BRANT: Chapter 20: #Pathologic (Imaging the Diagnostic Patient) Flashcards

1
Q

This projection is used for magnification views over the MLO projection to evaluate for milk of calcium and for better localization

A

Lateral projection (ML or LM)

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2
Q

T/F: When microcalcifications are being evaluated, typically magnification views in the CC and true lateral (either ML or LM) projections are performed.

A

True

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3
Q

These views can be performed if there is suspicion for dermal calcifications

A

Tangential views

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4
Q

Show lesions deep in posteromedial breast not seen in CC view

A

Cleavage view

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5
Q

View for localizing lesion seen in one view

A

90-degree lateral

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6
Q

View that determines lesion seen in one view by seeing how location changes

A

Rolled views

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7
Q

View that improved visualization of superomedial tissue or used for improved tissue visualization and comfort for women with pectus excavatum, recent sternotomy or prominent pacemaker

A

Lateromedial oblique (LMO)

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8
Q

Diagnosis

A

Skin calcifications

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9
Q

Diagnosis

A

Milk of calcium in breast cysts

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10
Q

Views the can evaluate asymmetries, mammographic findings that do not conform to a radiosense mass and that are only viewed in one project include the following when DBT is not available:
a. True lateral views
b. Rolled CC views
c. Both
d. Neither

A

c. Both

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11
Q

Diagnosis

A

Fibroadenoma

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12
Q

29/F with palpable breast mass. What is the recommended initial imaging modality of choice?

A

Ultrasound

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13
Q

T/F: If the ultrasound identifies a suspicious finding in a young or pregnant patient, a mammogram should be performed to evaluate for extent of disease.

A

True

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14
Q

Cyclic breast pain is defined by intermittent breast pain that spikes during the ____ phase and is thought to be primarily hormonal in etiology due to its relationship to the menstrual cycle

A

Luteal

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15
Q

35/F with noncyclical pain. What is the recommended initial imaging modality of choice?
a. Mammography
b. Ultrasound
c. Either
d. No need for imaging evaluation

A

c. Either

If cyclical pain, no need for imaging evaluation

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16
Q

Pathologic nipple discharge typically presents as the following:
a. Green in color
b. Nonspontaneous
c. Usually arises from multiple ducts
d. Serous

A

d. Serous

Pathologic nipple discharge presents as serous or bloody in color, spontaneous, unilateral, and arising from a single duct.

Physiologic nipple discharge can be green, yellow, or milky in color, nonspontaneous (only presents with expression), bilateral, and usually arises from multiple ducts.

17
Q

Most common etiology of pathologic nipple discharge

A

Intraductal papilloma

18
Q

42/F with pathologic nipple discharge. What is the recommended initial imaging modality of choice?
a. Mammography
b. Ultrasound
c. Either
d. Neither

A

a. Mammography

19
Q

42/F with pathologic nipple discharge have both negative mammographic and sonographic findings. What is the next best step for evaluation?
a. Galactography
b. MRI
c. Either
d. Both
e. NOTA

A

d. Both

20
Q

Mastitis is a common complication for breast feeding women, and typically caused by what organism?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

21
Q

Typically the modality of choice for initial evaluation for mastitis

A

Ultrasound

On ultrasound, mastitis is characterized by an area of heterogeneously altered echotexture from the edema within the parenchyma, skin thickening, and increased vascularity.

An abscess typically presents as a palpable mass with overlying erythema and appears sonographically as an irregular, indistinct, heterogeneously hypoechoic collection, sometimes with multiple loculations

22
Q

54/F presenting with breast erythema, tenderness and skin thickening resembling the outside of an orange. Given antibiotics with no complete resolution. Diagnosis?

A

Inflammatory breast cancer

23
Q

56/F presenting with itching, eczema, and ulceration of the nipple. What is the best imaging modality with best accuracy at finding an underlying malignancy?

A

Breast MRI

Diagnosis: Paget disease (characterized pathologically as invasion of the epidermis of the nipple by malignant cells)

Surgical biopsy for definitive diagnosis

Mammography: initial imaging method but is usually negative

24
Q

23/M. Diagnosis?

A

Normal male breast

25
Q

True regarding gynecomastia, except:
a. ACR recommends ultrasound as the initial imaging modality for any male greater than or equal to 25 years of age
b. Gynecomastia generally appears as a triangular or flame-shaped area of subareolar glandular tissue that points toward the nipple with fat interspersed within the parenchymal elements
c. The three patterns of gynecomastia include nodular, dendritic, and diffuse glandular.
d. AOTA are true

A

a. ACR recommends ultrasound as the initial imaging modality for any male greater than or equal to 25 years of age

26
Q

Most common breast cancer type in men

A

Invasive ductal carcinoma

27
Q

25/M. Diagnosis

A

Gynecomastia

Dendritic

28
Q

BI-RADS 3: probably benign assessment should be given to findings that have a less than ____ (%) chance to represent malignancy.

A

2%

29
Q

T/F: If priors are available and a finding is new, then it would not be appropriate to give a BI-RADS 3: probably benign assessment, despite the presence of probably benign imaging features. In this scenario, a BI-RADS 4: suspicious assessment should be used and biopsy recommended.

A

True

30
Q

Findings appropriate to be given BI-RADS 3 on initial imaging evaluation include:
a. Group of round calcifications
b. Oval, circumscribed mass
c. Focal asymmetry
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

31
Q

It is the most sensitive test for staging breast cancer

A

Breast MRI