Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Generic Name - Brand Name + Indication > Brand Name & Indication > Flashcards

Brand Name & Indication Flashcards

1
Q

N-acetylcysteine

A

NAC

PCM antidote

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Acetylsalicylic acid

A

Aspirin

NSAID, mild to moderate pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Acetylsalicylic acid + Glycine

A

Glyprin/Cardiprin

Prevention of MI, stroke, vascular occlusion, DVT, transient ischaemic attacks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Acyclovir (Inj)

A

Zovirax

Antiviral, Treatment and prophylaxis of herpes simplex in immunocompromised, severe initial genital herpes and Varicella -Zoster

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Isoniazid + Rifampicin

A

Akurit-2

For pulmonary TB in which organisms are susceptible in continuation phase treatment for 4 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Ethambutol + Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide

A

Akurit-4/ Forecox-Trac

Treatment of both pulmonary and extrapulmonary TB, in the intensive treatment phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Amlodipine

A

Norvasc

HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Amoxicillin + Clavulanic acid

A

Augmentin

Infections caused by susceptible organisms. Respiratory tract, skin, soft tissue, GUT infection, septicaemia, peritonitis, post-operative infection & osteomyelitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Ampicillin + Sulbactam

A

Unasyn

Treatment of susceptible bacterial infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Anti RhD Gamma globulin

A

Rhogam

Prevention of Rh(D) sensitisation to Rh(D)-negative woman:

i) Pregnancy/delivery of Rh(D)-positive infant
ii) Abortion/threatened abortion, ectopic pregnancy or hydatidiform mole
iii) Transplacental haemorrhage resulting from antepartum haemorrhage, amniocentesis, chorionic biopsy or obstetric manipulative procedures e.g. external version or abdominal trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Artemether + Lumefantrine

A

Riamet

Acute uncomplicated falciparum malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Benzylpenicillin (Inj)

A

C-pen (crystallised penicillin) / Penicillin G

Narrow spectrum antibiotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Benzalkonium (Powder)

A

Drapolene

Nappy rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Berectant intratracheal suspension

A

Survanta

prevention and treatment (“rescue”) ofRespiratory Distress Syndrome(RDS) (hyaline membrane disease) in premature infants. SURVANTA significantly reduces the incidence of RDS, mortality due to RDS and air leak complications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Betahistine

A

Betaserc

Anti-vertigo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Betamethasone (cream)

A

Betnovate

Corticosteroid, To help reduce the redness and itchiness of certain skin problems, such as eczema, psoriasis and dermatitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Bisacodyl

A

Dulcolax

i) Constipation
ii) Bowel preparation for radiological procedures and surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Bismuth subgallate and benzyl benzoate (suppository)

A

Anusol / Anucare

Temporarily relieve swelling, burning, pain, and itching caused by hemorrhoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Bromhexine

A

Bisolvon

Mucolytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Budesonide (nebulizer)

A

Pulmicort

Corticosteroid, Maintenance treatment of asthma as prophylactic therapy especially if not fully controlled by bronchodilators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Bupivacaine

A

Marcaine

Epidural analgesia for postoperative pain relief.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Calcitriol

A

Rocaltriol

Vitamin D (made in the kidney, treat low calcium)

i) Established postmenopausal osteoporosis
ii) Renal osteodystrophy in patients on haemodialysis
iii) Hypoparathyroidism and rickets
iv) Secondary hyperparathyroidism in renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Calcium carbonate

A

CaCO3

i) Hyperphosphatemia (phosphate binder) in chronic renal failure patients
ii) Calcium supplementation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Calcium polystyrene sulphonate

A

Kalimate

Hyperkalemia resulting from acute or chronic renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Carbamazepine

A

Tegretol

Epilepsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Carboprost

A

Hemabate

Postpartum haemorrhage refractory to oxytocin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Cefoperazone + Sulbactam

A

Sulperazone

i) Treatment of infections due to multi-drug resistance pathogens producing B-lactamase
ii) Treatment of infections caused by Acinetobacter species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Ceftazidime

A

Fortum

3rd generation cephalosporin
Severe gram negative bacterial infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Ceftriaxone

A

Rocephine

3rd generation cephalosporin
Infections caused by susceptible organisms
i) Gonorrhoea
ii) Chancroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Cefuroxime (tablet)

A

Zinnat

2nd generation cephalosporin
Upper and lower respiratory tract, genito-urinary tract, skin & soft tissue and urinary tract infections (UTI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Cefuroxime (injection)

A

Zinacef

Infections caused by susceptible organisms, surgical prophylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Celecoxib

A

Celebrex

COX-2 selective NSAID

i) Osteoarthritis
ii) Rheumatoid Arthritis
iii) Acute pain
iv) Ankylosing Spondylitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Cetirizine

A

Zyrtec

Second generation antihistamine,
Urticaria, allergic dermatoses (insect bites, atopic eczema), perennial rhinitis, allergic rhinitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Chloramphenicol

A

CMC

Broad spectrum antibiotic, Eye ointment for eye infection, capsule for Treatment of typhoid, paratyphoid fevers, bronchopneumonia and enteric infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Chlorhexidine acetate tulle gras dressing

A

Bactigras

Disinfectant, antiseptic
adjunctive treatment and prevention of infection in skin loss lesions, including wounds, burns and ulcers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Chlorhexidine in spirit

A

Cord spirit

Disinfectant and drying of umbilical cord stump in newborn baby
To be used undiluted for hand and skin disinfections

37
Q

Chlorpheniramine

A

Piriton

Antihistamine, treatment of allergic rhinitis

38
Q

Choline salicylate cetylkonium chloride dental gel

A

Bonjela / oral aid

For relief of the pain and discomfort in mouth ulcers and sores, infant teething and denture irritation

39
Q

Gonadotrophin chorionic human injection

A

HCG

i) Treatment of infertile women to induce ovulation
ii) As a luteal support in controlled ovarian hyperstimulation cycles

40
Q

Ciprofloxacin

A

Ciprobay

Quinolone antibiotic

41
Q

Clarithromycin

A

Klacid

Macrolide antibiotic
i) treatment of complicated respiratory tract infection not responding to standard macrolides ii) eradication of Helicobacter pylori infection

42
Q

Clopidogrel

A

Plavix

Antiplatelet(Reduce risk of CVD and stroke)
Secondary prevention of atherothrombotic events in: i) Adult patients suffering from myocardial infarction (from a few days until less than 35 days), ischaemic stroke (from 7 days until less than 6 months) or established peripheral arterial disease. Prescribing restriction: as second/third line treatment in patients who are sensitive or intolerant to acetylsalicylic acid and/or ticlopidine). ii) Adult patients suffering from acute coronary syndrome: • Non-ST segment elevation acute coronary syndrome (unstable angina or non-Q-wave myocardial infarction), including patients undergoing a stent placement following percutaneous coronary intervention. • ST segment elevation acute myocardial infarction, in combination with acetylsalicylate acid (ASA) in medically treated patients eligible for thrombolytic therapy.

43
Q

Clotrimazole

A

Canesten

Antifungal, Vaginal candidiasis

44
Q

Colistimethate sodium

A

Collitin E

Polomyxin antibiotic, Intravenous administration for the treatment of serious infections caused by Gram negative bacteria, when more commonly used systemic antibacterial agents may be contraindicated or may be ineffective because of bacterial resistance.

45
Q

Cyclopentolate with phenylepherine eye drop

A

Cyclomydril

Dilating agent for premature babies

46
Q

Dexmedetomidine

A

Precedex

i) Sedation of intubated and mechanically ventilated ICU patients. For use only by specialist anaesthetist
ii) For sedation of non-intubated patients prior to and/or during surgical and other procedures

47
Q

Diclofenac

A

Voltaren

NSAID, Pain and inflammation in rheumatic disease

48
Q

Dinoprostone (prostaglandine E2)

A

Prostin E2

Induction of labour

49
Q

Diosmin + Hesperidin

A

Daflon

i) Haemorrhoids
ii) Chronic venous insufficiency

50
Q

Diphenhydramine

A

Benadryl

Cough, antihistamine

51
Q

Diphenoxylate + atropine

A

Lomotil

Acute diarrhoea

52
Q

Doxazosin

A

Cardura

Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia

53
Q

Dutasteride

A

Avodart

Benign prostatic hyperplasia in men with an enlarged prostate gland

54
Q

Dydrogesterone

A

Duphaston

Progestin medication

i) Dysmenorrhoea
ii) Endometriosis
iii) Dysfunctional uterine bleeding (to arrest and to prevent bleeding)
iv) Threatened abortion
v) Habitual abortion
vi) Post menopausal complaints (hormone replacement therapy in combination with oestrogen)

55
Q

Enoxaparin

A

Clexane

Anticoagulant

i) Prevention of Deep Vein Thrombosis(DVT) especially in perioperative and high risk surgical cases
ii) Treatment of DVT
iii) Unstable angina and non Q wave Myocardial Infarction

56
Q

Ertapenem

A

Invanz

Carbapenem antibiotic

i) Patient with confirm ESBL producing gram-negative infection.
ii) Empiric treatment for severe community acquired pneumonia or other infections when Pseudomonas aeruginosa is not suspected.

57
Q

Erythromycin Ethyl succinate

A

EES

Macrolide antibiotic

58
Q

Esomeprazole

A

Nexium

i) Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease
ii) H. pylori eradication

58
Q

Esomeprazole

A

Nexium

i) Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease
ii) H. pylori eradication

59
Q

Etoricoxib

A

Arcoxia

Selective COX-2 inhibitor

i) Acute and chronic treatment of signs and symptoms of osteoarthritis (OA) and rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
ii) Acute gouty arthritis
iii) Acute pain

60
Q

Filgrastim

A

Neupogen

i) Prevention and treatment of febrile neutropenia due to cancer chemotherapy (except chronic myeloid leukaemia and myelodysplastic syndrome)
ii) Haemopoeitic stem cell transplantation (HSCT)/stem cell harvesting

61
Q

Finasteride

A

Proscar

Treatment and control of benign prostatic hyperplasia

62
Q

Fluvoxamine

A

Luvox

SSRI, Depression

63
Q

Frusemide

A

Lasix

Pulmonary oedema

64
Q

Gemfibrozil

A

Lopid

Abnormal blood lipid levels
Treatment of hyperlipoprotinaemias (TYPES IIA, IIB, III, IV, V)

65
Q

Gliclazide

A

Diamicron

Sulfonylurea, Antidiabetic (DM2)

66
Q

Glycerin + sodium chloride enema

A

Ravin

Constipation

67
Q

Glyceryl trinitrate

A

GTN

Prophylaxis and treatment of angina and left ventricular failure

68
Q

Granisetron

A

Kytril

Prevention and treatment of nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy and radiotherapy

69
Q

Sodium chloride 0.9%

A

Normal saline

70
Q

Hepatitis B immunoglobulin

A

Hepabig

i) For post-exposure prophylaxis of hepatitis B
ii) Prophylaxis against recurrence of hepatitis B infection in chronic hepatitis B post liver transplantation

71
Q

Human normal immunoglobulin

A

IVIG

72
Q

Hydrocortisone

A

Hydrocort

Inflammatory and pruritic manifestations of corticosteroid responsive dermatoses

73
Q

Hydroxyethyl cellulose jelly

A

KY jelly

For lubricating purpose

74
Q

Hyoscine

A

Buscopan

Gastrointestinal tract and genito-urinary tract spasm, dyskinesia of the biliary system

75
Q

Imipenem + cilastatin

A

Tienam

Severe infections caused by susceptible pathogens especially useful in infections involving ESBL organisms. Not to be used for prophylaxis

76
Q

Ipratropium

A

Atrovent

Short-acting muscarinic antagonist, Maintenance treatment of bronchospasm associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, including chronic bronchitis and emphysema. Used concomitantly with inhaled beta-agonists in the treatment of acute bronchospasm associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease including chronic bronchitis and asthma.

77
Q

Ipratropium + salbutamol

A

Combivent

SAMA + SABA (short-acting selective beta 2 receptor agonist)
Management of reversible bronchospasm associated with obstructive airway diseases

78
Q

Iron dextran

A

Cosmofer

Severe iron deficiency anaemia

79
Q

Iron sucrose

A

Venofer / Avofer

Treatment of iron deficiency anaemia:

a) where there is a clinical need for rapid iron supply
b) in patients who cannot tolerate oral iron therapy or who are non-compliant
c) in active inflammatory bowel disease where oral iron preparations are ineffective

80
Q

Isoniazid

A

INH

Antibiotic for

i) Tuberculosis
ii) Tuberculous meningitis

81
Q

Isosorbide Dinitrate

A

Isoket

Prophylaxis and treatment for:

i) Angina
ii) Left ventricular failure

82
Q

Isosorbide mononitrate

A

Imdur

Prophylaxis and treatment of angina pectoris

83
Q

Levetiracetam

A

Keppra

Antiepileptic

i) Monotherapy therapy in the treatment of partial onset seizures with or without secondary generalization in patients from age 16 years of age with newly diagnosed epilepsy
ii) Adjunctive treatment in partial onset seizures with or without secondary generalization in adults and children from 4 years of age with epilepsy; juvenile myoclonic epilepsy and idiopathic generalized tonic clonic epilepsy from 12 years of age. To be initiated when conventional IV antiepileptic drugs failed to achieve control, or oral form is temporarily not feasible in seizure emergencies

84
Q

Levonorgestrel

A

Escapelle

Progestin only OCP

85
Q

Levothyroxine

A

L-thyroxine

86
Q

Diphenoxylate + atropine (tablet)

A

Lomotil

Acute diarrhoea

87
Q

Loratadine

A

Claritin

Second generation antihistamine, Allergic rhinitis and allergic dermatoses

88
Q

Losartan

A

Cozaar

ARB (angiotensin II receptor blocker)
Patients intolerant of ACE inhibitors, only in the treatment of
i) Hypertensive patient with left ventricular hypertrophy
ii) Hypertension in diabetics with proteinuria or nephropathy

Generic Name - Brand Name + Indication (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions