Brainscape small font Flashcards
Question (1 - 300)
A ___________ is used primarily to track the stability of the average value of a metric of interest.
A. NP Chart
B. Xbar-R Chart
C. I-MR Chart
D. C Chart
Answer: B
Question (2 - 300)
For her injection molding project a Belt needed to track the percentage of defectives of a particular
sample set so she used a ___________ to display the data?
A. Individual Chart
B. C Chart
C. Xbar Chart
D. P Chart
Answer: D
Question (3 - 300)
Which of these graphs demonstrates conditions which would be sufficient to enable OCAP for the
process?
A. Xbar Chart
B. Time Series Chart
C. Neither
D. Both
Answer: A
Question (4 - 300)
Control Charts were developed by Dr. Shewhart to track data over time. To detect Special Cause
variation the Control Charts use which of these?
A. Data shift analysis
B. Outlier analysis methods
C. Center Line and Control Limits
D. None of the above
Answer: C
Question (5 - 300)
Common and ______________ Cause Variation are the focus of Statistical Process Control.
A. Uncommon
B. Ordinary
C. Special
D. Selective
Answer: C
Question (6 - 300)
Special Cause Variation falls into which two categories?
A. Natural & Unnatural
B. Short Term & Long Term
C. Assignable & Pattern
D. Attribute & Discreet
Answer: C
Question (7 - 300)
Range Charts are the technique used to determine if Special Causes are occurring within the
subgroups of the ______________.
A. Histograms
B. SPC Charts
C. NP Charts
D. Pareto Charts
Answer: B
Question (8 - 300)
If the production is for higher volume and monitoring and the Mean and variability is to be
monitored for four machines producing product and the characteristic to be monitored is Variable
Data, which SPC Chart is best to be selected?
A. Xbar-R Chart
B. Individual-MR Chart
C. NP Chart
D. CUSUM Chart
Answer: A
Question (9 - 300)
When a Belt Poka-Yoke’’s a defect out of the process entirely then she should track the activity
with a robust SPC system on the characteristic of interest in the defect as an early warning
system.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Question (10 - 300)
Following the completion of a LSS project the Belt not only creates a Control Plan he also
develops a _____________ so those involved in the process know what to do when the critical
metrics move out of spec.
A. Response Plan
B. Call List
C. Chain-of-Command
D. Defect Analysis Plan
Answer: A
Question (11 - 300)
The Control Limits width varies if the sample size varies for which type of chart?
A. P Charts
B. NP Charts
C. Xbar-R Charts
D. Time Series Charts
Answer: A
Question (12 - 300)
Which of these elements are not included in Implementation plans?
A. Work breakdown structure
B. Risk management plans
C. Cost/Benefit ratios
D. Planned audits of work completion
Answer: C
Question (13 - 300)
Upon completion and validation of an improvement to a process a Belt and the Project Team
create a Control Plan that contains which of these?
A. Standard operating work description of the process change
B. Description of the monitoring system in place to assure continued compliance
C. Summary of the targeted critical metrics for process performance measurement
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Question (14 - 300)
What conclusion is most correct about the Experimental Design shown here with the response in
the far right column?
A. No factor has enough statistical confidence greater than 95% to have an impact on the
response rate
B. Constant, Adv and Bev are the only factors statistically affecting the response rate with 95%
confidence or more
C. If the Adv is increased from the low level to the high level, the response rate increases
D. The response level is statistically concluded to only need the Adv and Bev factors set at the low
level to get the largest response rate
E. This design does not have enough experimental runs to conclude anything as evidenced by the
lack of P-values in the MINITABTM output
Answer: D
Question (15 - 300)
Which statement(s) are correct about the Factorial Plot shown here? (Note: There are 3 correct
answers).
A. When the cutting speed increased from low to high level, the tool age increases
B. The coefficient of the metal hardness is positively related to the output of tool age
C. The coded coefficient is lower for cutting speed than the cutting angle related to the output of
tool age
D. These plots prove a statistically significance factor with 95% confidence
E. These plots are an example of interaction plots
Answer: A,B,C
Question (16 - 300)
How many experimental runs exist in a Full Factorial and fully randomized design for 4 factors with
2 replicates for the Corner Points and no Center Points? The factors in the experiment are only at
2-levels.
A. 10
B. 32
C. 256
D. 64
Answer: B
Question (17 - 300)
If an experiment has 5 factors and no replicates for a 2-level Experimental Design with 16
experimental runs which statement is incorrect?
A. The Experimental Design is half-fractional
B. The Main Effects are confounded with only 4-way interactions
C. The Main Effects for the 5 factors are not aliased or confounded but the 2-way interactions are
confounded with the 3-way interactions
D. The experiment has 8 experimental runs with the first factor at the high level
Answer: C
Question (18 - 300)
Which statement(s) are correct about the Pareto Chart shown here for the DOE analysis? (Note:
There are 2 correct answers).
A. It is unknown from this graph how many factors were in the Experimental Design
B. The factors to keep in the mathematical model are E, D, DE, BD and B with an alpha risk equal
to 2.06
C. The effects to keep in the mathematical model are E, D, DE, BD and B with an alpha risk equal
to 0.05
D. The factors to keep in the mathematical model with a 5% alpha risk are BE, AB, A and AD
Answer: A,C
Question (19 - 300)
Fractional Factorial, ____________and Response Surface Method are types of planned
experiments.
A. Multi-Vari Analysis
B. Baldridge Channels
C. One Factor at a Time or OFAT
D. Factorial Design
Answer: D
Question (20 - 300)
Relative to a Design of Experiments the term ________________ refers to variables being a linear
combination of each other.
A. Mirror Image
B. Directly Parallel
C. Collinear
D. None of the above
Answer: C
Question (21 - 300)
Which statement(s) are incorrect about Fractional Factorial Designs?
A. A Half Fractional Design for 5 factors has the same number of experimental runs as a Full
Factorial Design for 4 factors assuming no repeats or replicates or Center Points
B. Quarter Fractional experiments can exist for those with 4 factors
C. Resolution V design is desired while controlling costs of experimentation
D. Half Fractional experiments do not exist for those designs with only 2 factors
Answer: C
Question (22 - 300)
If in an experiment all possible variable pairs sum to zero the design is Orthogonal.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Question (23 - 300)
Which Experimental Design typically is most associated with the fewest number of input variables
or factors in the design?
A. Fractional Factorial design
B. Full Factorial design
C. Simple Linear Regression
D. Response Surface Design
Answer: D
Question (24 - 300)
The method of Steepest Ascent guides you toward a target inside the original inference space.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Question (25 - 300)
Situations where standardized work needs to be incorporated include all of these except
_____________________.
A. Machines continually operating to reduce the labor cost per piece
B. Lack of a system to assure proper inventory levels at repair stations
C. Changeover instructions incomplete
D. Process flow for the same product assembly taking various cycle time for completion
Answer: A
Question (26 - 300)
The Lean toolbox includes all of these items except ________________.
A. Mistake Proofing
B. Visual Factory
C. Design of Experiments
D. Inventory Management
Answer: C
Question (27 - 300)
Questions that can be best answered by a Visual Factory include all of these except
_____________________.
A. Are downtime issues easily noted?
B. Can extra inventory be seen easily?
C. Are unneeded tools or supplies easily noted?
D. Are setups optimized for lower scrap levels?
Answer: D
Question (28 - 300)
If a Six Sigma project was to reduce repair station inventory and the team found the inventory was
creeping up over time which Lean tools should be considered in the Control Phase to reestablish
and sustain the project success?
A. Review the Visual Factory to assure inventory in excess of desired visible
B. Improve the lighting to assure adequate visibility
C. Analyze data from supplier deliveries
D. Reword the standardized work instructions to use active verbs and not passive phrases
Answer: A
Question (29 - 300)
When a Belt implements an improvement that is automated thus requiring no particular
understanding for use he has applied which Lean tool?
A. Mistake Proofing
B. Kaizen Event
C. 5S
D. None
Answer: A
Question (30 - 300)
Kaizens or Kaikakus and Six Sigma projects are intended to create incremental process
improvements versus breakthrough, significant improvements.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Question (31 - 300)
Which of these items contribute to what is necessary for successful Kaizen events?
A. Analysis tools
B. Management support
C. Operator support
D. All of these answers are correct
Answer: D
Question (32 - 300)
Kanban establishes a means of monitoring production, conveyance and delivery information such
that efficient flow is established. The method used by Kanban is to require a _________ before
anything moves.
A. Sign-off
B. Signal
C. Bell to ring
D. Work order
Answer: B
Question (33 - 300)
When a Belt decides to use written procedures and visual controls to improve the consistency of
the tasks that must occur in the process he is improving he has utilized the _________________
activity of 5S.
A. Sustaining
B. Sorting
C. Standardizing
D. Straightening
Answer: C
Question (34 - 300)
SPC Charts are used extensively in different business and decision-making environments. In this
example a vendor is being selected based on speed of delivery. Which of the conclusions would
help you pick a vendor for your needs regarding lead-time of delivery from your vendors? (Note:
There are 4 correct answers).
A. Vendor A with a much shorter lead time in delivery
B. Vendor B as it has a better consistency (lower variance) on lead time
C. Vendor B as Vendor A shows a situation out of control as shown in red
D. Vendor B as the Control Limits are much narrower than Vendor A
E. Vendor B with higher lead time, but a process with much narrower Control Limits
Answer: B,C,D,E
Question (35 - 300)
Fractional Factorial designs are used to reduce the ____________ because the number of runs
has been lowered.
A. Time and cost of experiments
B. Number of people involved
C. Number of data measurement points
D. Output summary
Answer: A
Question (36 - 300)
Fractional Factorial Designs are used to analyze factors to model the output as a function of inputs
if Hypothesis Testing in the Analyze Phase was inadequate to sufficiently narrow the factors that
significantly impact the output(s).
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Question (37 - 300)
A Factorial Experiment based on a Level 2 Design with 6 factors would require 16 runs to fully
assess the interactions.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Question (38 - 300)
A Full Factorial experiment using a 3 level 3 factor approach has been proposed to test the
viability of an extrusion machine experiment. How many treatment combinations will this approach
involve?
A. 6
B. 9
C. 27
D. 54
Answer: C
Question (39 - 300)
Screening experiments are the proper choice when a Belt is faced with the situation of highly
Fractional Factorial Designs.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Question (40 - 300)
Which statement(s) are correct about the DOE Factorial plot output here? (Note: There are 3
correct answers).
A. Two factors were operated at 3 levels each
B. The highest tool age was achieved with metal hardness at high level while keeping the cutting
speed at the low level
C. The design indicated above is a 32 factorial design
D. The cutting speed and cutting angle are at the low level for the least tool age achieved
E. All factors had 2 levels in the experiment
Answer: B,C,E
Question (41 - 300)
Which statement(s) are incorrect for the Regression Analysis shown here? (Note: There are 2
correct answers).
A. The air-fuel ratio explains most of the TurbineOutput variation
B. The Regression explains over 98% of the process variation
C. This Multiple Linear Regression has three statistically significant independent variables
D. If the air-fuel ratio increases by 1, the TurbineOutput more than triples
E. The SteamExitTemp explains the most variation of the TurbineOutput
Answer: D,E
Question (42 - 300)
Which statement(s) are most correct for the Regression Analysis shown here?
A. The Regression explains 50.8% of the process variation
B. The air-fuel ratio explains most of the TurbineOutput variation
C. This Simple Linear Regression explains 98+% of the process variation
D. This Multiple Linear Regression has four statistically significant independent variables
Answer: B
Question (43 - 300)
A valid mathematical Regression represents all of the characteristics shown except
___________________________.
A. The residuals when plotted follow a Normal Distribution
B. The sum of the residuals is zero
C. All of the standardized residuals will be within ‘‘3 Standard Deviations
D. Most standardized residuals are within ‘‘2 Standard Deviations
Answer: A
Question (44 - 300)
When a Belt conducts a Linear Correlation Analysis and finds that as an X increases the Y also
increase then he has proven a ______________ correlation.
A. Negative
B. Positive
C. Monomial
D. Single alignment
Answer: B
Question (45 - 300)
A valid Multiple Linear Regression (MLR) is characterized by all of these except
_______________________.
A. It is an assumption that the X’’s (inputs) are not correlated to each other
B. The X’’s (inputs) are assumed to be independent of each other
C. MLR is conducted based on a deliberate form of experimentation
D. The Residuals from MLR analysis have to be Normally Distributed
Answer: C
Question (46 - 300)
Which statement is NOT correct about the Fitted Line Plot shown here?
A. The independent variable is the reactant
B. If the reactant was 6 units, with 95 % confidence we would expect a minimum yield of 100 units
C. With at least 95% confidence, we can expect less than 10 units of Yield when the reactant is at
a value of 1
D. A reactant value between 2 and 4 units yields around 20 to 40
E. When the reactant increases, the expected yield would increase
Answer: D
Question (47 - 300)
When doing Hypothesis Testing on Non-normal data Belts will use a ________________ to
compare more than two sample proportions to each other.
A. Z score Table
B. Sakami Table
C. Mean-to-Mode Analysis
D. Contingency Table
Answer: C
Question (48 - 300)
It would be more likely than not for a Belt conducting a Regression Analysis to find that the
_______________________.
A. r2 value is smaller than the absolute value of r
B. Correlation Coefficient equals r2
C. Coefficient of Determination is less than r2
D. Correlation Coefficient equals r divided by 2
Answer: A
Question (49 - 300)
When a Belt properly analyzes the results of an experiment he must examine the Residuals in
expectation of finding all of the following except _________.
A. Some Residuals higher than others
B. Some Residuals lower than others
C. All Residuals within 2 Standard Deviations of the Mean
D. Residuals will represent a Linear Regression
Answer: D
Question (50 - 300)
Which statement(s) are correct about the Regression shown here? (Note: There are 2 correct
answers).
A. The dependent variable is the outside temperature
B. The relationship between outside temperature and number of customers per hour is a Linear
Regression
C. The dashed lines indicate with 95% confidence where all of the process data should fall
between
D. The dashed lines indicate with 95% confidence the estimate for the Quadratic Regression Line
E. The predicted number of customers per hour is close to 5 if the outside temperature is 10 deg C
Answer: D,E
Question (51 - 300)
Which of these might contribute to similar distributions having Unequal Variance?
A. Extreme tails
B. Outliers
C. Multiple Modes
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Question (52 - 300)
A Belt working in a supply chain environment has to make a decision to change suppliers of critical
raw materials for a new product upgrade. The purchasing manager is depending on the Belt’’s
effort requiring that the average cost of an internal critical raw material component be less than or
equal to $4,200 in order to stay within budget. Using a sample of 35 first article components, a
Mean of the new product upgrade price of $4,060, and a Standard Deviation of $98 was
estimated. Select the answer that best states the Practical Problem.
A. If the average cost per component is $4,200 or less, then the purchase manager will introduce
the new product upgrade with new components.
B. If the average cost per component is greater than $4,200, then the purchase manager will
introduce the new product upgrade with new components.
C. Only if the average cost per product upgrade is $4,060, will the purchase manager introduce
new product upgrades with new components.
D. If the average cost per new product upgrade is less than $180, then the purchase manager will
introduce the new product upgrade with new components.
Answer: C
Question (53 - 300)
A Belt working in a supply chain environment has to make a decision to change suppliers of critical
raw materials for a new product upgrade. The purchasing manager is depending on the Belt’’s
effort requiring that the average cost of an internal critical raw material component be less than or
equal to $4,200 in order to stay within budget. Using a sample of 35 first article components, a
Mean of the new product upgrade price of $4,060, and a Standard Deviation of $98 was
estimated. The Alternative Hypothesis in the above example is?
A. The Standard Deviation is equal to $300.
B. The Mean is less than $4,320.
C. The Mean is equal to $4,060.
D. The Mean is less than $4,200.
E. The Mean is greater than $ 4,200.
Answer: E
Question (54 - 300)
A Belt working in a supply chain environment has to make a decision to change suppliers of critical
raw materials for a new product upgrade. The purchasing manager is depending on the Belt’’s
effort requiring that the average cost of an internal critical raw material component be less than or
equal to $3,600 in order to stay within budget. Using a sample of 42 first article components, a
Mean of the new product upgrade price of $3,200 and a Standard Deviation of $180 was
estimated. Based on the data provided, the Z value for the data assuming a Normal Distribution
is?
A. 1.11
B. 2.22
C. 4.30
D. 5.42
Answer: B
Question (55 - 300)
A Belt working in a supply chain environment has to make a decision to change suppliers of critical
raw materials for a new product upgrade. The purchasing manager is depending on the Belt’’s
effort requiring that the average cost of an internal critical raw material component be less than or
equal to $3,800 in order to stay within budget. Using a sample of 38 first article components, a
Mean of the new product upgrade price of $3,680, and a Standard Deviation of $120 was
estimated. In order to increase the Long Term Z value to 5, what is the maximum long term
variation in pricing the Belt can accept for his upgraded critical raw material component?
A. $6
B. $12
C. $24
D. $48
Answer: C
Question (56 - 300)
Sally and Sara sell flower pots at their garage sale. Sally motivates Sara mentioning that they will
sell a minimum of 15 pots per day if the outside temperature exceeds 60o F. From a sample,
whose population is assumed to follow a Normal Distribution, taken for 30 days at 60 degrees or
more an average of 13.6 pots per day were sold with a Standard Deviation of 0.7 pots. For the
sales accomplished above, what test would validate if they met their requirements?
A. F Test
B. Test for Equal Variance
C. Chi Square Test
D. One-Sample t-Test
Answer: D
Question (57 - 300)
Sally and Sara sell flower pots at their garage sale. Sally motivates Sara mentioning that they will
sell a minimum of 15 pots per day if the outside temperature exceeds 60o F. From a sample,
whose population is assumed to follow a Normal Distribution, taken for 30 days at 60 degrees or
more an average of 13.6 pots per day were sold with a Standard Deviation of 0.7 pots. The
statistical Degrees of Freedom for this example are?
A. 1
B. 29
C. 30
D. 31
E. 2
Answer: B
Question (58 - 300)
Sally and Sara sell flower pots at their garage sale. Martha motivates Rose mentioning that they
will sell a minimum of 16 pots per day if the outside temperature exceeds 60o F. From a sample,
whose population is assumed to follow a Normal Distribution, taken for 30 days at 60 degrees or
more an average of 15.2 pots per day were sold with a Standard Deviation of 0.6 pots. What is
the Z value for this sales process?
A. 0.67
B. 1.13
C. 1.33
D. 2.66
Answer: C
Question (59 - 300)
The relationship between a response variable and one or more independent variables is
investigated and modeled by use of __________________.
A. X-Y Matrix
B. Baldridge Assessment
C. Analysis of Variance (ANOVA)
D. Critical X’s Definition
Answer: C
Question (60 - 300)
An ANOVA used across many dependent variables could increase the Beta risk.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Question (61 - 300)
The Mann-Whitney test is a powerful test and is unique to situations from which of the choices
listed? (Note: There are 2 correct answers).
A. Testing the identity of two populations
B. Focuses on equality of the Median of the two populations
C. Less powerful than the traditional ‘‘t-test’’
D. More widely applicable than the traditional ‘‘t-test’’
Answer: B,D
Question (62 - 300)
Assessing process proportion as opposed to evaluating a process with respect to a set target can
be done using which of these?
A. Process proportion equals some value range
B. Process proportion equals some desired value
C. Target is current
D. Proportion of the tail is equal
Answer: B
Question (63 - 300)
A Non-parametric Test should be used if just one distribution is not Normal out of the two or more
gathered.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Question (64 - 300)
Contingency Tables are used to test for association, or dependency, between two or more
classifications.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Question (65 - 300)
For the data shown here which statement(s) are true? (Note: There are 2 correct answers).
A. With 95% confidence, we cannot conclude if the samples are from three Normal Distributions.
B. With greater than 95% confidence, we conclude the samples are from Non-normal
Distributions.
C. If we wanted to compare the Central Tendencies of these three samples we would use the one
way ANOVA test.
D. If we wanted to compare the Central Tendencies of these three samples we could use Mood’’s
Median test.
Answer: B,D
Question (66 - 300)
A(n) ______________ is best used to compare a Machine 1 average quality characteristic to the
same quality characteristic of Machine 2.
A. F test
B. 1-Sample t-test
C. 2-Sample t-test
D. ANOVA test
Answer: C
Question (67 - 300)
For the data set shown here which of these statements is/are true?
A. Hypothesis Testing of Means or Medians cannot be done since there are an unequal number of
observations for the 3 samples
B. A Paired T-test would be applicable for comparing Grade B and Grade A since they follow each
other in the data set
C. Grade A has the lowest sample Mean of the 3 samples
D. Grade A has a higher sample Mean than Grade B
Answer: C
Question (68 - 300)
Review the analysis shown here.
Which statements are true about the process? (Note: There are 3 correct answers).
A. The initial focus for this project would be to determine why the thicknesses are so frequently too
low.
B. The majority of the process is closer to the lower specification limit.
C. This process is described with the Weibull Distribution.
D. The process has more problems with Variation than Centering.
E. The process follows a non-normal distribution with the given data.
Answer: B,D,E
Question (69 - 300)
A Lean Six Sigma project is attempting to reduce inventory days. The Process Capability will be
monitored as part of the Control Phase to track the sustainability of the improvement.
Which distribution type is best used for performing the Capability Analysis?
A. Weibull Distribution
B. Normal Distribution
C. Exponential Distribution
D. Logistic Distribution
E. Gaussian Distribution
Answer: A
Question (70 - 300)
What conclusion is most correct about the Experimental Design shown here with the response in
the far right column?
A. No factor has enough statistical confidence greater than 95% to have an impact on the
response rate
B. Constant, Adv and Bev are the only factors statistically affecting the response rate with 95%
confidence or more
C. If the Adv is increased from the low level to the high level, the response rate increases
D. The response level is statistically concluded to only need the Adv and Bev factors set at the low
level to get the largest response rate
E. This design does not have enough experimental runs to conclude anything as evidenced by the
lack of P-values in the MINITABTM output
Answer: D
Question (71 - 300)
A(n) ________________ has occurred when two inputs have a greater impact on a change in the
output than either of the inputs has by itself.
A. Dependency
B. Bimodal reaction
C. Interaction
D. Amplified effect
Answer: C
Question (72 - 300)
When conducting a Hypothesis Test using Continuous Data the proper sample size is influenced
by the extent to which we need to assess a Difference to be detected and the inherent variation in
the process.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Question (73 - 300)
The validity of the decision made with Hypothesis Testing is dependent upon all of these except
___________________.
A. Beta risk
B. Alpha risk
C. Range of data
D. Sample size
Answer: C
Question (74 - 300)
Statistical Difference is the magnitude of difference or change required to distinguish between a
true difference, brought about by change or improvement, and one that could have occurred by
chance.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Question (75 - 300)
To be an effective Lean Six Sigma practitioner one must understand the difference between
___________________________.
A. ANOVA and the Analysis of Variance
B. Nonparametric tests and tests of Non-normal Data
C. F-test and test of variances of 2 samples
D. Practical and Statistical significance
Answer: D
Question (76 - 300)
A Belt is analyzing data and upon creation of the graphical analysis sees multiple modes. One of
the primary reasons this could occur is because the process has experienced a
____________________.
A. Significant change from one shift to another
B. Sizable Measurement System error
C. Catastrophic failure of some sort
D. Any one of these
Answer: D
Question (77 - 300)
From the variance F-test shown above, which of these conclusions is/are valid?
A. The variance between the class score distribution is significantly different
B. The variance between the class score distribution is not significantly different
C. This test applies only to Normal Distributed data at 99 % confidence
D. This test applies only to Non-normal Data at 99 % confidence
E. There are not enough data points to make any statistical conclusions
Answer: A
Question (78 - 300)
Time is always the metric on the horizontal scale of a(n) ___________ Chart.
A. Pareto
B. Xbar
C. Multi-Vari
D. NP
Answer: C
Question (79 - 300)
To properly analyze the variables impacting the output of a process we need to collect data that
represents at least 80% of the variation in the process and assure ourselves we are collecting data
from all three types of variation which are _______________.
A. Within, Between and Temporal
B. Within, Between and Temporary
C. Without, Above and Below
D. Induced, Natural and Unavoidable
Answer: A
Question (80 - 300)
When the Inputs, X’’s, for your process are Normally Distributed about the Mean, the Outputs, Y’’s,
will always be Normally Distributed.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Question (81 - 300)
On a _________________ a Belt screens variables, or various inputs, to analyze their relative
impact on the output of concern.
A. X-Y Matrix
B. Weighted Scale
C. Multi-Vari Chart
D. Poisson Chart
Answer: C
Question (82 - 300)
For a Normal Distribution as samples size increases the Range in Mean and Standard Deviation
decrease relative to the Mean and Standard Deviation of the population.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Question (83 - 300)
Some of the sources for different types of error that can be quantified using Statistical Analysis are
___________________.
A. Error in sampling
B. Bias in sampling
C. Error in measurement
D. All of these answers are correct
Answer: D
Question (84 - 300)
Since Normality is required if we intend to use the data collected as a predictive tool. To test for
Normality of data we must determine if the P-value is ___________.
A. Equal to 0.05
B. Less than 0.05
C. Greater than 0.05
D. Greater than 0.5
Answer: C
Question (85 - 300)
The Normal Distribution is considered to be the most important distribution in statistics and, among
other things is defined as having a total area under the curve of 1, is mounded and symmetrical
and the Mean, Median and Mode are _____________.
A. All evenly divisible by 3
B. Twice the Standard Deviation
C. Within 10% of each other
D. The same number
Answer: D
Question (86 - 300)
Following process modifications, the Null Hypothesis states that no improvement to the process
has occurred. If we discover the Null Hypothesis Test was rejected when it was false that would be
a(n) ________________________.
A. Alpha Error
B. Type I Error
C. Type II Error
D. Type III Error
Answer: C
Question (87 - 300)
A statistical test or Hypothesis Test is performed to reject or fail to reject a stated hypothesis and it
converts the Practical Problem into a Statistical Problem.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Question (88 - 300)
The class score distribution of schools in a metropolitan area is shown here along with an analysis
output. Comment on the statistical significance between the Means of the two distributions. Select
the most appropriate statement.
A. The two class Means are statistically different from each other
B. The two class Means statistically not different from each other
C. Inadequate information on class Means to make any statistical conclusions
D. A visual comparison shows that class Means are not statistically different
E. A visual comparison shows that class Means are statistically different
Answer: A
Question (89 - 300)
A ___________ is used primarily to track the stability of the average value of a metric of interest.
A. NP Chart
B. Xbar-R Chart
C. I-MR Chart
D. C Chart
Answer: B
Question (90 - 300)
For her injection molding project a Belt needed to track the percentage of defectives of a particular
sample set so she used a ___________ to display the data?
A. Individual Chart
B. C Chart
C. Xbar Chart
D. P Chart
Answer: D
Question (91 - 300)
Which of these graphs demonstrates conditions which would be sufficient to enable OCAP for the
process?
A. Xbar Chart
B. Time Series Chart
C. Neither
D. Both
Answer: A
Question (92 - 300)
How many experimental runs exist in a Full Factorial and fully randomized design for 5 factors with
2 replicates for the Corner Points and no Center Points? The factors in the experiment are only at
2-levels.
A. 10
B. 128
C. 256
D. 64
Answer: D
Question (93 - 300)
If an experiment has 5 factors and no replicates for a 2-level Experimental Design with 16
experimental runs which statement(s) are correct? (Note: There are 3 correct answers).
A. The Main Effects for the 5 factors are not aliased or confounded but the 2-way interactions are
confounded with the 3-way interactions
B. The Main Effects are confounded with only 4-way interactions
C. The Experimental Design is half-fractional
D. The experiment has 8 experimental runs with the first factor at the high level
E. The experiment has only 4 experimental runs with the 5th factor at the high level
Answer: B,C,D
Question (94 - 300)
Which statement(s) are correct about the Pareto Chart shown here for the DOE analysis? (Note:
There are 2 correct answers).
A. It is unknown from this graph how many factors were in the Experimental Design
B. The factors to keep in the mathematical model are E, D, DE, BD and B with an alpha risk equal
to 2.06
C. The effects to keep in the mathematical model are E, D, DE, BD and B with an alpha risk equal
to 0.05
D. The factors to keep in the mathematical model with a 5% alpha risk are BE, AB, A and AD
Answer: A,C
Question (95 - 300)
With Measurement System Analysis we are concerned with two issues that impact the potential
variability of the data. They are ____________ and Accuracy.
A. Spread
B. Reliability
C. Precision
D. Deflection
Answer: C
Question (96 - 300)
An operator is measuring the distance between two points. Which is most likely to be influenced
by the operator?
A. Precision of the measurement
B. Accuracy of the measurement
C. Calibration of the instrument
D. All of these answers are correct
Answer: D
Question (97 - 300)
Accuracy can be assessed in several ways and a fairly accurate means of measurement is visual
comparison.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Question (98 - 300)
Measurement __________ is defined as the difference between the observed and the expected
values for a given set of data.
A. Breadth
B. Linearity
C. Range
D. Bias
Answer: D
Question (99 - 300)
Appropriate measures means that measurements are ______________.
A. Representative
B. Sufficient
C. Contextual
D. Relevant
E. All of these answers are correct
Answer: E
Question (100 - 300)
A ___________ problem in the Measurement System suggests that there is a lack of consistency
in the measurement over time.
A. Linearity
B. Bias
C. Stability
D. Magnitude
Answer: C
Question (101 - 300)
An operator checks that all boxes being packed contain enough products to fill the box. However,
each box getting filled has a different number of products in it. This is a Reproducibility problem,
not a Repeatability problem.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Question (102 - 300)
In a good Measurement System the most variation will be with part-to-part measurements. What
should you do if the majority of variation is associated with the Gage R&R assuming the gage is
technically capable?
A. Focus on fixing the Repeatability and Reproducibility of the measurement device
B. Purchase a new machine
C. Focus on trimming the Part-to-Part variation
D. Run another MSA test with the machine
Answer: A
Question (103 - 300)
What aspects of Measurement Systems Analysis (MSA) studies are applicable when the process
used to measure does not damage the part?
A. Destructive variable gage R&R and Crossed Study
B. Destructive variable gage R&R and Nested Study
C. Nondestructive variable gage R&R and Crossed Study
D. Nondestructive variable gage R&R and Nested Study
Answer: D
Question (104 - 300)
Each of the items listed would impact the Process Capability for a process with a continuous
output except ___________________.
A. Shape of process data distribution (e.g. Normal Distribution)
B. Process Technology
C. Process Standard Deviation
D. Seasonal variation in process
Answer: B
Question (105 - 300)
For Attribute Data, Process Capability is defined as the average proportion of nonconforming
products.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Question (106 - 300)
The reported Cpk for a process with an average of 104 units, a spread of 18 units and upper and
lower specification limits of 122 and 96 units would be?
A. 0.5
B. 0.89
C. 1.00
D. 2.00
Answer: B
Question (107 - 300)
When we compare short-term and long-term Capability which of these is true?
A. Cp is better for the short term
B. Both short-term and long-term performance are alike
C. Performance tends to improve over time
D. Cp is better for the long-term
Answer: A
Question (108 - 300)
What is the Ppk of a process with a spread of 24 units, an average of 68, an upper limit of 82 and
a lower limit of 54?
A. 1.68
B. 2.00
C. 4.00
D. 4.42
Answer: C
Question (109 - 300)
Which statements are correct about the advanced Capability Analysis shown here?
(Note: There are 3 correct answers).
A. This is a Poisson Capability Analysis.
B. The average DPU with 95% confidence is between 0.024 and 0.0295.
C. The DPU does not seem to vary depending on sample size.
D. The process shows only one instance of being out of control statistically so we have confidence
in the estimated DPU of this process.
E. The maximum DPU in one observation was nearly 0.0753.
Answer: B,C,E
Question (110 - 300)
Relative to a Design of Experiments the term Collinear refers to variables being a
________________ of each other.
A. Linear combination
B. Directly parallel
C. Mirror image
D. None of the above
Answer: A
Question (111 - 300)
Which statement(s) are incorrect about Fractional Factorial Designs?
A. A Half Fractional Design for 5 factors has the same number of experimental runs as a Full
Factorial Design for 4 factors assuming no repeats or replicates or Center Points
B. Quarter Fractional experiments can exist for those with 4 factors
C. Resolution V design is desired while controlling costs of experimentation
D. Half Fractional experiments do not exist for those designs with only 2 factors
Answer: C
Question (112 - 300)
Fractional Factorial, ____________and Response Surface Method are types of planned
experiments.
A. Multi-Vari Analysis
B. Baldridge Channels
C. One Factor at a Time or OFAT
D. Factorial Design
Answer: D
Question (113 - 300)
If in an experiment all possible variable pairs sum to zero the design is Orthogonal.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Question (114 - 300)
Which Experimental Design typically is most associated with the fewest number of input variables
or factors in the design?
A. Response Surface design
B. Full Factorial design
C. Simple Linear Regression
D. Fractional Factorial design
Answer: A
Question (115 - 300)
The method of Steepest Ascent guides you toward a target inside the original inference space.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Question (116 - 300)
The Lean toolbox includes all of the following items except __________.
A. Poke-Yoke
B. Standard Operating Procedures
C. Kaizen
D. 5S the work area
Answer: B
Question (117 - 300)
Questions that can be best answered by a Visual Factory include all of these except
_____________________.
A. Are setups optimized for lower scrap levels?
B. Can extra inventory be seen easily?
C. Can changeover challenges be recognized?
D. Are unneeded tools or supplies easily noted?
Answer: A
Question (118 - 300)
Situations where standardized work needs to be incorporated include all of these except
_____________________.
A. Changeover instructions incomplete
B. Lack of a system to assure proper inventory levels at repair stations
C. Machines continually operating to reduce the labor cost per piece
D. Process flow for the same product assembly taking various cycle time for completion
Answer: C
Question (119 - 300)
If a Six Sigma project was to reduce changeover times and the team found the project success
was decreasing over time since changeover times began to creep back up, which Lean tools
should be considered in the Control Phase to reestablish and sustain the project success?
A. Improve the lighting to assure adequate visibility
B. Confirm a Visual Factory exists to assure proper communication of status of machines
C. Implement Kanbans to assure enough inventory for the process step
D. Reword the standardized work instructions to use active verbs and not passive phrases
Answer: B
Question (120 - 300)
Kaizens or Kaikakus and Six Sigma projects are intended to create breakthrough, significant
process improvement versus minor, incremental improvements.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A