cancers, this pathway is overactive, thus reducing apoptosis and allowing proliferation. In many kinds of breast cancer, aberrations in the PI3K/AKT/mTOR pathway are the most common genomic abnormalities (e.g. PIK3CA gene mutation).

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42
Q

what is meant by HER-2 signalling

A

HER-2 is a member of the human epidermal growth factor receptor (HER/EGFR/ERBB) family. The HER-2 receptor is a transmembrane tyrosine kinase receptor that consists of an extracellular ligand-binding domain, a transmembrane region, and an intracellular or cytoplasmic tyrosine kinase domain.
It is activated by the formation of homodimers or heterodimers with other epidermal growth factor (EGFR) proteins.
Further downstream molecular signalling cascades are activated, such as the Ras/Raf/mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK), the phosphoinositide 3-kinase/Akt, and the phospholipase Cγ (PLCγ)/protein kinase C (PKC) pathways that promote cell growth and survival and cell cycle progression.

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43
Q

describe the MAPK pathway:

A

When growth factor ligands bind to their receptors, the receptors pair up and act as kinases. The activated receptors trigger a series of events:
• Ras is activated
o KRAS ( K-ras or Ki-ras) is a gene that acts as an on/off switch in cell signalling. When it functions normally, it controls cell proliferation. When it is mutated, negative signalling is disrupted.
• Guanine nucleotide exchange factors (GEFs) are recruited
• GEF becomes capable of interacting with Ras proteins at the cell membrane to promote a conformational change and the exchange of GDP for GTP.
• Raf is recruited to the cell membrane, and activation stimulates a signalling cascade by phosphorylation of MAPK which successively phosphorylate and activate downstream proteins such as ERK1 and ERK2
• Transcription factors are activated promoting cell growth and division.

Over-expression of this oncogene has been shown to play an important role in the development and progression of certain aggressive types of breast cancer. The protein has become an important biomarker and target of therapy for approximately 30% of breast cancer patients. HER2-positive breast cancer has a faster growth rate than HER2-negative.

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44
Q

what is the pathology of breast cancer

A

488 (1%) genes are implicated in the development of cancer. Of these, 90% have somatic mutations; 20% have germline mutations (10% have both). Somatic mutations occur in a single cell and are not passed to offspring; germline mutations occur in gametes and may be inherited by the offspring of that cell, affecting many different types of cell.

Cancer cells behave differently than normal cells in the body, related to cell-division. Cancer cells may multiply without any growth factors, or growth-stimulating protein signals.

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45
Q

what are 2 types of mutations

A

Mutations stimulate cell survival and proliferation, and may be:
• Dominant (gain of function) – a single mutation event creates oncogenes - overactive positive cell cycle regulators.
• Recessive (loss of function) – two, or more, mutations eliminate tumour suppression activity - inactive negative regulators.

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46
Q

what is meant by oncogenes and how does it work

A

Oncogenes drive abnormal cell proliferation. They may represent the overactive form of normal cellular genes, called proto-oncogenes or alternatively, they may enter the cell as part of a virus. A proto¬-oncogene may become overactive and be converted into an oncogene due to mutation in coding sequence, gene amplification or chromosomal rearrangement.

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47
Q

what is meant by tumour superior genes

A

Tumour suppressors are genes that normally inhibit cell proliferation and tumour development. In tumour development, tumour suppressors are often lost or inactivated, usually requiring 2 mutational events; inactivation can occur through deletion, point mutation or epigenetic changes (where the gene does not mutate but is inactivated). This may occur due to nondisjunction, giving rise to unequal mitosis; random elimination of a chromosome results in recessive mutation of tumour suppressor.

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48
Q

what re the 3 types of tumour suppressor genes

A

There are 3 types of tumour suppressor:
• Caretakers – promote gene stability & control mutation rate
o Checkpoint genes (p53)
o DNA repair genes (BRCA)
• Gatekeepers – monitor cell division & death
o Cell cycle (Rb)
• Landscapers – control cellular microenvironment

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49
Q

how does the stress hormone stimulate further breast cancer

A

During and after diagnosis and treatment, almost 50% of cancer patients report anxiety and 25% report significant anxiety; 20% experience transient or long-term depression; and 15% are diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder.

Stress results in the production of the stress response hormones: cortisol, (Cort), norepinephrine (NE), and epinephrine (E) at physiological concentrations. Stress hormones can rapidly induce DNA damage and interfere with the DNA-damage repair process in pre-cancerous cells leading to cell transformation and tumorigenicity. They increase levels proteins involved in cell cycle regulation and progression and reduce levels of proteins that cause apoptosis (cell death).

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50
Q

how does cancer develop

A

A cell might first lose activity of a cell cycle inhibitor, an event that would make the cell’s descendants divide a little more rapidly. It’s unlikely that they would be cancerous, but they might form a benign tumour a mass of cells that divides too much. Over time, a mutation might take place in one of the descendant cells, causing increased activity of a positive cell cycle regulator. The mutation might not cause cancer by itself either, but the offspring of this cell would divide even faster, creating a larger pool of cells in which a third mutation could take place. Eventually, one cell might gain enough mutations to take on the characteristics of a cancer cell and give rise to a malignant tumour, a group of cells that divide excessively and can invade other tissues.

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51
Q

describe how tumours develop

A
  • PIK3CA mutations most commonly occur concomitantly with loss of adenomatous polyposis coli (APC). APC has many functions, the most prominent is its capacity to regulate beta-catenin-mediated gene transcription in response to Wnt signalling. Unbound ß-catenin binds to Tcf/Lef gene, which transcribes for Cyclin B & D. Loss of APC leads to deregulated beta-catenin and hyperproliferative epithelium.
  • Increased genetic instability, and loss of P53 (protein involved in G1 checkpoint preventing damaged DNA from replicating) leads to early adenoma. p53 is the gene most commonly mutated in human cancers, and cancer cells without p53 mutations likely inactivate p53 through other mechanisms
  • The Rb protein is implicated in the G1 checkpoint; when Rb is permanently in on mode, G1 phase of cell cycle is continually driven – point of no return.
  • HER-2 receptors are upregulated in tumour cells; hyperactivation of this signalling pathway & abnormal cell proliferation is observed
  • K-Ras mutation/ activation disrupts negative signalling pathway causing unregulated proliferation into intermediate adenoma (MAPK pathway).
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52
Q

what are the properties acquired by cancer cells

A

• Sustaining proliferation signalling
o G1 phase is implicated, Rb protein function is lost.
• Activating invasion and metastasis
Cancer cells gain the ability to migrate to other parts of the body.
• Inducing Angiogenesis
o promoting growth of new blood vessels to give tumour cells a source of oxygen and nutrients
• Resisting cell death via lack of apoptosis
o Cancer cells also fail to undergo programmed cell death, or apoptosis, under conditions when normal cells would (e.g., due to DNA damage)

Emerging hallmarks
• Evading growth suppressors
o Secretion of immunosuppressive factors enables cancers to avoid destruction from the immune system.
• Enabling Replicative immortality
o Metabolic changes that support increased cell growth and division.

Enabling characteristics
• Promoting inflammation
• Genome instability allows mutations to accumulate more rapidly

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53
Q

what is the % of patients who get chemotherapy for breast cancer

A

34% of patients diagnosed with breast cancer have chemotherapy as part of their primary cancer treatment.

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54
Q

how can the risk of relapse be reduced?

A

The risk of recurrence can be reduced using adjuvant chemotherapy.
• Adjuvant = after primary surgery
• Neo-adjuvant = before surgery – reduces invasive surgery
o Locally advanced tumours
o Inflammatory tumours
o For larger tumours or those with large amounts of nodal involvement or inflammatory component, neoadjuvant chemotherapy may be used to shrink the tumour before surgery to improve the outcome and preserve remnant breast tissue

Although chemotherapy comprises part of a successful regimen for treating breast cancer, as many as 50% of patients fail to benefit due to the development of intrinsic and acquired multiple drug resistance
Risk factors associated with onset of a resistant phenotype: genetic predisposition such as mutations in a and b tubulins, and BRCA1/2; induction of expression of multi-drug resistance (MDR) proteins; alterations in spindle assembly checkpoints,cell cycle proteins and apoptosis

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55
Q

what is meant by mitotic inhibitors

A

Disrupt M phase of cell cycle, leading to cell arrest.

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56
Q

how does Taxanes distrupt the cell cycle

A

Taxanes (e.g. Paclitaxel)
Other taxanes include Docetaxel and Carbazitaxel. Paclitaxel is extracted from the bark of T. brevifolia (Pacific Yew); 12 slow-growing trees are required for the treatment of 1 patient.

Paclitaxel is a microtubule stabiliser. It acts during the telophase of M phase, binding to the β subunit of tubulin – the building block of microtubules. The resulting microtubule/paclitaxel complex does not have the ability to disassemble, blocking progression of mitosis and causing prolonged activation of the mitotic checkpoint. This triggers apoptosis or reversion to the G0-phase of the cell cycle without cell division.

Paclitaxel does not meet the requirements of good drug-likeness (RMM = 50326.5; 15 H-bond acceptors). It is Class IV (poorly permeable, poorly soluble) of the Biopharmaceutical Classification System, so is not ideal for oral delivery.

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57
Q

what are the different formulations of taxane therapy

A
  • Paclitaxel is given via IV route
  • Formulation with cremophor (polyoxyl castor oil) improves its water solubility, however cremophor has the potential to cause severe allergic reactions, so pre-administration of steroids and antihistamines is recommended. In addition, cremophor can form micelles in plasma, trapping paclitaxel and preventing distribution to tumour cells.
  • A new approach at Paclitaxel formulation sees paclitaxel complexed with albumin to create a nanoparticle colloidal system. This solubilises paclitaxel which accumulates in tumour beds. No cremophor is used, avoiding issues related to toxicity.
58
Q

what are the side effects associated with taxane therapy

A

Taxane therapy may cause peripheral neuropathy (numbness, tingling, paraesthesia, and a burning pain in a stocking-glove distribution). This is related to effects on microtubule function in nerve cells and other healthy tissue.
Stress hormones were shown to arrest cells in the G0/G1 phase, which would serve to substantiate the decrease in paclitaxel efficacy, which targets cells in the S phase.

59
Q

how does Vinca alkaloids (e.g. Vincristine) work

A

Act during the metaphase, inhibiting microtubule assembly & causing cell arrest (microtubule destabilisers).

60
Q

how do alkylating agents work

A

Cyclophosphamide
• Prodrug, converted to phosphoramide mustard
• Targets S phase
• Cross-links guanine bases by binding alkyl groups
• DNA strands are unable to uncoil, so cells can no longer perform mitosis
• Also adds methyl/ other alkyl groups onto other molecules, causing a miscoding of DNA and cell apoptosis
Mechanisms of resistance:
• Increased ability to repair DNA defects
• Decreased cellular permeability to the drug
• Increased glutathione synthesis
• Inactivation of alkylating agents through conjugation reaction

61
Q

how do anti tumour antibiotics (Anthracyclines/ Etoposides) work

A

Doxorubicin
• Forms complexes with DNA by intercalation between base pairs
• Inhibits topoisomerase II activity, preventing the resealing of DNA strands & inhibiting DNA replication
• May also inhibit polymerase activity, affect regulation of gene expression, and produce ROS, causing free radical damage to DNA and triggering apoptosis

Epirubicin
• Most active during S phase
• Forms complexes with DNA by intercalation between base pairs
• Inhibits topoisomerase II activity, preventing the resealing of DNA strands & inhibiting DNA replication
• Also inhibits nucleic acid & protein synthesis

62
Q

how does Antimetabolites work

A

Thymidylate synthase & dihydrofolate reductase enzymes are involved in the production of thymine (a DNA base); if these enzymes are disrupted, pyrimidine synthesis will cease, and as a result, so will DNA synthesis.

63
Q

how does Fluorouracil (5FU) work as an antimetabolite

A
  • Bio-transformed to ribosyl- and deoxyribosyl- derivatives
  • Targets S phase
  • 5-fluoro-2’-deoxyuridine 5’-phosphate (FdUMP) inhibits thymidylate synthase, therefore inhibits thymidine synthesis, preventing DNA synthesis
  • 5-fluorouridine triphosphate is incorporated into RNA, interfering with RNA function
64
Q

how does methotrexate work as an antimetabolite

A

• Targets S phase
• Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, preventing DNA synthesis
Mechanisms of resistance:
• Decreased drug transport into the cell
• Altered dihydrofolate reductase enzyme with a lower affinity for methotrexate
• Quantitative increase in dihydrofolate reductase enzyme concentration in the cell (gene amplification, increased message)

65
Q

describe how Topoisomerase (Top) inhibitors work

A

Top 1 cleaves one strand of DNA and relaxes DNA coil during replication
Top 2 cleaves two strands of DNA and relaxes DNA supercoil during replication

66
Q

describe Camptothecins (Topotecan and Irinotecan) – Top1 inhibitor work as a Topoisomerase (Top) inhibitors

A
  • Targets S phase
  • Interferes with Top 1 activity, preventing re-ligation of single strand breaks causing lethal double-stranded breaks in DNA & apoptosis
67
Q

how does Etoposide - Top2 inhibitor work as a Topoisomerase (Top) inhibitors

A
  • Targets S phase
  • Interferes with Top 2 activity, inhibiting DNA re-ligation. This causes critical errors in DNA synthesis at the pre-mitotic stage of cell division, leading to apoptosis
68
Q

what is meant by adjuvant chemotherapy

A

Protein kinases carry out post-translational changes to proteins (e.g. serine, threonine, tyrosine or histidine amino acid residues), which affects their reactivity and properties. Phosphorylation is the transfer of a phosphate group from ATP to amino acid residue on protein) gives structural and/or conformational changes to the protein, activating or deactivating it.

Protein kinases are involved in cellular function; they are very important in cell signalling and division. Uncontrolled activity leads to uncontrolled cell growth and division. Therefore, in cancer, proteins kinases are targets.
Tyrosine kinases are a class of protein kinase, where tyrosine is the phosphorylation site. There are receptor and cytoplasmic tyrosine kinases.
69
Q

what is EGFR

A

EGFR are a family of 4 receptor tyrosine kinases: EFGR (ErbB-1, ErbB-2, ErbB-3, ErbB-4) and HER-1, HER-2, HER-3, HER-4.
They have extracellular receptor, transmembrane-spanning domain, kinase domain & ATP-binding domain.

70
Q

how does Trastuzumab work as a monoclonal antibody against HER-2

A

It is a recombinant, humanised Ig1 mAb against the EGFR, HER-2.
• Trastuzumab binds to the extracellular ligand-binding domain and blocks the cleavage of the extracellular domain of HER-2. This prevents the phosphorylation of p95, which is used in the signal transduction pathways
o Inhibition of MAPK and PI3K pathways lead to an increase in cell cycle arrest, and the suppression of cell growth and proliferation.
• Trastuzumab also mediates the activation of antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) by attracting the immune cells, such as natural killer (NK) cells, to tumour sites that overexpress HER-2.
• Disrupts downstream activity and reduces cell growth and division

Trastuzumab must be given via SC injection. Although there are issues associated with SC injection (patient training required, painful at site of injection), it gives good absorption, has a rapid onset of action & is useful if the patient is vomiting or unresponsive.
Trastuzumab halves the risk of relapse (hazard ratio 0.54) but is expensive (£25,000 per patient per year).

71
Q

how does Imatinib work as Tyrosine Kinase inhibitors

A

Imatinib
• Binds to the ATP-binding site of the kinase, intracellularly, interfering with phosphorylation of epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), and ERBB2
• Disrupts downstream activity and reduces cell growth and division

Imatinib meets the requirements of good drug-likeness; it is less than 500 Da, Lop P is < 5, 2 H-bond donors & 6 H-bond acceptors. It is Class I (very permeable, very soluble) of the Biopharmaceutical Classification System, so is ideal for oral delivery.

72
Q

what other biologics are used for the treatment of breast cancer

A

Lapatinib is an inhibitor of the intracellular tyrosine kinase domains of both HER2 and EGFR receptors. It is useful in HER-2 positive BRCA.

Everolimus is an mTOR inhibitor; it reduces the activity of effectors downstream, which leads to a blockage in the progression of cells from G1 into S phase, and subsequently inducing cell growth arrest and apoptosis.
It is useful in post-menopausal women with ER positive, HER2 negative locally advanced or secondary breast cancer whose cancer has progressed or recurred when hormone therapy.

73
Q

what is meant by hormone/ endocrine therapy

A

Oestrogen receptor positive breast cancer cells require oestrogens to proliferate and metastasise. Oestrogen penetrates breast cancers and activates ER receptors, promoting growth.

74
Q

what therapies are used for pre menopausal breast cancer

A
  1. Tamoxifen
  2. Goserelin (GnRH analog)
  3. Aromatase Inhibitors
75
Q

what therapies are used for post menopausal breast cancer

A
  1. Aromatase Inhibitors
  2. Tamoxifen (non-steroidal Antioestrogen)
  3. Fulvestrant (steroidal Antioestrogen)
76
Q

what is the synthesis of oestrogen

A

Cholesterol –> progesterone –> androstenedione –> estrone/ testosterone –> oestradiol

The source of oestrogens depends on whether the patient is premenopausal or post-menopausal.

77
Q

what hormones do pre menopausal E2 women have

A

Most oestrogens are made in ovaries, often by testosterone which is converted in oestradiol (E2).
Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) is a releasing hormone responsible for the release of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH). FSH stimulates ovarian release of oestrogen.

78
Q

what hormones do post menopausal E1 women have

A

Most oestrogens are made outside ovaries; adipose tissue is major source. Androstenedione produces estrone (E1). If a post-menopausal woman with ER+ BRCA, their prognosis is worse because more E1 is produced from adipose. E1 is required for tumour growth & proliferation.

79
Q

describe how does GnRH analogues – E1 work

A

GnRH is responsible for the release of FSH, which is responsible for the ovarian release of oestrogen (E2). Goserelin is a GnRH analogue, acting as a potent inhibitor of GnRH secretion. This therefore decreases E2 levels to levels similar to a postmenopausal state (when the medication is stopped, hormone levels return to normal).

80
Q

describe how Aromatase inhibitors – E2 work

A

Aromatase enzymes convert androgens into oestrogens (E1); inhibitors of aromatase therefore block synthesis of oestrogen.
An example of first-generation aromatise inhibitor is Aminoglutethimide. It blocked all hormone synthesis (cortisol etc) so supplements were needed.
Anastrozole (non-steroidal) & Exemestane (steroidal) are third-generation aromatase inhibitors more specific to treat oestrogen dependent breast cancer.

81
Q

what is meant by oestrogen receptor

A

There are a number of oestrogen receptors; are similar to steroidal receptors – intracellular & affect gene transcription.
ER-α and ER-ß are oestrogen receptors. ER-α is dominant in the vagina, breast, bone, hypothalamus and blood vessels; ER-ß is dominant in ovaries in females.
ER0ß is slightly longer with a number of domains. The C region binds to DNA & the hinge region is where oestrogen binds. When oestrogen binds to ER, the receptors dimerise: ER-α with another ER-α or ER-ß with another ER-ß = homodimers; ER-α with ER-ß – heterodimers.

82
Q

how does Oestradiol (E2) work as an oestrogen receptor

A

Oestradiol (E2) binds to both receptors with equal affinity. Circulating E2 enters the cell and reaches ER receptor. Heat shock protein 90 (HSP90) is bound to ER, so E2 dissociates HSP90 from ER. E2 then binds to receptors, which dimerise. Once dimerised, ER enters nucleus.
Depending on the cell type, ER binds directly to DNA and affects gene transcription or binds indirectly to DNA (by binding to a transcription factor). There are also extranuclear receptors; G-coupled protein receptor (GPR30 or GPER - oestradiol) sit on membrane, coupled to the bottom by lipid tag. The secondary messenger system is cAMP, which can cause gene transcription when G protein coupled receptor is activated.
Non-genomic oestrogenic effects don’t involve DNA transcription; they cause direct physiological effects.
Oestrogen receptors can also activate without oestrogen; GF signalling leads to activation of ER via kinase phosphorylation. ER activation causes gene transcription.

83
Q

how does tamoxifen work as and oestrogen receptor antagonists

A

A prodrug that requires bioactivation by cytochrome P450 enzymes CYP2D6 and 3A4 to generate the active metabolite, endoxifen.
It is a selective oestrogen receptor modulators (SERMs); it acts as a competitive antagonist of oestrogen at ER-α, in the breast. It causes a conformational change in the receptor, modulating the expression of oestrogen-dependent genes. The prolonged binding of tamoxifen results in reduced DNA polymerase activity, impaired thymidine utilization, blockade of oestradiol uptake, and decreased oestrogen response.
It is also a partial agonist at other oestrogen receptors, minimising the potential effects of oestrogen deprivation.

Tamoxifen is not cytotoxic and does not cause a loss of bone marrow.

Ten years of adjuvant treatment with tamoxifen provided women with estrogen receptor-positive breast cancer greater protection against late recurrence and death from breast cancer compared with the current standard of five years of tamoxifen, according to a new study.

84
Q

how does Fulvestrant work as a oestrogen receptor antagonist

A

Fulvestrant is a steroidal antioestrogen, used in post-menopausal women with disease progression following antioestrogen therapy (Tamoxifen). It competitively & reversibly binds to ER, downregulates ER so that oestrogen is no longer able to bind to these receptors and degrading the ER. This inhibits the growth of the tumour, as it is not able to utilise oestrogen.

85
Q

what is meant by adoptive transfer

A

T cells are removed from a patient, genetically modified or treated with chemicals to enhance their activity, and then re-introduced into the patient with the goal of improving the immune system’s anti-cancer response.

86
Q

what is meant by colony stimulating factors

A

Stimulate the production of blood cells. They do not directly affect tumours, but through their role in stimulating blood cells, they can be helpful in supporting the person’s immune system during cancer treatment, since chemotherapy and radiation therapy can affect blood cells, putting the patient at risk for developing infections, anaemia, and bleeding problems.

87
Q

what is meant by tumour vaccines

A

Vaccines constitute an active and specific immunotherapy designed to stimulate the anti-tumour immune response by presenting tumour-associated antigens (TAAs) expressed on normal tissues that are overexpressed on tumour cells. Many TAAs (E.g. MUC1 and HER-2) have been identified and been shown to be specifically recognized by T cells. Induction of strong immunity by cancer vaccines is expected to lead to the establishment of immunological memory, thereby preventing tumour recurrence

88
Q

what is meant by monoclonal antibodies

A

Monoclonal antibodies are laboratory-produced substances that can locate and bind to certain proteins. They do this by reacting against tumour-associated proteins on the surface of certain cells.
These antibodies can be used to see where the tumour is in the body (detection), or as therapy to deliver drugs, toxins, or radioactive material directly to a tumour.
Monoclonal antibodies can be given to target particular molecules on the cell surface. E.g. rituximab to target lymphoma cells and Herceptin to target cells, including breast cancer cells.

89
Q

what is meant by Dendritic cell therapy

A

Dendritic cell therapy provokes anti-tumour responses by causing dendritic cells to present tumour antigens. Dendritic cells present antigens to lymphocytes, which activates them, priming them to kill other cells that present the antigen. In cancer treatment they aid cancer antigen targeting.

90
Q

what is meant by Checkpoint inhibitors

A

Tumours often down-regulate immune function by expressing PD-L1, a ligand for PD-1 (programmed cell death-1 inhibitory receptor). Pembrolizumab is a monoclonal antibody against PD-1; the binding of pembrolizumab to PD-1 prevents the suppression of immune anti-tumour response.

91
Q

what is combined chemotherapy

A

A range of anti-cancer drugs are chosen. They should act at different stages of the cell cycle, with different mechanisms of action. This helps maximise cytotoxic effect and minimise resistance.

92
Q

why is it important for anti cancer drugs to not be given at the same time

A

It is important that anticancer drugs are not all given at the same time; there are interactions and conflicting effects:
• Anthracyclines have a radio-sensitising effect, and should not be given at the same time as radiotherapy
• Trastuzumab increases cardiotoxicity of anthracyclines
• Anthracyclines & Antimitotic agents cause myelosuppression (bone marrow), increasing risk of infection
• Endocrine (hormone) therapy inhbitis the cell cycle; chemotherapies target different phases of the cell cycle so will have no effect when given with hormone therapy

The regime is based on a 21-day cycle, and the anti-cancer drugs are given as follows:

93
Q
A

Order of administration Anti-cancer agent Dose Regime
1 5-fluorouracil (antimetabolite) 500 mg/m2
¬IV bolus Day 1 of 21 for 3 cycles
(once every 3 weeks, over 9-week period)
Epirubicin (anthracycline) 100 mg/ m2
IV bolus
Cyclophosphamide (alkylating agent) 500 mg/m2
IV bolus
2 Docetaxel (antimitotic) 100 mg/m2
IV infusion over 1 hour Day 1 of 21 for 3 cycles
(once every 3 weeks, over 9-week period)
3 Trastuzumab (biologic against HER-2 receptor) 600mg
SC over 5 mins Day 1 of 21 for 18 cycles
(once every 3 weeks, over 54-week period)

94
Q

what is the side effects of chemotherapy dependent on

A

Toxicity is dose-related, and primarily effects rapidly dividing cells (blood-forming cells in the bone marrow, hair follicles & cells in the mouth, digestive tract, and reproductive system).

95
Q

what is meant by Chemotherapy-induced-nausea-and-vomiting (CINV)

A

Chemotherapy-induced-nausea-and-vomiting (CINV) are common side-effects of many cytotoxic drugs. CINV may cause considerable distress, leading in some cases to refusal to undergo further treatment, and can also result in serious metabolic disturbances.
• Anticipatory (occurring prior to treatment)
o Lorazepam (BDZ) relieves anxiety associated with treatment
• Acute (occurring within 24 hours of treatment)
o Granisetron (5HT3 antagonist)
o Metoclopramide (D antagonist)
• Delayed (between 24-72 hours post chemotherapy)
o Dexamethasone (corticosteroid)
o Metoclopramide (D antagonist)
o Netupitant (NK1 antagonist) – very expensive so only given in cases of high emetogenic potential
• Refractory - over 72 hours following chemotherapy

96
Q

what are the causative agents of Myelosuppression

A

Epirubicin
Cyclophosphamide
Docetaxel
5-FU

97
Q

what are the causative agents of Cardiotoxicity

A

Epirubicin
Cyclophosphamide
5-FU
Trastuzumab

98
Q

what are the causative agents of Nausea & Vomiting

A

Epirubicin (H)
Cyclophosphamide (M)
Docetaxel/5-FU/Tras (L)

99
Q

what are the causative agents of Alopecia

A

Epirubicin 69-95%
Cyclophosphamide 40-60%
Docetaxel 80%
5FU

100
Q

what are the causative agents of Peripheral Neuropathy

A

Docetaxel 42-70%

101
Q

what are the causative agents of Vesicant (causes blistering)

A

Epirubicin ++

102
Q

what are the causative agents of Hypersensitivity

A

Docetaxel

Trastuzumab

103
Q

list some of the other side effects of chemotherapy

A
  • Fatigue
  • Hair loss
  • Easy bruising and bleeding
  • Infection
  • Anaemia (low red blood cell counts)
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Appetite changes
  • Constipation
  • Diarrhoea
  • Mouth, tongue, and throat problems such as sores and pain with swallowing
  • Nerve and muscle problems such as numbness, tingling, and pain
  • Skin and nail changes such as dry skin and colour change
  • Urine and bladder changes and kidney problems
  • Weight changes
  • Chemo brain, which can affect concentration and focus
  • Mood changes
  • Changes in libido and sexual function
  • Fertility problems

104
Q

what are some of the problems associated with conventional therapy that lead to sub-optimal treatment.

A
  • Non-specific distribution of drug throughout body
  • Lack of drug selectivity for a particular pathological site
  • Large total dose of drug required but low dose at site required
  • Non-specific toxicity and other adverse effects
105
Q

what is meant by drug targeting

A

Drug targeting is the ability of the drug to accumulate in the target organ or tissue selectively independent of the site or method of administration.

106
Q

how can nanoscale drug delivery increase conc of a drug in passive targeting

A

Nanoscale drug delivery systems can increase the concentration of drug at site of action through passive or active targeting. In addition, they can decrease drug concentration in normal (non-diseased tissue) to reduce toxic side effects and they improve pharmaco-kinetic/dynamic profiles.
To achieve this, minimum amounts of drug should be released during transit, and as much as possible should be released at targeted site.

107
Q

what characteristics of nanoparticles

A

• Nanoparticles
o Solid, spherical ~100 nm in size with drug in polymer matrix
• Nano-capsules
o Drug entrapped in a cavity surrounded by a polymer membrane
• Polymeric micelles
o Spheroidal structure with hydrophobic core which increases solubility of poorly-water soluble drugs, and hydrophilic corona which allows a long circulation time and prevents interactions between core and blood. Dynamic structures ~50 nm.
• Liposomes
o Closed spherical vesicles formed by one or more phospholipid bilayers around an aqueous core in which drug can be entrapped.

108
Q

how does liposomes work as a defence system

A

As with any foreign particle that enters the body, liposomes encounter multiple defence systems aimed at recognition, neutralization, and elimination of invading substances.
The Reticuloendothelial system (RES) is an important component of the immune system. This comprises phagocyte cells found in various organs of the human body. They are located in reticular connective tissues. Upon leaving the circulatory system, phagocytes become macrophages. Macrophages will readily take up and phagocytose liposomes.

109
Q

how is Doxorubicin given as a stealth liposome

A

Doxorubicin can be given using stealth liposomes (>90% of doxorubicin is encapsulated). Stealth liposomes are protected from detection by the mononuclear phagocyte system because they are coated using surface-bound methoxy PEG. This increases blood circulation time and increases the chance of being taken up by tumour cells. In addition, doxorubicin is less cardiotoxic, myelotoxic and nephrotoxic in this formulation because distribution is altered.

110
Q

describe the Angiogenesis process

A

Angiogenesis is the physiological process involving the growth of new blood vessels from pre-existing vessels. This occurs when a tumour exceeds 2mm. Defective blood vessels have sac-like formations and fenestrations, which have enhanced permeability & retention. There is enhanced permeability for drugs/carriers to move from microcapillaries to interstitium surrounding tumour cells and a lack of lack of lymphatic drainage, so drugs will be retained in the tumour interstitium. Drugs should be >10 nm to avoid filtration by kidneys and <100 nm to avoid capture by liver and should be neutral or anionic to avoid renal elimination.

111
Q

what is meant by active targeting

A

A ligand is attached at surface of a nanocarrier for binding to appropriate receptors at target site. The ligand may allow the drug to attach to the surface of cell or internalise for intracellular drug release. This formulation is known as Liganded PEGylated Nanoparticle.

112
Q

what are the aims of active targeting of cancer cells

A

Aims of active targeting of cancer cells are:
• To improve cellular uptake of therapeutic macromolecular drugs
• To target surface receptor over-expressed by cancer cells only
• To target receptors that are likely to be internalised (such as EGFR)

Tumour endothelial cells (not cancer cells) can be targeted too; the aim is to destroy angiogenic blood vessels and kill tumour cells by depriving them of oxygen and nutrients.

113
Q

define Isobars and Isotones

A

Isobars are atoms of different elements having the same mass number (e.g. 6C14, 7N14, 8O14).
Isotones are atoms of different elements having the same number of neutrons (e.g. 14Si30, 15P31).

114
Q

what does A, Z and Sy stand for

A
A = atomic mass (p+n)
Z = proton number (also electron number)
Sy = element
115
Q

how is nuclear instability caused

A

Nuclear instability is caused by the size imbalance of proton: neutron ratio. Two different isotopes of the same element will have different tendencies to undergo nuclear decay; carbon-14 (6 protons + 8 neutrons) is more likely to decay than carbon-12 (6 protons + 6 neutrons).

116
Q

what’re the different nuclear instability

A

The strength of emission is measured in electron volts (eV), where the lethal dose is > 3 MeV
• Α decay (fusion)
o A nucleus breaks down, and a helium atom is released
o E.g. Ra → Rn + He2+ (helium atom – 2 protons & 2 neutrons)
o 1 α gives 10,000 atomic ionisations
o Most damaging to tissues, but least penetrating (µm) – dangerous when inside the body
• Beta decay
o Positron (anti-electron) – ß+ decay
 A neutron suddenly changes into a proton, causing the release of a positron – an electron with a positive charge
o ß-particle (electron) – ß- decay
 A neutron suddenly changes into a proton, causing the release of an electron & neutrino
 E.g. K  Ca + e- + v
o 1 beta gives 100 atomic ionisations
o Damaging to tissues and penetrating (cm) – dangerous when outside the body
• Gamma decay
o The nucleus rearranges to a lower energy state, a photon (gamma ray) is released
o 1 gamma gives 1 atomic ionisations
o Very high energy & highly penetrating, causing DNA damage.

117
Q

what were the radioactive elements that Marie curie discovered

A

Discovered by Marie Curie:
Uranium – (238@92) U is the most abundant isotope (99.27%) and is a natural α emitter
Radium – 223Ra is a radiopharmaceutical produced from the decay of 235U
Polonium – 210Po is a powerful α emitter, 1 million times more toxic than cyanide

118
Q

list some other useful radioactive elements

A
Element	Half-life	Use
Gallium , 68Ga	68 min	Imaging
Rubidium, 81Rb	4.7 h	
Molybdenum, 99Mo	66 h	 Moly-Cow (used to extract 99mTc)
Polonium, 210Po	180 day	
Germanium, 68Ge	280 day	
Cobalt, 60Co	5 years	Sterilisation
119
Q

what are most radiotherapy treatment given by

A

Most radiotherapy treatment is given by External Beam Radiation Therapy (EBRT). Tumours with a diameter of ≥2 cm can be treated using EBRT.
63% of patients diagnosed with breast cancer have radiotherapy as part of their primary cancer treatment. RTX is recommended after a lumpectomy. The survival rate of BRCA is increased by 32-67% with the use of radiotherapy.

120
Q

what does radiotherapy involve

A
Radiotherapy involves daily treatments for 6/7 days over 6 weeks.
Dosing regimens (Gy/hour):
•	Low dose rate (LDR): <2
•	Moderate dose rate (MDR): 2-12
•	High dose rate (HDR): >12
121
Q

what are the subtypes of APBI is Accelerated Partial Breast Irradiation and interstitial RTX.

A

• IMRT – Intensity modulated radiotherapy (IMRT)
• IBRT – Internal Beam Radiotherapy (internal mammary radiotherapy)
o the insertion of radioactive implants (platinum, iridium, indium and palladium) directly into tissue
o Often used for large and capsulated soft tissue tumours
• IORT – intraoperative radiotherapy

122
Q

describe how radiolysis works

A

Radiolysis of water produces hydrogen and hydroxy ions and hydrogen and hydroxy free radicals: water: H+ + HO- + H• + HO•. Additional contact with nearby oxygen creates super-oxides, which cause damage to the cell (indirect DNA damage). These destroy DNA by breaking double strands, leading to cell death. If a tumour is anorexic, it is deprived of oxygen due to rapid outgrowth of blood supply, therefore fewer superoxide are produced; solid tumours are very anorexic and are radio-resistant above 0.5cm3.
Fractionation is where the total dose of radiation is divided into several, smaller doses over a period of several days. This reduces the toxic effects on health cells.

123
Q

what are the main objectives of RTX?

A

• Repair
o Although non-cancerous cells may be affected, their ability to heal double-strand breaks is better than cancer cells
o Fractionation allows normal cells to repair
• Repopulation
o Tumour cells can repopulate when incompletely damaged
o Each fraction (dose of radiation) must cause more damage than the cells ability to repopulate
o Fractionation allows normal cells to repopulate
• Re-assortment
o Each fraction allows re-assortment of tumour cells to be in the M-phase
o More considerable DNA damage is caused
• Reoxygenation
o Most DNA damage is indirect (caused by super-oxides due to free radical contact with oxygen)
o Fractionation causes oxygen-rich tumour cells to die first, and previously hypoxic tumour cells to become oxygenated
o Cells are more susceptible to radiation in next fraction.

124
Q

what are some of the effects of being exposed to radiotherapy

A

Exposure to radiation has many effects, including fatigue, fever, vomiting & nausea (from first exposure), white blood cell damage (after 7 days), hair loss (after 12 days). Other effects include abdominal pain, palpitations, promotion of cancer, and organ damage.

125
Q

what is 2D isotope scanning

A

A radionuclide generator is a source of radionuclides for radiopharmaceuticals. The most commonly used generator in Nuclear Medicine is the is (technetium-99metastable/Molybdenum-99) 99Mo/99mTc generator. It has a short half-life (6 hours), can be easily manufactured. Technetium-99m is used as a radioactive tracer and can be detected in the body by medical equipment (gamma cameras). It is well suited to the role, because it emits readily detectable gamma rays.
When complexed to methylenediorthophophonate (MDP), Tc99m is incorporated in broken bones; a radioactive tracer may view this radioactive blood pooling, indicating a broken bone. Soft tissue doesn’t uptake Tc99m
Tc-sulphur colloid is used in BRCA sentinel lymph node treatment.

126
Q

what is an ultra sound

A

Ultrasound waves reach an object or surface with a different texture and a wave is reflected back. Ultrasound waves are not ionising, but do not penetrate gas or bone, so gaseous areas of the body (lung, bowel) and any bone structures cannot be observed using this method. Solid organs, muscles and tendons may be observed and they are utilised in foetal examinations.

127
Q

what is X-rays

A

X-rays blacken photographic film; more dense structures (bone) appear white and less dense structures (soft-tissue, fat) appear black. X-rays are used to confirm bone fractures or breaks. It is a non-invasive, ionising imaging technique.
Hydroxyapatite is what bone is made from- phosphate salt of calcium.

128
Q

what is Computer Tomography

A

CT scans show a slice, or cross-section, of the body. X-ray images result from attenuation of the X-rays by the material through which they pass. Attenuation is the removal of X-rays from a beam, by absorbing or scattering them; the greater the density of a material, the greater it absorbs/scatters X-rays. The image shows your bones, organs, and soft tissues more clearly than standard x-rays. X-ray computer tomography uses massive doses of ionising radiation; effective dose of head CT is 100 times greater, chest CT is 300 times greater and abdominal CT is 400 times greater.

129
Q

what are mammograms

A

Ionising radiation (lower-energy X-Rays) is used as a complement to ultrasound, ductography, positron emission mammography (PEM), and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), to give an X-ray image of breast tissue. Parallel plates are used to compress breast tissue to reduce exposure and scatter X-rays.

130
Q

what are Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

A

MRIs produce far more detailed images of the structure of a patient’s blood vessels, nerves, bones, and organ. An MRI takes pictures of places in your body that contain water, and the detail in these images comes from the ways that different tissues interfere with the electromagnetic waves coming from water molecules. Protons are aligned parallel (lower-energy state, preferred) or anti-parallel. A very strong, constant magnetic field forms that remains in place for the duration of the measurement, and this super-strong field makes all the protons try to line up with the poles of the field. The MRI machine intentionally disrupts this field by sending a brief pulse of an additional, weaker electromagnetic field. This weaker pulse points in a different direction than the constant magnetic field, and so it disrupts the protons so that they become misaligned with the constant field. Because different places in the body contain different amounts of water, MRI detects the electromagnetic fields of the atoms in water molecules and uses this to determine differences in the density and shape of tissues throughout the body.

131
Q

what are PET scans

A

A positron (ß+ decay) travels a short distance before colliding with an electron of a nearby atom leading to annihilation, where 2 gamma rays (photons) are produced, emitted at 180º to one another. The photons are detected by an external gamma camera. 18F-FDG (18F-fluorodeoxyglucose) is the most commonly used PET radiopharmaceutical. It has a half-life of 110 minutes, allowing it to be transported around the body. FDG is used to measure the rate of glucose metabolism useful for cardiac studies, tumour localisation and quantitation, differentiating between benign and malignant tumours, and monitoring tumour therapy.

132
Q

what are PET-CT

A

Combination of PET (metabolic imaging) with CT (anatomical imaging) to produce a single image detailing anatomic structure and metabolic function to accurately observe abnormalities.

133
Q

how are devices sterilised for surgery

A

Bandages, scalpels, stents, needles & cannulas can be sterilised using gamma rays.

134
Q

what are some of the side effects of Radiotherapy

A
Side effects of treatment
Hair loss
Fatigue
Changes to appearance: reconstruction? When?? Clothing???
Lymphoedema
Menopausal symptoms
Fertility issues

Changes to body
Ongoing hot flushes & mood swings
Vaginal dryness (because of lower oestrogen levels)
Sexuality: period of adjustment – not talked about as much as other side effects but can be just as debilitating

Anxiety
Depression 25% women diagnosed with breast cancer suffer significantly - require medication /CBT or other structured psychological help

Effects on the heart, lungs and bone health due to:
- Chemotherapy/Hormonal therapy
- Radiotherapy
- Early menopause
Weight gain: less active, onset of menopause, steroids whilst having chemo

135
Q

define Pharmacoeconomics

A

Comparing the costs and benefits of interventions and making choices is the basis of health economics. Decision makers need to consider the cost and the benefit of new interventions; in the UK, the cost-effectiveness is preferred. Interventions are compared with one another or the SOC, and an incremental cost for the benefit is reported.

136
Q

what is the EQ-5D

A

EQ-5D questionnaire includes mobility, self-care, effect (improvement, worsening) on activities, pain/ discomfort experienced, anxiety/ depression. The EQ-5D does not include social contact or employment, and certain diseases influence EQ5D more (physical conditions may influence the score more than mental conditions).
The EQ-5D can be used to calculate utility and compare between therapies; a quality-adjusted life year (QALY) is often used – one QALY is equal to 1 year of life in perfect health. e.g. Drug A costs £20,000 per 1 QALY; Drug B costs £60,000 per 1 QALY – Drug A would be preferred.

“ICER= “ “Cost A-Cost B” /”Benefit A-Benefit B”

A drug is deemed cost-effective if it is £20-30,000 ICER per QALY; end of life treatment (extends life beyond three months) is cost effective if £50,000 ICER per QALY.

137
Q

what does it mean if a drug falls into quadrant 1

A

If a drug falls in quadrant 1, it is less effective and more expensive, so will be rejected. If a drug falls in quadrant 4, it is more effective and less expensive, so will be accepted. If a drug falls into quadrants 1 or 3, an ICER must be performed to compare the cost-effectiveness.

Decision analysis models are used to simulate costs & consequences of different care pathways. The probability of a patient following a pathway is assessed and the pathway costs and benefits assigned; decision trees may be used for simple diseases in acute settings, but for complex diseases, there are too many options for them to be viable.

138
Q

what are the 4 quadrants

A

1- less effective, more costly (dominated)

2- more effective, more costly

3- less effective, less costly

4- more effective and less costly (dominant)

139
Q

what is the Markov Model

A

The probability of length of time spent in different health states is calculated, developing QALY based on the cycling. This gives a better indication on cost-effective scale. It is useful for cancer, as it accounts for progression states.

140
Q

what is sensitive analysis

A

SA is essentially the study of how changes in model inputs (quantities, prices, life years, probabilities) affect model outputs (average or expected costs, average or expected benefits, average or expected ICER or Net Monetary Benefit).
There are two types of sensitivity analyses:
1. Deterministic: Values for one or more parameters are chosen, and the rest are kept constant
2. Probabilistic: Parameters and probability distribution are assigned, and simulations are used to compute new ICERs

141
Q

how do you evaluate the costs of anti cancer drugs

A

To gain marketing authorisation, there is a high cost for pharmaceutical companies, so they aim to make some of this back. Most incurable cancers are treated with each approved agent (sequentially or in combination), creating a virtual monopoly because the use of one drug does not automatically mean that the others are no longer needed. Generics are seen as sub-standard to new therapies and are therefore not used. In addition, cancer is seen as a more serious disease, so there is increased willingness to pay a higher price.

142
Q

describe the anticancer funds

A

Established in 2010, the aim was to give cancer patents access to non-NICE approved drugs. Initially set at £50 million, the fund is now £280 million. It was put into place temporarily as a new method of cost effectiveness analysis was developed – value-based pricing (VBP). In terms of pharmacoeconomics, the cancer drugs fund is disastrous; there has been an exponential rise in cost. The CDF may undermine the underlying NICE/NHS principle that all lives are of equal value. The new CDF (from 2016) is part of NICE and aims to review all new cancer drugs within 90 days of license for use in England, and 1 of the following 3 decisions will be made regarding the use:
• Yes - the drug should be routinely available on the NHS
• No - the drug should not be routinely available on the NHS
• Maybe - the drug can be made available via the Cancer Drugs Fund, to ensure efficacy before allowing routine availability