Breast Flashcards

1
Q

Indications for resection of fibroadenoma (5)

A
Size >2cm
Increasing size
Pain associated with lesion
Increased cellularity of lesion
Anxiety caused by presence of mass
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2
Q

Treatments for mastalgia (1 Rx, 3 OTC, 2 diet modifications)

A

Rx: NSAIDs
OTC: Vitamin E, fish oil, evening primrose oil
Diet: Low fat, low caffeine

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3
Q

Treatment for nipple discharge that can be induced from several ducts with manipulation of the breast

A

Reassurance

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4
Q

Treatment for nipple discharge that is spontaneous, unilateral, recurrent and involving a single duct

A

Dx mammography and ultrasound, possible biopsy and surgical excision. Suspicious nipple discharge is bloody or clear.

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5
Q

Most common causes of nipple discharge (3)

A

Papillomas, duct ectasia and fibrocystic breast disease (all benign)

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6
Q

When is there a high suspicion for inflammatory breast cancer in a patient presenting with “mastitis”?

A

Patient is postmenopausal and non-lactating, with no precipitating factors or systemic signs of infection

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7
Q

What is the treatment for patients with needle biopsy results of atypical ductal hyperplasia?

A

Excisional biopsy, coexisting malignancy present in 15-20% of cases

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8
Q

What is the treatment for patients with needle biopsy results of atypical lobular hyperplasia?

A

Excisional biopsy, coexisting malignancy present in 10-15% of cases

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9
Q

What is the treatment for patients with needle biopsy results of sclerosing adenosis with radial scarring?

A

Excisional biopsy, coexisting malignancy present in 10-15% of cases

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10
Q

What is the immediate treatment for patients with needle biopsy results of LCIS?

A

Excisional biopsy to decrease sampling error

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11
Q

If excisional biopsy demonstrates only LCIS, what should be offered?

A

High-risk screening and antiestrogen therapy

High risk screening: annual mammogram, annual MRI, breast exam every 6mo

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12
Q

Who are high risk patients? (6)

A
BRCA mutation
Family history
History of chest wall radiation
Past breast cancer
LCIS
Atypia
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13
Q

BIRADS 0

A

Incomplete, need for additional imaging

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14
Q

BIRADS 1

A

Negative, resume routine screening

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15
Q

BIRADS 2

A

Benign, resume routine screening

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16
Q

BIRADS 3

A

Probably benign, risk of malignancy <2%, 6mo follow up recommended

17
Q

BIRADS 4

A

Suspicious abnormality, intermediate risk of malignancy, biopsy recommended

18
Q

BIRADS 5

A

Highly suggestive of malignancy (>95% chance)

19
Q

BIRADS 6

A

Known biopsy-proven malignancy

20
Q

Treatment of BIRADS 5 lesion after benign needle biopsy

A

Excisional biopsy, risk is too high of false-negative

21
Q

Treatment of clinically suspicious palpable lesion, occult on mammogram and ultrasound, with benign needle biopsy

A

Excisional biopsy

22
Q

ACS criteria for annual breast MRI (5)

A

First-degree relative of BRCA carrier, untested
Lifetime risk >20% (models dependent on family history)
Radiation to chest between ages of 10-30y
Li-Fraumeni syndrome and first-degree relatives
Cowden and Bannayan-Riley-Ruvacaba syndromes and first-degree relatives

23
Q

Per ACS, can consider annual breast MRI (5)

A

Lifetime risk 15-20% (family history models)
LCIS or atypical lobular hyperplasia
Atypical ductal hyperplasia
Heterogeneously or extremely dense breast on mammography
Personal history of breast cancer or DCIS

24
Q

Incidence of breast cancer caused by genetic abnormalities

25
What is the treatment for patients with needle biopsy results of flat epithelial hyperplasia?
Excisional biopsy to rule out sampling error
26
Indications for stereotactic biopsy (8)
Lesions that are highly-suggestive of malignancy (BIRADS 5) Lesions that are suspicious for malignancy (BIRADS 4) Lesions that are BIRADS 3 when there are other clinical reasons to suspect malignancy or when short-term follow up is not feasible Multiple suspicious lesions Mammographic lesions that correspond to suspicious lesions on MRI A nonpalpable suspicious solid mass on mammography that is not seen on ultrasound Suspicious microcalcifications that are new or at site of prior lumpectomy Suspicious architectural distortion
27
What is the presumptive diagnosis and treatment of a fibroepithelial lesion on core biopsy?
Phylloides tumor, wide local excision
28
What breast cancer patient should have an Oncotype sent?
ER(+), node-negative cancers Can consider in ER(+), node-positive, HER2(-) cancers as well
29
Contraindications to breast-conserving therapy (5)
``` Multicentric disease Locally-advanced cancer Inflammatory breast cancer Unfavorable breast-tumor ratio Any contraindication to radiation therapy ```
30
What are the patient criteria required to qualify for “Z11”? (5)
Tumor size <5cm (T1 or T2) Fewer than 3 positive SLN No evidence of extracapsular tumor extension in SLN Planned whole breast RT Planned standard of care adjuvant therapy
31
If a patient qualifies for Z11, what does that mean?
She may avoid completion sentinel lymph node dissection even in the presence of a positive sentinel lymph node. As a reminder, Z11 means: Tumor size <5cm (T1 or T2) Fewer than 3 positive SLN No evidence of extracapsular tumor extension in SLN Planned whole breast RT Planned standard of care adjuvant therapy
32
Why do SLNB for DCIS?
15-20% chance of upstaging when excisional biopsy complete
33
What is the benefit of tamoxifen in high-risk patients?
Reduces cancer risk by 50% Does increase risk of endometrial cancer and DVT.
34
What patients are not eligible for a SLNB?
Patients with inflammatory breast cancer (tumor emboli cause lymphatics) T4 lesions Biopsy-proven positive nodes