Brainscape Glossarry Flashcards

1
Q

PPTP

Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol

A

Developed by Cisco and Microsoft to support VPNs over PPP and TCP/IP. PPTP is highly vulnerable to password cracking attacks and considered obsolete.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

ATT&CK

Adversarial Tactics, Techniques, and Common Knowledge

A

A knowledge base maintained by the MITRE Corporation for listing and explaining specific adversary tactics, techniques, and procedures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

XaaS

anything as a service

A

Expressing the concept that most types of IT requirements can be deployed as a cloud service model.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

ARP

ARP poisoning

A

A network-based attack where an attacker with access to the target local network segment redirects an IP address to the MAC address of a computer that is not the intended recipient. This can be used to perform a variety of attacks, including DoS, spoofing, and Man-in-the-Middle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

asymmetric algorithm

A

A cipher that uses public and private keys. The keys are mathematically linked, using either Rivel, Shamir, Adleman (RSA) or elliptic curve cryptography (ECC) algorithms, but the private key is not derivable from the public one. An asymmetric key cannot reverse the operation it performs, so the public key cannot decrypt what it has encrypted, for example. Also known as Elliptic Curve Cryptography or ECC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

attack surface

A

The points at which a network or application receives external connections or inputs/outputs that are potential vectors to be exploited by a threat actor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

attack vector

A

A specific path by which a threat actor gains unauthorized access to a system. Also known as vector.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

authenticator

A

A PNAC switch or router that activates EAPoL and passes a supplicant’s authentication data to an authenticating server, such as a RADIUS server.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

automation

A

Using scripts and APIs to provision and deprovision systems without manual intervention.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Autopsy

A

The Sleuth Kit is an open-source collection of command line and programming libraries for disk imaging and file analysis. Autopsy is a graphical frontend for these tools and also provides a case management/workflow tool. Also known as Sleuth Kit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

availability

A

The fundamental security goal of ensuring that computer systems operate continuously and that authorized persons can access data that they need.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

baseband radio

A

The chip and firmware in a smartphone that acts as a cellular modem.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

baseline configuration

A

A collection of security and configuration settings that are to be applied to a particular system or network in the organization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

behavioral analysis

A

A network monitoring system that detects changes in normal operating data sequences and identifies abnormal sequences. Also known as behavior-based detection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

birthday attack

A

A type of password attack that exploits weaknesses in the mathematical algorithms used to encrypt passwords, in order to take advantage of the probability of different password inputs producing the same encrypted output. This means that different passwords may have the same hash; the attacker can use any of these passwords to gain access.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

block cipher

A

A type of symmetric encryption that encrypts data one block at a time, often in 64-bit blocks. It is usually more secure, but is also slower, than stream ciphers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

blockchain

A

A concept in which an expanding list of transactional records listed in a public ledger is secured using cryptography.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

blue team

A

The defensive team in a penetration test or incident response exercise.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

bluejacking

A

Sending an unsolicited message or picture message using a Bluetooth connection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

bluesnarfing

A

A wireless attack where an attacker gains access to unauthorized information on a device using a Bluetooth connection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

boot attestation

A

Report of boot state integrity data that is signed by a tamper-proof TPM key and reported to a network server.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

botnet

A

A set of hosts that has been infected by a control program called a bot that enables attackers to exploit the hosts to mount attacks. Also known as zombie.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

BASH

Bourne again shell

A

A command shell and scripting language for Unix-like systems. bastion host A server typically found in a DMZ that is configured to provide a single service to reduce the possibility of compromise.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

BPDU guard

Bridge Protocol Data Unit guard

A

Switch port security feature that disables the port if it receives BPDU notifications related to spanning tree. This is configured on access ports where any BPDU frames are likely to be malicious.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

BYOD

bring your own device

A

Security framework and tools to facilitate use of personally-owned devices to access corporate networks and data.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

brute force attack

A

A type of password attack where an attacker uses an application to exhaustively try every possible alphanumeric combination to crack encrypted passwords.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

buffer overflow

A

An attack in which data goes past the boundary of the destination buffer and begins to corrupt adjacent memory. This can allow the attacker to crash the system or execute arbitrary code.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

bug bounty

A

Reward scheme operated by software and web services vendors for reporting vulnerabilities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

BAS

building automation system

A

Components and protocols that facilitate the centralized configuration and monitoring of mechanical and electrical systems within offices and data centers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

BIA

business impact analysis

A

A systematic activity that identifies organizational risks and determines their effect on ongoing, mission-critical operations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

BPA

business partnership agreement

A

Agreement by two companies to work together closely, such as the partner agreements that large IT companies set up with resellers and solution providers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

cable lock

A

Devices can be physically secured against theft using cable ties and padlocks. Some systems also feature lockable faceplates, preventing access to the power switch and removable drives.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

captive portal

A

A web page or website to which a client is redirected before being granted full network access.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

capture the flag

A

Training event where learners must identify a token within a live network environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

card cloning/skimming

A

Duplicating a smart card by reading (skimming) the confidential data stored on it. Also known as skimming.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

carving

A

The process of extracting data from a computer when that data has no associated file system metadata.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

cat command

A

Linux command to view and combine (concatenate) files.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

CIS

Center for Internet Security

A

A not-for-profit organization (founded partly by SANS). It publishes the well-known “Top 20 Critical Security Controls” (or system design recommendations).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

CA

certificate authority

A

A server that guarantees subject identities by issuing signed digital certificate wrappers for their public keys.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

CRL

certificate revocation list

A

A list of certificates that were revoked before their expiration date.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

CSR

certificate signing request

A

A Base64 ASCII file that a subject sends to a CA to get a certificate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

chain of custody

A

The record of evidence history from collection, to presentation in court, to disposal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

CHAP

Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol

A

Authentication scheme developed for dial-up networks that uses an encrypted three-way handshake to authenticate the client to the server. The challenge-response is repeated throughout the connection (though transparently to the user) to guard against replay attacks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

change control

A

The process by which the need for change is recorded and approved.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

change management

A

The process through which changes to the configuration of information systems are implemented, as part of the organization’s overall configuration management efforts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

checksum

A

The output of a hash function.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

chmod

A

Linux command for managing file permissions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

CYOD

choose your own device

A

Enterprise mobile device provisioning model where employees are offered a selection of corporate devices for work and, optionally, private use.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

CBC

cipher block chaining

A

An encryption mode of operation where an exclusive or (XOR) is applied to the first plaintext block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

circuit-level stateful inspection firewall

A

A Layer 5 firewall technology that tracks the active state of a connection, and can make decisions based on the contents of network traffic as it relates to the state of the connection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

clean desk policy

A

An organizational policy that mandates employee work areas be free from potentially sensitive information; sensitive documents must not be left out where unauthorized personnel might see them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

CASB

cloud access security broker

A

Enterprise management software designed to mediate access to cloud services by users across all types of devices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

cloud deployment model

A

Classifying the ownership and management of a cloud as public, private, community, or hybrid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Cloud Security Alliance

A

Industry body providing security guidance to CSPs, including enterprise reference architecture and security controls matrix.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

cloud service model

A

Classifying the provision of cloud services and the limit of the cloud service provider’s responsibility as software, platform, infrastructure,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

CSP

cloud service provider

A

A vendor offering public cloud service models, such as PaaS, IaaS, or SaaS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

code of conduct

A

Professional behavior depends on basic ethical standards, such as honesty and fairness. Some professions may have developed codes of ethics to cover difficult situations; some businesses may also have a code of ethics to communicate the values it expects its employees to practice. Also known as ethics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

code reuse

A

Potentially unsecure programming practice of using code originally written for a different context.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

code signing

A

The method of using a digital signature to ensure the source and integrity of programming code.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

cold site

A

A predetermined alternate location where a network can be rebuilt after a disaster.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

collector

A

A network appliance that gathers or receives log and/or state data from other network systems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

collision

A

In cryptography, the act of two different plaintext inputs producing the same exact ciphertext output.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

C&C

command and control

A

An infrastructure of hosts and services with which attackers direct, distribute, and control malware over botnets. Also known as C2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

CAC

common access card

A

A smart card that provides certificate-based authentication and supports two-factor authentication. A CAC is produced for Department of Defense employees and contractors in response to a Homeland Security Directive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

CN

common name

A

An X500 attribute expressing a host or user name, also used as the subject identifier for a digital certificate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures

A

Scheme for identifying vulnerabilities developed by MITRE and adopted by NIST.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

CVSS

Common Vulnerability Scoring System

A

A risk management approach to quantifying vulnerability data and then taking into account the degree of risk to different types of systems or information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

community cloud

A

A cloud that is deployed for shared use by cooperating tenants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

compensating control

A

A security measure that takes on risk mitigation when a primary control fails or cannot completely meet expectations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

CAPTCHA

completely automated public turing test to tell computers and humans apart

A

An image of text characters or audio of some speech that is difficult for a computer to interpret. CAPTCHAs are used for purposes such as preventing bots from creating accounts or submitting forms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

confidentiality

A

The fundamental security goal of keeping information and communications private and protecting them from unauthorized access.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

CIA triad

confidentiality, integrity, and availability

A

The three principles of security control and management. Also known as the information security triad. or AIC triad.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

containerization

A

A type of virtualization applied by a host operating system to provision an isolated execution environment for an application.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

content filter

A

A software application or gateway that filters client requests for various types of internet content (web, FTP, IM, and so on).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

context-aware authentication

A

An access control scheme that verifies an object’s identity based on various environmental factors, like time, location, and behavior.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

continuous delivery

A

Software development method in which app and platform requirements are frequently tested and validated for immediate availability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

continuous deployment

A

Software development method in which app and platform updates are committed to production rapidly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

continuous integration

A

Software development method in which code updates are tested and committed to a development or build server/code repository rapidly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

continuous monitoring

A

The technique of constantly evaluating an environment for changes so that new risks may be more quickly detected and business operations improved upon. Also known as continuous security monitoring or CSM.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

control risk

A

Risk that arises when a control does not provide the level of mitigation that was expected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

CAN bus

controller area network bus

A

A serial network designed to allow communications between embedded programmable logic controllers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

COBO

corporate owned, business only

A

Enterprise mobile device provisioning model where the device is the property of the organization and personal use is prohibited.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

COPE

corporate owned, personally enabled

A

Enterprise mobile device provisioning model where the device remains the property of the organization, but certain personal use, such as private email, social networking, and web browsing, is permitted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

corrective control

A

A type of security control that acts after an incident to eliminate or minimize its impact.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

correlation

A

Function of log analysis that links log and state data to identify a pattern that should be logged or alerted as an event.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

counter mode CTM

A

An encryption mode of operation where a numerical counter value is used to create a constantly changing IV. Also referred to as CTM (counter mode) and CM (counter mode).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

CCMP

counter mode with cipher block chaining message authentication code protocol

A

An encryption protocol used for wireless LANs that addresses the vulnerabilities of the WEP protocol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

credential stuffing

A

Brute force attack in which stolen user account names and passwords are tested against multiple websites.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

crossover error rate

A

Biometric evaluation factor expressing the point at which FAR and FRR meet, with a low value indicating better performance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

XSRF

cross-site request forgery

A

A malicious script hosted on the attacker’s site that can exploit a session started on another site in the same browser. Also known as client-side request forgery or CSRF.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

XSS

cross-site scripting

A

A malicious script hosted on the attacker’s site or coded in a link injected onto a trusted site designed to compromise clients browsing the trusted site, circumventing the browser’s security model of trusted zones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

CE

cryptographic erase

A

A method of sanitizing a self-encrypting drive by erasing the media encryption key.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Cuckoo

A

Implementation of a sandbox for malware analysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

curl command

A

Utility for command-line manipulation of URL-based protocol requests.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

CTI

cyber threat intelligence

A

The process of investigating, collecting, analyzing, and disseminating information about emerging threats and threat sources. Also known as threat intelligence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

data at rest

A

Information that is primarily stored on specific media, rather than moving from one medium to another.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

data breach

A

When confidential or private data is read, copied, or changed without authorization. Data breach events may have notification and reporting requirements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

data controller

A

In privacy regulations, the entity that determines why and how personal data is collected, stored, and used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

data custodian

A

An individual who is responsible for managing the system on which data assets are stored, including being responsible for enforcing access control, encryption, and backup/recovery measures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

data exfiltration

A

The process by which an attacker takes data that is stored inside of a private network and moves it to an external network.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

data exposure

A

A software vulnerability where an attacker is able to circumvent access controls and retrieve confidential or sensitive data from the file system or database.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

data governance

A

The overall management of the availability, usability, and security of the information used in an organization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

data in processing

A

Information that is present in the volatile memory of a host, such as system memory or cache.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

data in transit

A

Information that is being transmitted between two hosts, such as over a private network or the Internet. Also known as data in motion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

DLP

data loss/leak prevention

A

A software solution that detects and prevents sensitive information from being stored on unauthorized systems or transmitted over unauthorized networks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

data masking

A

A deidentification method where generic or placeholder labels are substituted for real data while preserving the structure or format of the original data.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

data minimization

A

In data protection, the principle that only necessary and sufficient personal information can be collected and processed for the stated purpose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

data owner

A

A senior (executive) role with ultimate responsibility for maintaining the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of an information asset.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

DPO

data privacy officer

A

Institutional data governance role with responsibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

data processor

A

In privacy regulations, an entity trusted with a copy of personal data to perform storage and/or analysis on behalf of the data collector.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

data remnant

A

Leftover information on a storage medium even after basic attempts have been made to remove that data. Also known as remnant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

data sovereignty

A

In data protection, the principle that countries and states may impose individual requirements on data collected or stored within their jurisdiction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

data steward

A

An individual who is primarily responsible for data quality, ensuring data is labeled and identified with appropriate metadata and that data is collected and stored in a format and with values that comply with applicable laws and regulations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

DCHP snooping

A

A configuration option that enables a switch to inspect DHCP traffic to prevent MAC spoofing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

dd command

A

Linux command that makes a bit-by-bit copy of an input file, typically used for disk imaging.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

DDoS attack

A

An attack that uses multiple compromised hosts (a botnet) to overwhelm a service with request or response traffic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

dead code

A

Code in an application that is redundant because it will never be called within the logic of the program flow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

deauthentication/disassociation

A

Spoofing frames to disconnect a wireless station to try to obtain authentication data to crack.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

deception and disruption

A

Cybersecurity resilience tools and techniques to increase the cost of attack planning for the threat actor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

default account

A

Default administrative and guest accounts configured on servers and network devices are possible points of unauthorized access.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

defense in depth

A

A security strategy that positions the layers of network security as network traffic roadblocks; each layer is intended to slow an attack’s progress, rather than eliminating it outright.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

degaussing

A

The process of rendering a storage drive inoperable and its data unrecoverable by eliminating the drive’s magnetic charge.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

deidentification

A

In data protection, methods and technologies that remove identifying information from data before it is distributed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

DMZ

demilitarized zone

A

A segment isolated from the rest of a private network by one or more firewalls that accepts connections from the Internet over designated ports.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

DoS attack

denial of service attack

A

Any type of physical, application, or network attack that affects the availability of a managed resource.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

deprovisioning

A

The process of removing an application from packages or instances.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

DNAT

destination network address translation

A

NAT service where private internal addresses are mapped to one or more public addresses to facilitate Internet connectivity for hosts on a local network via a router.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

detective control

A

A type of security control that acts during an incident to identify or record that it is happening.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

deterrent control

A

A type of security

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Diamond Model

A

A framework for analyzing cybersecurity incidents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

dictionary attack

A

A type of password attack that compares encrypted passwords against a predetermined list of possible password values.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

differential backup

A

A backup type in which all selected files that have changed since the last full backup are backed up.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

DH

Diffie-Hellman

A

A cryptographic technique that provides secure key exchange.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

digital signature

A

A message digest encrypted using the sender’s private key that is appended to a message to authenticate the sender and prove message integrity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

DSA

Digital Signature Algorithm

A

public key encryption standard used for digital signatures that provides authentication and integrity verification for messages.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

directory service

A

A network service that stores identity information about all the objects in a particular network, including users, groups, servers, client computers, and printers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

directory traversal

A

An application attack that allows access to commands, files, and directories that may or may not be connected to the web document root directory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

DRP

disaster recovery plan

A

A documented and resourced plan showing actions and responsibilities to be used in response to critical incidents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

DAC

discretionary access control

A

Access control model where each resource is protected by an Access Control List (ACL) managed by the resource’s owner (or owners).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

DER

distinguished encoding rules

A

The binary format used to structure the information in a digital certificate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

diversity

A

Cybersecurity resilience strategy that increases attack costs by provisioning multiple types of controls, technologies, vendors, and crypto implementations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

domain hijacking

A

A type of hijacking attack where the attacker steals a domain name by altering its registration information and then transferring the domain name to another entity. Sometimes referred to as brandjacking.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

DNS hijacking

Domain Name System hijacking

A

An attack in which an attacker modifies a computer’s DNS configurations to point to a malicious DNS server.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

DNS poisoning

Domain Name System poisoning

A

A network-based attack where an attacker exploits the traditionally open nature of the DNS system to redirect a domain name to an IP address of the attacker’s choosing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

DNSSEC

Domain Name System Security Extensions

A

A security protocol that provides authentication of DNS data and upholds DNS data integrity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

downgrade attack

A

A cryptographic attack where the attacker exploits the need for backward compatibility to force a computer system to abandon the use of encrypted messages in favor of plaintext messages.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

dump file

A

File containing data captured from system memory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

dumpster diving Dumpster

A

The social engineering technique of discovering things about an organization (or person) based on what it throws away.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

DHCP spoofing

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol spoofing

A

An attack in which an attacker responds to a client requesting address assignment from a DHCP server.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

EAP-FAST

EAP Flexible Authentication via Secure Tunneling

A

An EAP method that is expected to address the shortcomings of LEAP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

EAP-TLS

EAP Transport Layer Security

A

An EAP method that requires server-side and client-side certificates for authentication using SSL/ TLS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

EAP-TTLS

EAP Tunneled Transport Layer Security

A

An EAP method that enables a client and server to establish a secure connection without mandating a client-side certificate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

east-west traffic

A

Design paradigm accounting for the fact that data center traffic between servers is greater than that passing in and out (north-south).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

edge computing

A

Provisioning processing resource close to the network edge of IoT devices to reduce latency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

e-discovery

A

Procedures and tools to collect, preserve, and analyze digital evidence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

elasticity

A

The property by which a computing environment can instantly react to both increasing and decreasing demands in workload.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

ECC

elliptic curve cryptography

A

An asymmetric encryption algorithm that leverages the algebraic structures of elliptic curves over finite fields to derive public/private key pairs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

ESP

Encapsulating Security Protocol

A

IPSec sub-protocol that enables encryption and authentication of the header and payload of a data packet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

EOL

end of life

A

Product life cycle phase where sales are discontinued and support options reduced over time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

EOSL

end of service life

A

Product life cycle phase where support is no longer available from the vendor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

EDR

endpoint detection and response

A

A software agent that collects system data and logs for analysis by a monitoring system to provide early detection of threats.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

EPP

endpoint protection platform

A

A software agent and monitoring system that performs multiple security tasks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

ERM

enterprise risk management

A

The comprehensive process of evaluating, measuring, and mitigating the many risks that pervade an organization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

entropy

A

A measure of disorder. Cryptographic systems should exhibit high entropy to better resist brute force attacks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

error handling

A

Coding methods to anticipate and deal with exceptions thrown during execution of a process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

escrow

A

In key management, the storage of a backup key with a third party.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

evil twin

A

A wireless access point that deceives users into believing that it is a legitimate network access point.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

XOR

Exclusive OR

A

An operation that outputs to true only if one input is true and the other input is false.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

execution control

A

The process of determining what additional software may be installed on a client or server beyond its baseline to prevent the use of unauthorized software.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

exploitation framework

A

Suite of tools designed to automate delivery of exploits against common software and firmware vulnerabilities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

EF

exposure factor

A

In risk calculation, the percentage of an asset’s value that would be lost during a security incident or disaster scenario.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

EAP

Extensible Authentication Protocol

A

Framework for negotiating authentication methods that enables systems to use hardware-based identifiers, such as fingerprint scanners or smart card readers, for authentication.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

EAPoL

Extensible Authentication Protocol over LAN

A

A port-based network access control (PNAC) mechanism that allows the use of EAP authentication when a host connects to an Ethernet switch.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

extranet

A

A private network that provides some access to outside parties, particularly vendors, partners, and select customers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

failover

A

A technique that ensures a redundant component, device, or application can quickly and efficiently take over the functionality of an asset that has failed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

fake telemetry

A

Deception strategy that returns spoofed data in response to network probes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

FAR

false acceptance rate

A

Biometric assessment metric that measures the number of unauthorized users who are mistakenly allowed access.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

false negative

A

In security scanning, a case that is not reported when it should be.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

false positive

A

In security scanning, a case that is reported when it should not be.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

FRR

false rejection rate

A

Biometric assessment metric that measures the number of valid subjects who are denied access.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Faraday cage

A

A wire mesh container that blocks external electromagnetic fields from entering into the container.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

federation

A

A process that provides a shared login capability across multiple systems and enterprises. It essentially connects the identity management services of multiple systems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

FC

Fibre Channel

A

High speed network communications protocol used to implement SANs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

FPGA

field programmable gate array

A

A processor that can be programmed to perform a specific function by a customer rather than at the time of manufacture.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

FIM

file integrity monitoring

A

A type of software that reviews system files to ensure that they have not been tampered with.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

FTPS

File Transfer Protocol Secure

A

A type of FTP using TLS for confidentiality.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

fingerprint scanner

A

Biometric authentication device that can produce a template signature of a user’s fingerprint then subsequently compare the template to the digit submitted for authentication.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

first responder

A

The first experienced person or team to arrive at the scene of an incident.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

fog computing

A

Provisioning processing resource close to the network edge of IoT devices to reduce latency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

FTK

Forensic Toolkit

A

A commercial digital forensics investigation management and utilities suite, published by AccessData.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

full backup

A

A backup type in which all selected files, regardless of prior state, are backed up. full tunnel VPN configuration where all traffic is routed via the VPN gateway.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

FDE

full disk encryption

A

Encryption of all data on a disk (including system files, temporary files, and the pagefile) can be accomplished via a supported OS, third-party software, or at the controller level by the disk device itself.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

fuzzing

A

A dynamic code analysis technique that involves sending a running
application random and unusual input so as to evaluate how the app responds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

gait analysis

A

Biometric mechanism that identifies a subject based on movement pattern.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

GCM

Galois/Counter Mode

A

A mode of block chained encryption that provides message authenticity for each block.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

GDPR

General Data Protection Regulation

A

Provisions and requirements protecting the personal data of European Union (EU) citizens. Transfers of personal data outside the EU Single Market are restricted unless protected by like-for-like regulations, such as the US’s Privacy Shield requirements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

geofencing

A

The practice of creating a virtual boundary based on real-world geography.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

geolocation

A

The identification or estimation of the physical location of an object, such as a radar source, mobile phone, or Internet-connected computing device.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

grep command

A

Linux command for searching and filtering input. This can be used as a file search tool when combined with ls.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

group account

A

A group account is a collection of user accounts that are useful when establishing file permissions and user rights because when many individuals need the same level of access, a group could be established containing all the relevant users.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

GPO

Group Policy Object

A

On a Windows domain, a way to deploy per-user and per-computer settings such as password policy, account restrictions, firewall status, and so on.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

hardening

A

The process of making a host or app configuration secure by reducing its attack surface, through running only necessary services, installing monitoring software to protect against malware and intrusions, and establishing a maintenance schedule to ensure the system is patched to be secure against software exploits.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

HSM

hardware security module

A

An appliance for generating and storing cryptographic keys. This sort of solution may be less susceptible to tampering and insider threats than software-based storage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

HMAC

hash-based message authentication code

A

A method used to verify both the integrity and authenticity of a message by combining a cryptographic hash of the message with a secret key.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

hashcat

A

Command-line tool used to perform brute force and dictionary attacks against password hashes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

hashing

A

A function that converts an arbitrary length string input to a fixed length string output. A cryptographic hash function does this in a way that reduces the chance of collisions, where two different inputs produce the same output. Also known as message digest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

head command

A

Linux utility for showing the first lines in a file.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

heat map

A

In a Wi-Fi site survey, a diagram showing signal strength at different locations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

heuristic analysis heuristic

A

A method that uses feature comparisons and likenesses rather than specific signature matching to identify whether the target of observation is malicious.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

HA

high availability

A

The property that defines how closely systems approach the goal of providing data availability 100 percent of the time while maintaining a high level of system performance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

HOTP

HMAC-based One-time Password

A

An algorithm that generates a one-time password using a hash-based authentication code to verify the authenticity of the message.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

homomorphic encryption

A

Method that allows computation of certain fields in a dataset without decrypting it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

honeypot honeynet

A

A host, network, or file set up with the purpose of luring attackers away from assets of actual value and/or discovering attack strategies and weaknesses in the security configuration. Also known as honeyfile.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

horizontal privilege escalation

A

When a user accesses or modifies specific resources that they are not entitled to.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

host-based firewall

A

A software application running on a single host and designed to protect only that host. Also known as personal firewall.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

hot site

A

A fully configured alternate network that can be online quickly after a disaster.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

hot/cold aisle

A

Arrangement of server racks to maximize the efficiency of cooling systems. Also known as cold/hot aisle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

HTML5 VPN

A

Using features of HTML5 to implement remote desktop/VPN connections via browser software (clientless).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

hybrid cloud

A

A cloud deployment that uses both private and public elements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

IAM

identity and access management

A

A security process that provides identification, authentication, and authorization mechanisms for users, computers, and other entities to work with organizational assets like networks, operating systems, and applications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

identity fraud

A

The invention of fake personal information or the theft and misuse of an individual’s personal information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

identity provider

A

In a federated network, the service that holds the user account and performs authentication.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

IEEE 802.1X

A

A standard for encapsulating EAP communications over a LAN (EAPoL) to implement port-based authentication.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

implicit deny

A

A basic principle of security stating that unless something has explicitly been granted access, it should be denied access.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

IRP

incident response plan

A

Specific procedures that must be performed if a certain type of event is detected or reported.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

incremental backup

A

A backup type in which all selected files that have changed since the last full or incremental backup (whichever was most recent) are backed up.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

IoC

indicator of compromise

A

A sign that an asset or network has been attacked or is currently under attack.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

industrial camouflage

A

Methods of disguising the nature and purpose of buildings or parts of buildings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

ICS

industrial control system

A

A network managing embedded devices (computer systems that are designed to perform a specific, dedicated function).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

ISAC

Information Sharing and Analysis Center

A

Not-for-profit group set up to share sector-specific threat intelligence and security best practices amongst its members.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

IaaS

Infrastructure as a Service

A

A computing method that uses the cloud to provide any or all infrastructure needs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

IaC

infrastructure as code

A

A provisioning architecture in which deployment of resources is performed by scripted automation and orchestration.

233
Q

inherent risk

A

Risk that an event will pose if no controls are put in place to mitigate it.

234
Q

IV attack

Initialization Vector Attack

A

A wireless attack where the attacker is able to predict or control the IV of an encryption process, thus giving the attacker access to view the encrypted data that is supposed to be hidden from everyone else except the user or network.

235
Q

OATH

Initiative for Open Authentication

A

An industry body comprising the main PKI providers, such as Verisign and Entrust, that was established with the aim of developing an open, strong authentication framework.

236
Q

input validation

A

Any technique used to ensure that the data entered into a field or variable in an application is handled appropriately by that application.

237
Q

insecure object reference

A

Coding vulnerability where unvalidated input is used to select a resource object, such as a file or database. 1

238
Q

insider threat

A

A type of threat actor who is assigned privileges on the system that cause an intentional or unintentional incident.

239
Q

integer overflow

A

An attack in which a computed result is too large to fit in its assigned storage space, which may lead to crashing or data corruption, and may trigger a buffer overflow.

240
Q

integrity

A

The fundamental security goal of keeping organizational information accurate, free of errors, and without unauthorized modifications.

241
Q

intelligence fusion

A

In threat hunting, using sources of threat intelligence data to automate detection of adversary IoCs and TTPs.

242
Q

ISA

interconnection security agreement

A

Any federal agency interconnecting its IT system to a third-party must create an ISA to govern the relationship. An ISA sets out a security risk awareness process and commit the agency and supplier to implementing security controls.

243
Q

ISO/IEC 27K

International Organization for Standardization 27000 Series

A

A comprehensive set of standards for information security, including best practices for security and risk management, compliance, and technical implementation.

244
Q

ISO/IEC 31K

International Organization for Standardization 31000 Series

A

A comprehensive set of standards for enterprise risk management.

245
Q

IKE

Internet Key Exchange

A

Framework for creating a Security Association (SA) used with IPSec. An SA establishes that two hosts trust one another (authenticate) and agree secure protocols and cipher suites to use to exchange data.

246
Q

IPsec

Internet Protocol Security

A

A set of open, non-proprietary standards that are used to secure data through authentication and encryption as the data travels across the network or the Internet.

247
Q

intranet

A

A private network that is only accessible by the organization’s own personnel.

248
Q

IDS

intrusion detection system

A

A software and/or hardware system that scans, audits, and monitors the security infrastructure for signs of attacks in progress.

249
Q

IPS

intrusion prevention system

A

An IDS that can actively block attacks.

250
Q

IPAM

IP address management

A

Software consolidating management of multiple DHCP and DNS services to provide oversight into IP address allocation across an enterprise network.

251
Q

IPFIX

IP Flow Information Export

A

Standards-based version of the Netflow framework.

252
Q

jamming

A

An attack in which radio waves disrupt 802.11 wireless signals.

253
Q

job rotation

A

The policy of preventing any one individual performing the same role or tasks for too long. This deters fraud and provides better oversight of the person’s duties.

254
Q

jump server

A

A hardened server that provides access to other hosts. Also known as jumpbox.

255
Q

Kerberos

A

A single sign-on authentication and authorization service that is based on a time-sensitive ticket-granting system.

256
Q

keylogger

A

Malicious software or hardware that can record user keystrokes.

257
Q

kill chain

A

A model developed by Lockheed Martin that describes the stages by which a threat actor progresses a network intrusion.

258
Q

lateral movement

A

The process by which an attacker is able to move from one part of a computing environment to another.

259
Q

L2TP

Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol

A

VPN protocol for tunneling PPP sessions across a variety of network protocols such as IP, Frame Relay, or ATM.

260
Q

LDAP injection

A

An application attack that targets web-based applications by fabricating LDAP statements that are typically created by user input.

261
Q

least privilege

A

A basic principle of security stating that something should be allocated the minimum necessary rights, privileges, or information to perform its role.

262
Q

LLR

lessons learned report

A

An analysis of events that can provide insight into how to improve response processes in the future. Also known as after action report or AAR.

263
Q

lightweight cryptography

A

Cryptographic algorithms with reduced compute requirements that are suitable for use in resource-constrained environments, such as battery-powered devices.

264
Q

LDAP

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol

A

A network protocol used to access network directory databases, which store information about authorized users and their privileges, as well as other organizational information.

265
Q

LDAPS

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol Secure

A

A method of implementing LDAP using SSL/TLS encryption.

266
Q

LEAP

Lightweight Extensible Authentication Protocol

A

Cisco Systems’ proprietary EAP implementation.

267
Q

load balancer

A

A type of switch or router that distributes client requests between different resources, such as communications links or similarly-configured servers. This provides fault tolerance and improves throughput.

268
Q

logger command

A

Linux utility that writes data to the system log.

269
Q

logic bomb

A

A malicious program or script that is set to run under particular circumstances or in response to a defined event.

270
Q

loop protection

A

If broadcast traffic is allowed to continually loop around a network, the number of broadcast packets increases exponentially, crashing the network. Loop protection in switches (such as Spanning Tree Protocol), and in routers (Time To Live for instance) is designed to prevent this.

271
Q

MAC Authentication

A

Proving the integrity and authenticity of a message by combining its hash with a shared secret.

272
Q

MAC flooding

A

A variation of an ARP poisoning attack where a switch’s cache table is inundated with frames from random source MAC addresses.

273
Q

MSSP

managed security service provider

A

Third-party provision of security configuration and monitoring as an outsourced service.

274
Q

managerial control

A

A category of security control that gives oversight of the information system.

275
Q

MAC

Mandatory Access Control

A

Access control model where resources are protected by inflexible, system defined rules. Resources (objects) and users (subjects) are allocated a clearance level (or label).

276
Q

mandatory vacations

A

The principle that states when and how long an employee must take time off from work so that their activities may be subjected to a security review.

277
Q

maneuver

A

In threat hunting, the concept that threat actor and defender may use deception or counterattacking strategies to gain positional advantage.

278
Q

MitB attack

MitB attack
Man-in-the-Browser attack

A

An attack when the web browser is compromised by installing malicious plug-ins or scripts, or intercepting API calls between the browser process and DLLs.

279
Q

MitM attack

Man-in-the-Middle attack

A

A form of eavesdropping where the attacker makes an independent connection between two victims and steals information to use fraudulently.

280
Q

MTD

mantrap access control vestibule

A

A secure entry system with two gateways, only one of which is open at any one time.

281
Q

maximum tolerable downtime

A

The longest period of time a business can be inoperable without causing irrevocable business failure.

282
Q

MTBF

mean time between failures

A

The rating on a device or component that predicts the expected time between failures.

283
Q

MTTF

mean time to failure

A

The average time a device or component is expected to be in operation.

284
Q

MTTR

mean time to repair/replace/recover

A

The average time taken for a device or component to be repaired, replaced, or otherwise recover from a failure.

285
Q

measured boot

A

A UEFI feature that gathers secure metrics to validate the boot process in an attestation report.

286
Q

MSA

measurement systems analysis

A

Evaluates the data collection and statistical methods used by a quality management process to ensure they are robust.

287
Q

MAC Cloning

Media Access Control cloning

A

An attack in which an attacker falsifies the factory-assigned MAC address of a device’s network interface. Also known as MAC spoofing.

288
Q

MAC filtering

Media Access Control filtering

A

Applying an access control list to a switch or access point so that only clients with approved MAC addresses can connect to it.

289
Q

memdump command

A

Linux utility developed as part of the Coroner’s Toolkit to dump system memory data to a file.

290
Q

MoU

memorandum of understanding

A

Usually a preliminary or exploratory agreement to express an intent to work together that is not legally binding and does not involve the exchange of money.

291
Q

memory leak

A

A software vulnerability that can occur when software does not release allocated memory when it is done using it, potentially leading to system instability.

292
Q

MD5

Message Digest Algorithm v5

A

A cryptographic hash function producing a 128-bit output.

293
Q

metadata

A

Information stored or recorded as a property of an object, state of a system, or transaction.

294
Q

microservices

A

A software architecture where components of the solution are conceived as highly decoupled services not dependent on a single platform type or technology.

295
Q

mirroring

A

A type of RAID that using two hard disks, providing the simplest way of protecting a single disk against failure. Data is written to both disks and can be read from either disk.

296
Q

MEF

mission essential function

A

A business or organizational activity that is too critical to be deferred for anything more than a few hours, if at all.

297
Q

MAM

mobile application management

A

Enterprise management function that enables control over apps and storage for mobile devices and other endpoints.

298
Q

MDM

mobile device management

A

The process and supporting technologies for tracking, controlling, and securing the organization’s mobile infrastructure.

299
Q

mode of operation

A

Implementation of a block symmetric cipher, with some modes allowing secure encryption of a stream of data, with or without authentication for each block.

300
Q

MaaS

monitoring as a service

A

Cloud service providing ongoing security and availability monitoring of on-premises and/or cloud-based hosts and services.

301
Q

multi-cloud

A

A cloud deployment model where the cloud consumer uses multiple public cloud services.

302
Q

MFA

multifactor authentication

A

An authentication scheme that requires the user to present at least two different factors as credentials, from something you know, something you have, something you are, something you do, and somewhere you are. Specifying two factors is known as 2FA.

303
Q

MMS

multimedia messaging service

A

Extension to SMS allowing digital data (picture, video, or audio) to be sent over a cellular data connection.

304
Q

multipath

A

Overprovisioning controllers and cabling so that a host has failover connections to storage media.

305
Q

MPLS

Multiprotocol Label Switching

A

Developed by Cisco from ATM as a means of providing traffic engineering (congestion control), Class of Service,

306
Q

MPLS

Multiprotocol Label Switching

A

Developed by Cisco from ATM as a means of providing traffic engineering (congestion control), Class of Service, and Quality of Service within a packet switched, rather than circuit switched, network.

307
Q

narrow-band

A

Low-power cellular networks designed to provide data connectivity to IoT devices.

308
Q

ncat

A

Utility for reading and writing raw data over a network connection. Also known as netcat.

309
Q

NFC

Near Field Communication

A

A standard for peer-to-peer (2-way) radio communications over very short (around 4”) distances, facilitating contactless payment and similar technologies. NFC is based on RFID.

310
Q

Nessus

A

One of the best-known commercial vulnerability scanners, produced by Tenable Network Security. Also known as Tenable.

311
Q

Netflow

A

A Cisco-developed means of reporting network flow information to a structured database. NetFlow allows better understanding of IP traffic flows as used by different network applications and hosts.

312
Q

NAC

network access control

A

A general term for the collected protocols, policies, and hardware that authenticate and authorize access to a network at the device level.

313
Q

NAT

network address translation

A

A routing mechanism that conceals internal addressing schemes from the public Internet by translating between a single public address on the external side of a router and private, non-routable addresses internally.

314
Q

NFV

network functions virtualization

A

Provisioning virtual network appliances, such as switches, routers, and firewalls, via VMs and containers.

315
Q

NGFW

next generation firewall

A

Advances in firewall technology, from app awareness, user-based filtering, and intrusion prevention to cloud inspection. Also known as layer 7 firewall.

316
Q

Nmap

A

Versatile port scanner used for topology, host, service, and OS discovery and enumeration.

317
Q

nonce

A

An arbitrary number used only once in a cryptographic communication, often to prevent replay attacks.

318
Q

NDA

non-disclosure agreement

A

An agreement that stipulates that entities will not share confidential information, knowledge, or materials with unauthorized third parties.

319
Q

non-repudiation

A

The security goal of ensuring that the party that sent a transmission or created data remains associated with that data and cannot deny sending or creating that data.

320
Q

normalization

A

A routine that applies a common consistent format to incoming data so that it can be processed safely. Normalization is referred to in the context of log collection and software coding.

321
Q

NTLM

NT LAN Manager authentication

A

A challenge-response authentication protocol created by Microsoft for use in its products.

322
Q

nxlog

A

Software optimized for multiplatform log collection and aggregation.

323
Q

obfuscation

A

A technique that essentially “hides” or “camouflages” code or other information so that it is harder to read by unauthorized users.

324
Q

OID

Object Identifier

A

Numeric schema used for attributes of digital certificates.

325
Q

offboarding

A

The process of ensuring that all HR and other requirements are covered when an employee leaves an organization. Also known as exit interview.

326
Q

offline CA

offline certificate authority

A

In PKI, a CA (typically the root CA) that has been disconnected from the network to protect it from compromise.

327
Q

onboarding

A

The process of bringing in a new employee, contractor, or supplier.

328
Q

OCSP

Online Certificate Status Protocol

A

Allows clients to request the status of a digital certificate, to check whether it is revoked.

329
Q

Opal

A

Standards for implementing device encryption on storage devices.

330
Q

OAuth

Open Authorization

A

Standard for federated identity management, allowing resource servers or consumer sites to work with user accounts created and managed on a separate identity provider.

331
Q

OWASP

Open Web Application Security Project

A

A charity and community publishing a number of secure application development resources.

332
Q

OICD

OpenID Connect

A

An authentication layer that sits on top of the OAuth 2.0 authorization protocol.

333
Q

OSINT

Open-Source Intelligence

A

Publicly available information plus the tools used to aggregate and search it.

334
Q

operational control

A

A category of security control that is implemented by people.

335
Q

OT

Operational Technology

A

A communications network designed to implement an industrial control system rather than data networking.

336
Q

orchestration

A

The automation of multiple steps in a deployment process.

337
Q

order of volatility

A

The order in which volatile data should be recovered from various storage locations and devices after a security incident occurs.

338
Q

OOB

out-of-band management

A

Accessing the administrative interface of a network appliance using a separate network from the usual data network. This could use a separate VLAN or a different kind of link, such as a dial-up modem.

339
Q

OTA

Over The Air

A

A firmware update delivered on a cellular data connection.

340
Q

PtH attack

pass the hash attack

A

A network-based attack where the attacker steals hashed user credentials and uses them as-is to try to authenticate to the same network the hashed credentials originated on.

341
Q

penetration testing

A

A test that uses active tools and security utilities to evaluate security by simulating an attack on a system. A pen test will verify that a threat exists, then will actively test and bypass security controls, and will finally exploit vulnerabilities on the system. Also known as pentest.

342
Q

percent encoding

A

Mechanism for encoding characters as hexadecimal values delimited by the percent sign.

343
Q

PFS

Perfect Forward Secrecy

A

A characteristic of transport encryption that ensures if a key is compromised the compromise will only affect a single session and not facilitate recovery of plaintext data from other sessions.

344
Q

persistence cybersecurity

A

The ability of a threat actor to maintain covert access to a target host or network.

345
Q

persistence load balancing

A

In load balancing, the configuration option that enables a client to maintain a connection with a load-balanced server over the duration of the session. Also referred to as sticky sessions.

346
Q

PIV card

personal identity verification card

A

A smart card that meets the standards for FIPS 201, in that it is resistant to tampering and provides quick electronic authentication of the card’s owner.

347
Q

PFX

Personal Information Exchange

A

Windows file format for storing a private key and certificate data. The file can be password-protected.

348
Q

PII

Personally Identifiable Information

A

Data that can be used to identify or contact an individual (or in the case of identity theft, to impersonate them).

349
Q

pharming

A

An impersonation attack in which a request for a website, typically an e-commerce site, is redirected to a similar-looking, but fake, website.

350
Q

phishing

A

A type of email-based social engineering attack, in which the attacker sends email from a supposedly reputable source, such as a bank, to try to elicit private information from the victim.

351
Q

physical control

A

A type of security control that acts against in-person intrusion attempts.

352
Q

pinning

A

A deprecated method of trusting digital certificates that bypasses the CA hierarchy and chain of trust to minimize man-in-the-middle attacks.

353
Q

PaaS

Platform as a Service

A

A computing method that uses the cloud to provide any platform-type services.

354
Q

playbook

A

A checklist of actions to perform to detect and respond to a specific type of incident

355
Q

PPP

Point to Point Protocol

A

Dial-up protocol working at layer 2 (Data Link) used to connect devices remotely to networks.

356
Q

pointer dereferencing

A

A software vulnerability that can occur when code attempts to read a memory location specified by a pointer, but the memory location is null. Also known as dereferencing.

357
Q

Point-to-Point/Point-to-Multipoint Topology

A

A point-to-point topology is one where two nodes have a dedicated connection to one another. In a point-to-multipoint topology, a central node mediates links between remote nodes. Also known as Point-to-point.

358
Q

port forwarding

A

A process in which a router takes requests from the Internet for a particular application (such as HTTP) and sends them to a designated host on the LAN. Also known as destination network address translation or DNAT.

359
Q

port mirroring

A

Copying ingress and/or egress communications from one or more switch ports to another port. This is used to monitor communications passing over the switch. Also known as switched port analyzer or SPAN.

360
Q

port security

A

Preventing a device attached to a switch port from communicating on the network unless it matches a given MAC address or other protection profile.

361
Q

PNAC

port-based network access control

A

A switch (or router) that performs some sort of authentication of the attached device before activating the port.

362
Q

post-quantum

A

Anticipating challenges to current cryptographic implementations and general security issues in a world where threat actors have access to significant quantum processing capability.

363
Q

PUP

potentially unwanted program

A

Software that cannot definitively be classed as malicious, but may not have been chosen by or wanted by the user.

364
Q

PDU

Power Distribution Unit

A

Advanced strip socket that provides filtered output voltage. A managed unit supports remote administration.

365
Q

PowerShell

A

A command shell and scripting language built on the .NET Framework.

366
Q

PSK

pre-shared key

A

Passphrase-based mechanism to allow group authentication to a wireless network. The passphrase is used to derive an encryption key.

367
Q

PEM

Privacy-Enhanced Mail

A

Base64 encoding scheme used to store certificate and key data as ASCII text.

368
Q

private cloud

A

A cloud that is deployed for use by a single entity.

369
Q

private key

A

In asymmetric encryption, the private key is known only to the holder and is linked to, but not derivable from, a public key distributed to those with which the holder wants to communicate securely. A private key can be used to encrypt data that can be decrypted by the linked public key or vice versa.

370
Q

privilege access management

A

The use of authentication and authorization mechanisms to provide an administrator with centralized or decentralized control of user and group role-based privilege management.

371
Q

privilege escalation

A

The practice of exploiting flaws in an operating system or other application to gain a greater level of access than was intended for the user or application.

372
Q

PLC

programmable logic controller

A

A type of computer designed for deployment in an industrial or outdoor setting that can automate and monitor mechanical systems.

373
Q

PEAP

Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol

A

EAP implementation that uses a server-side certificate to create a secure tunnel for user authentication, referred to as the inner method.

374
Q

PHI

Protected Health Information

A

Information that identifies someone as the subject of medical and insurance records, plus associated hospital and laboratory test results.

375
Q

provenance

A

In digital forensics, being able to trace the source of evidence to a crime scene and show that it has not been tampered with.

376
Q

proxy server

A

A server that mediates the communications between a client and another server. It can filter and often modify communications, as well as provide caching services to improve performance. Also known as forward proxy.

377
Q

pseudo-anonymization

A

Removing personal information from a data set to make identification of individuals difficult, even if the data set is combined with other sources.

378
Q

public cloud

A

A cloud that is deployed for shared use by multiple independent tenants.

379
Q

public key

A

During asymmetric encryption, this key is freely distributed and can be used to perform the reverse encryption or decryption operation of the linked private key in the pair.

380
Q

P12

Public Key Cryptography Standard #12

A

Format that allows a private key to be exported along with its digital certificate.

381
Q

PKCS

public key cryptography standards

A

Series of standards defining the use of certificate authorities and digital certificates.

382
Q

PKI

public key infrastructure

A

Framework of certificate authorities, digital certificates, software, services, and other cryptographic components deployed for the purpose of validating subject identities.

383
Q

purple team

A

A mode of penetration testing where red and blue teams share information and collaborate throughout the engagement.

384
Q

purpose limitation

A

In data protection, the principle that personal information can be collected and processed only for a stated purpose to which the subject has consented.

385
Q

Python

A

High-level programming language that is widely used for automation.

386
Q

QA

Quality Assurance

A

Policies, procedures, and tools designed to ensure defect-free development and delivery.

387
Q

qualitative analysis

A

A risk analysis method that uses opinions and reasoning to measure the likelihood and impact of risk.

388
Q

QoS

quality of service

A

Systems that differentiate data passing over the network that can reserve bandwidth for particular applications. A system that cannot guarantee a level of available bandwidth is often described as Class of Service (CoS). Also known as CoS.

389
Q

quantitative analysis

A

A risk analysis method that is based on assigning concrete values to factors.

390
Q

quantum cryptography

A

Using quantum computing for cryptographic tasks, such as distributing keys or cracking (traditional) cryptographic systems. Quantum computing works on the principle that its units (qubits) have more properties than the bits used in “classical” computers, notably (and very crudely) that a qubit can have a probability of being 1 or 0 and that inspecting the value of one qubit can instantly determine that of others (entanglement).

391
Q

race condition

A

A software vulnerability when the resulting outcome from execution processes is directly dependent on the order and timing of certain events, and those events fail to execute in the order and timing intended by the developer.

392
Q

rainbow table

A

Tool for speeding up attacks against Windows passwords by precomputing possible hashes.

393
Q

ransomware

A

A type of password attack where an attacker uses a set of related plaintext passwords and their hashes to crack passwords.

394
Q

Raspberry Pi

A

Open-source platform producing programmable circuit boards for education and industrial prototyping.

395
Q

RTOS

real-time operating system

A

A type of OS that prioritizes deterministic execution of operations to ensure consistent response for time-critical tasks.

396
Q

RTP

Real-time Transport Protocol

A

Opens a data stream for video and voice applications over UDP. The data is packetized and tagged with control information (sequence numbering and time-stamping).

397
Q

RA

Recovery agent

A

In PKI, an account or combination of accounts that can copy a cryptographic key from backup or escrow and restore it to a subject host or user.

398
Q

RPO

recovery point objective

A

The longest period of time that an organization can tolerate lost data being unrecoverable.

399
Q

RTO

recovery time objective

A

The length of time it takes after an event to resume normal business operations and activities.

400
Q

red team

A

The “hostile” or attacking team in a penetration test or incident response exercise.

401
Q

RAID

redundant array of independent/inexpensive disks

A

Specifications that support redundancy and fault tolerance for different configurations of multiple-device storage systems.

402
Q

regex regular expression

A

A group of characters that describe how to execute a specific search pattern on a given text.

403
Q

RA

registration authority

A

In PKI, an authority that accepts requests for digital certificates and authenticates the entities making those requests.

404
Q

RAT

remote access Trojan

A

Malware that creates a backdoor remote administration channel to allow a threat actor to access and control the infected host.

405
Q

RADIUS

Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service

A

A standard protocol used to manage remote and wireless authentication infrastructures.

406
Q

RTBH

remote triggered black hole

A

Using a trigger device to send a BGP route update that instructs routers to drop traffic that is suspected of attempting DDoS.

407
Q

replay attack

A

An attack where the attacker intercepts some authentication data and reuses it to try to re-establish a session.

408
Q

replication

A

Automatically copying data between two processing systems either simultaneously on both systems (synchronous) or from a primary to a secondary location (asynchronous).

409
Q

residual risk

A

Risk that remains even after controls are put into place.

410
Q

retention policy

A

Dictates for how long information needs to be kept available on backup and archive systems. This may be subject to legislative requirements.

411
Q

reverse proxy

A

A type of proxy server that protects servers from direct contact with client requests.

412
Q

reverse shell

A

A maliciously spawned remote command shell where the victim host opens the connection to the attacking host.

413
Q

RCS

rich communication services

A

Platform-independent advanced messaging functionality designed to replace SMS and MMS.

414
Q

risk acceptance

A

The response of determining that a risk is within the organization’s appetite and no countermeasures other than ongoing monitoring is needed.

415
Q

risk avoidance

A

In risk mitigation, the practice of ceasing activity that presents risk.

416
Q

risk deterrence

A

In risk mitigation, the response of deploying security controls to reduce the likelihood and/or impact of a threat scenario. Also known as risk reduction.

417
Q

risk matrix/heat map

A

A graphical table indicating the likelihood and impact of risk factors identified for a workflow, project, or department 1 for reference by stakeholders. 2

418
Q

risk mitigation

A

The response of reducing risk to fit within an organization’s risk appetite.

419
Q

risk register

A

A document highlighting the results of risk assessments in an easily comprehensible format (such as a “traffic light” grid). Its purpose is for department managers and technicians to understand risks associated with the workflows that they manage.

420
Q

risk transference

A

In risk mitigation, the response of moving or sharing the responsibility of risk to another entity, such as by purchasing cybersecurity insurance.

421
Q

risk-based framework

A

In ESA, a framework that uses risk assessment to prioritize security control selection and investment.

422
Q

RSA

Rivest Shamir Adelman

A

Named for its designers, Ronald Rivest, Adi Shamir, and Len Adelman, the first successful algorithm for public key encryption with a variable key length and block size.

423
Q

robot sentry

A

A remote-controlled or autonomous robot capable of patrolling site premises or monitoring gateways.

424
Q

RBAC

role-based access control

A

An access control model where resources are protected by ACLs that are managed by administrators and that provide user permissions based on job functions.

425
Q

root CA

root certificate authority

A

In PKI, a CA that issues certificates to intermediate CAs in a hierarchical structure.

426
Q

rootkit

A

A class of malware that modifies system files, often at the kernel level, to conceal its presence.

427
Q

router firewall

A

A hardware device that has the primary function of a router, but also has firewall functionality embedded into the router firmware.

428
Q

routing protocols

A

Rules that govern how routers communicate and forward traffic between networks.

429
Q

rule-based access control

A

A nondiscretionary access control technique that is based on a set of operational rules or restrictions to enforce a least privileges permissions policy.

430
Q

runbook

A

An automated version of a playbook that leaves clearly defined interaction points for human analysis.

431
Q

salt

A

A security countermeasure that mitigates the impact of a rainbow table attack by adding a random value to (“salting”) each plaintext input.

432
Q

sandbox

A

A computing environment that is isolated from a host system to guarantee that the environment runs in a controlled, secure fashion. Communication links between the sandbox and the host are usually completely prohibited.

433
Q

sanitization

A

The process of thorough and completely removing data from a storage medium so that file remnants cannot be recovered.

434
Q

scalability

A

The property by which a computing environment is able to gracefully fulfill its ever-increasing resource needs.

435
Q

scanless

A

Utility that runs port scans through third-party websites to evade detection.

436
Q

screened host

A

A dual-homed proxy/gateway server used to provide Internet access to other network nodes, while protecting them from external attack.

437
Q

script kiddie

A

An inexperienced, unskilled attacker that typically uses tools or scripts created by others.

438
Q

secure boot

A

A UEFI feature that prevents unwanted processes from executing during the boot operation.

439
Q

SE

secure erase

A

A method of sanitizing a drive using the ATA command set.

440
Q

SFTP

Secure File Transfer Protocol

A

A secure version of the File Transfer Protocol that uses a Secure Shell (SSH) tunnel as an encryption method to transfer, access, and manage files.

441
Q

SHA

Secure Hash Algorithm

A

A cryptographic hashing algorithm created to address possible weaknesses in MDA. The current version is SHA-2.

442
Q

SSH

Secure Shell

A

A remote administration and file-copy program that supports VPNs by using port forwarding, and that runs on TCP port 22.

443
Q

SSTP

Secure Socket Tunneling Protocol

A

A protocol that uses the HTTP over SSL protocol and encapsulates an IP packet with a PPP header and then with an SSTP header.

444
Q

SWG

secure web gateway

A

An appliance or proxy server that mediates client connections with the Internet by filtering spam and malware and enforcing access restrictions on types of sites visited, time spent, and bandwidth consumed.

445
Q

S/MIME

Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions

A

An email encryption standard that adds digital signatures and public key cryptography to traditional MIME communications.

446
Q

SECaaS

Security as a Service

A

A computing method that enables clients to take advantage of information, software, infrastructure, and processes provided by a cloud vendor in the specific area of computer security.

447
Q

SAML

Security Assertion Markup Language

A

An XML-based data format used to exchange authentication information between a client and a service.

448
Q

SCAP

Security Content Automation Protocol

A

A NIST framework that outlines various accepted practices for automating vulnerability scanning.

449
Q

security control

A

A technology or procedure put in place to mitigate vulnerabilities and risk and to ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability (CIA) of information.

450
Q

SID

security identifier

A

The value assigned to an account by Windows and that is used by the operating system to identify that account.

451
Q

SIEM

security information and event management

A

A solution that provides real-time or near-real-time analysis of security alerts generated by network hardware and applications.

452
Q

SOAR

security orchestration, automation, and response

A

A class of security tools that facilitates incident response, threat hunting, and security configuration by orchestrating automated runbooks and delivering data enrichment.

453
Q

SEAndroid

Security-Enhanced Android

A

Since version 4.3, Android has been based on Security-Enhanced Linux, enabling granular permissions for apps, container isolation, and storage segmentation.

454
Q

segment

A

A portion of a network where all attached hosts can communicate freely with one another.

455
Q

SED

self-encrypting drive

A

A disk drive where the controller can automatically encrypt data that is written to it.

456
Q

self-signed certificate

A

A digital certificate that has been signed by the entity that issued it, rather than by a CA.

457
Q

sentiment analysis

A

Devising an AI/ML algorithm that can describe or classify the intention expressed in natural language statements.

458
Q

separation of duties

A

A concept that states that duties and responsibilities should be divided among individuals to prevent ethical conflicts or abuse of powers.

459
Q

SAS

Serial Attached Small Computer Systems Interface

A

Developed from parallel SCSI, SAS represents the highest performing hard disk interface available.

460
Q

server certificate

A

A digital certificate that guarantees the identity of e-commerce sites and other websites that gather and store confidential information.

461
Q

serverless

A

A software architecture that runs functions within virtualized runtime containers in a cloud rather than on dedicated server instances.

462
Q

server-side

A

In a web application, input data that is executed or validated as part of a script or process running on the server.

463
Q

service account

A

A host or network account that is designed to run a background service, rather than to log on interactively.

464
Q

SLA

service level agreement

A

Operating procedures and standards for a service contract.

465
Q

SSID

service set identifier

A

A character string that identifies a particular wireless LAN (WLAN).

466
Q

SOA

service-oriented architecture

A

A software architecture where components of the solution are conceived as loosely coupled services not dependent on a single platform type or technology.

467
Q

session affinity

A

A scheduling approach used by load balancers to route traffic to devices that have already established connections with the client in question. Also known as source IP affinity.

468
Q

session hijacking

A

A type of spoofing attack where the attacker disconnects a host then replaces it with his or her own machine, spoofing the original host’s IP address.

469
Q

SIP

Session Initiation Protocol

A

Used to establish, disestablish, and manage VoIP and conferencing communications sessions. It handles user discovery (locating a user on the network), availability advertising (whether a user is prepared to receive calls), negotiating session parameters (such as use of audio/video), and session management and termination.

470
Q

sflow

A

Web standard for using sampling to record network traffic statistics.

471
Q

shadow IT

A

Computer hardware, software, or services used on a private network without authorization from the system owner.

472
Q

shared account

A

An account with no credential (guest) or one where the credential is known to multiple persons.

473
Q

shellcode

A

Lightweight block of malicious code that exploits a software vulnerability to gain initial access to a victim system.

474
Q

shimming

A

The process of developing and implementing additional code between an application and the operating system to enable functionality that would otherwise be unavailable.

475
Q

shoulder surfing

A

A social engineering tactic to obtain someone’s password or PIN by observing him or her as he or she types it in.

476
Q

signature-based detection

A

A network monitoring system that uses a predefined set of rules provided by a software vendor or security personnel to identify events that are unacceptable.

477
Q

SNMP

Simple Network Management Protocol

A

Protocol for monitoring and managing network devices. SNMP works over UDP ports 161 and 162 by default.

478
Q

SOAP

Simple Object Access Protocol

A

An XML-based web services protocol that is used to exchange messages.

479
Q

SAE

Simultaneous Authentication of Equals

A

Personal authentication mechanism for Wi-Fi networks introduced with WPA3 to address vulnerabilities in the WPA-PSK method.

480
Q

SLE

single loss expectancy

A

The amount that would be lost in a single occurrence of a particular risk factor.

481
Q

SPoF

single point of failure

A

A component or system that would cause a complete interruption of a service if it failed.

482
Q

SSO

single sign-on

A

An authentication

483
Q

sinkhole

A

A DoS attack mitigation strategy that directs the traffic that is flooding a target IP address to a different network for analysis.

484
Q

smart card

A

A device similar to a credit card that can store authentication information, such as a user’s private key, on an embedded microchip.

485
Q

smart meter

A

A utility meter that can submit readings to the supplier without user intervention.

486
Q

SMiShing

A

A form of phishing that uses SMS text messages to trick a victim into revealing information.

487
Q

sn1per

A

Software utility designed for penetration testing reporting and evidence gathering that can also run automated test suites.

488
Q

SaaS

Software as a Service

A

A computing method that uses the cloud to provide application services to users.

489
Q

SDN

software defined networking

A

APIs and compatible hardware/virtual appliances allowing for programmable network appliances and systems.

490
Q

SDV

software defined visibility

A

APIs for reporting configuration and state data for automated monitoring and alerting.

491
Q

SDK

software development kit

A

Coding resources provided by a vendor to assist with development projects that use their platform or API.

492
Q

SPIM

spam over internet messaging

A

A spam attack that is propagated through instant messaging rather than email.

493
Q

STP

Spanning Tree Protocol

A

A switching protocol that prevents network loops by dynamically disabling links as needed.

494
Q

spear phishing

A

An email-based or web-based form of phishing which targets specific individuals.

495
Q

split tunnel VPN configuration

A

VPN configuration where only traffic for the private network is routed via the VPN gateway.

496
Q

standard naming convention

A

Applying consistent names and labels to assets and digital resources/identities within a configuration management system.

497
Q

stapling

A

Mechanism used to mitigate performance and privacy issues when requesting certificate status from an OCSP responder.

498
Q

state actor

A

A type of threat actor that is supported by the resources of its host country’s military and security services. Also known as nation state actor.

499
Q

Subject Alternative Name

A

Field in a digital certificate allowing a host to be identified by multiple host names/subdomains.

500
Q

Subscriber Identity Module

A

A small chip card that identifies the user and phone number of a mobile device, via an International Mobile Subscriber Identity (ISMI).

501
Q

SSAE SOC

Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition

A

A type of industrial control system that manages large-scale, multiple-site devices and equipment spread over geographically large areas.

502
Q

supplicant

A

In EAP architecture, the device requesting access to the network.

503
Q

symmetric encryption

A

A two-way encryption scheme in which encryption and decryption are both performed by the same key. Also known as shared-key encryption.

504
Q

syslog

A

A protocol enabling different appliances and software applications to transmit logs or event records to a central server.

505
Q

system-on-chip

A

A processor that integrates the platform functionality of multiple logical controllers onto a single chip.

506
Q

SEH

tactics, techniques, and procedures

A

Analysis of historical cyberattacks and adversary actions.

507
Q

SEH

tail command

A

Linux utility for showing the last lines in a file.

508
Q

tailgating

A

Social engineering technique to gain access to a building by following someone who is unaware of their presence.

509
Q

tape

A

Tape media provides robust, high-speed, high-capacity backup storage. Tape drives and autoloader libraries can be connected to the SATA and SAS buses or accessed via a SAN.

510
Q

tcpdump

A

A command-line packet sniffing utility.

511
Q

tcpreplay

A

A command-line utility that replays packets saved to a file back through a network adapter.

512
Q

technical control

A

A category of security control that is implemented as a system (hardware, software, or firmware). Technical controls may also be described as logical controls.

513
Q

TKIP

Temporal Key Integrity Protocol

A

A mechanism used in the first version of WPA to improve the security of wireless encryption mechanisms, compared to the flawed WEP standard.

514
Q

TACACS+

Terminal Access Controller Access Control System Plus

A

An AAA protocol developed by Cisco that is often used to authenticate to administrator accounts for network appliance management.

515
Q

TAP

test access port

A

A hardware device inserted into a cable to copy frames for analysis.

516
Q

tethering

A

Using the cellular data plan of a mobile device to provide Internet access to a laptop or PC. The PC can be tethered to the mobile by USB, Bluetooth, or Wi-Fi (a mobile hotspot). Also known as hotspot.

517
Q

DSCP/Diifserv

The Differentiated Services Code Point

A

a field is used to indicate a priority value for a layer 3 (IP) packet to facilitate Quality of Service (QoS) or Class of Service (CoS) scheduling.

518
Q

theHarvester

A

Utility for gathering results from open source intelligence queries.

519
Q

thin AP

A

An access point that requires a wireless controller in order to function.

520
Q

third-party risks

A

Vulnerabilities that arise from dependencies in business relationships with suppliers and customers.

521
Q

threat actor

A

The person or entity responsible for an event that has been identified as a security incident or as a risk.

522
Q

threat hunting

A

Cybersecurity technique designed to detect presence of threats that have not been discovered by normal security monitoring.

523
Q

threat map

A

Animated map showing threat sources in near real-time.

524
Q

TOCTTOU

time of check to time of use

A

The potential vulnerability that occurs when there is a change between when an app checked a resource and when the app used the resource.

525
Q

time of day restrictions

A

The potential vulnerability that occurs when there is a change between when an app checked a resource and when the app used the resource.

526
Q

time offset

A

In forensics, identifying whether a time zone offset has been applied to a file’s time stamp.

527
Q

TOTP

Time-based One-time Password

A

An improvement on HOTP that forces one-time passwords to expire after a short period of time.

528
Q

TLS

timeline

A

In digital forensics, a tool that shows the sequence of file system events within a source image in a graphical format.

529
Q

token

A

A physical or virtual item that contains authentication and/or authorization data, commonly used in multifactor authentication.

530
Q

tokenization

A

A deidentification method where a unique token is substituted for real data.

531
Q

transit gateway

A

In cloud computing, a virtual router deployed to facilitate connections between VPC subnets and VPN gateways.

532
Q

Transport Layer Security

A

A security protocol that uses certificates for authentication and encryption to protect web communication.

533
Q

trend analysis

A

The process of detecting patterns within a dataset over time, and using those patterns to make predictions about future events or better understand past events.

534
Q

Trojan

A

A malicious software program hidden within an innocuous-seeming piece of software. Usually, the Trojan is used to try to compromise the security of the target computer. Also known as Trojan.

535
Q

TPM

Trusted Automated eXchange of Indicator Information

A

A protocol for exchanging cyber threat intelligence between organizations.

536
Q

Trusted Automated eXchange of Indicator Information

A

A protocol for exchanging cyber threat intelligence between organizations.

537
Q

TPM

Trusted Platform Module

A

A specification for hardware-based storage of digital certificates, keys, hashed passwords, and other user and platform identification information.

538
Q

typosquatting

A

An attack—also called typosquatting—in which an attacker registers a domain name with a common misspelling of an existing domain, so that a user who misspells a URL they enter into a browser is taken to the attacker’s website. Also known as URL hijacking.

539
Q

UEM

unified endpoint management

A

Enterprise software for controlling device settings, apps, and corporate data storage on all types of fixed, mobile, and IoT computing devices.

540
Q

UTM

unified threat management

A

All-in-one security appliances and agents that combine the functions of a firewall, malware scanner, intrusion detection, vulnerability scanner, data loss prevention, content filtering, and so on.

541
Q

USB data blocker

Universal Serial Bus data blocker

A

Hardware plug to prevent malicious data transfer when a device is plugged into a USB charging point.

542
Q

UEBA

user and entity behavior analytics

A

A system that can provide automated identification of suspicious activity by user accounts and computer hosts.

543
Q

VDE

vendor management

A

Policies and procedures to identify vulnerabilities and ensure security of the supply chain.

544
Q

VDE

virtual desktop environment

A

The user desktop and software applications provisioned as an instance under VDI.

545
Q

VDI

virtual desktop infrastructure

A

A virtualization implementation that separates the personal computing environment from a user’s physical computer.

546
Q

VLAN

virtual local area network

A

A logically separate network, created by using switching technology. Even though hosts on two VLANs may be physically connected to the same cabling, local traffic is isolated to each VLAN so they must use a router to communicate.

547
Q

VM escaping

virtual machine escaping

A

An attack where malware running in a VM is able to interact directly with the hypervisor or host kernel.

548
Q

VM sprawl

virtual machine sprawl

A

Configuration vulnerability where provisioning and deprovisioning of virtual assets is not properly authorized and monitored.

549
Q

VPC

virtual private cloud

A

A private network segment made available to a single cloud consumer on a public cloud.

550
Q

VPN

virtual private network

A

A secure tunnel created between two endpoints connected via an unsecure network (typically the Internet).

551
Q

virus

A

Code designed to infect computer files (or disks) when it is activated.

552
Q

vishing

A

A human-based attack where the attacker extracts information while speaking over the phone or leveraging IPbased voice messaging services (VoIP).

553
Q

VBA

Visual Basic for Applications

A

Programming languages used to implement macros and scripting in Office document automation.

554
Q

vulnerability

A

A weakness that could be triggered accidentally or exploited intentionally to cause a security breach.

555
Q

vulnerability assessment

A

An evaluation of a system’s security and ability to meet compliance requirements based on the configuration state of the system, as represented by information collected from the system.

556
Q

war driving

A

The practice of using a Wi-Fi sniffer to detect WLANs and then either making use of them (if they are open/unsecured) or trying to break into them (using WEP and WPA cracking tools).

557
Q

warm site

A

A location that is dormant or performs noncritical functions under normal conditions, but which can be rapidly converted to a key operations site if needed.

558
Q

watering hole attack

A

An attack in which an attacker targets specific groups or organizations, discovers which websites they frequent, and injects malicious code into those sites.

559
Q

WAF

web application firewall

A

“A firewall designed specifically to protect software running on web servers and their backend databases from code injection and DoS
attacks”

560
Q

whaling

A

An email-based or web-based form of phishing which targets senior executives or wealthy individuals.

561
Q

white team

A

Staff administering, evaluating, and supervising a penetration test or incident response exercise.

562
Q

WPA

Wi-Fi Protected Access

A

Standards for authenticating and encrypting access to Wi-Fi networks. Also known as WPA2, WPA3.

563
Q

WPS

Wi-Fi Protected Setup

A

A feature of WPA and WPA2 that allows enrollment in a wireless network based on an 8-digit PIN.

564
Q

WinHex

A

Forensics tool for Windows that allows collection and inspection of binary code in disk and memory images.

565
Q

WEP

Wired Equivalent Privacy

A

A legacy mechanism for encrypting data sent over a wireless connection.

566
Q

zero-day

A

A vulnerability in software that is unpatched by the developer or an attack that exploits such a vulnerability.

567
Q

zero-fill

A

A method of sanitizing a drive by setting all bits to zero.

568
Q

ZigBee

A

Low-power wireless communications open source protocol used primarily for home automation. ZigBee uses radio frequencies in the 2.4 GHz band and a mesh topology.

569
Q

Z-Wave

A

Low-power wireless communications protocol used primarily for home automation. Z-Wave uses radio frequencies in the high 800 to low 900 MHz and a mesh topology

570
Q

state table

A

Information about sessions between hosts that is gathered by a stateful firewall.

571
Q

stateful inspection

A

A technique used in firewalls to analyze packets down to the application layer rather than filtering packets only by header information, enabling the firewall to enforce tighter and more security.

572
Q

Statements on Standards for Attestation Engagements Service Organization Control

A

Audit specifications designed to ensure that cloud/hosting providers meet professional standards. A SOC2 Type II report is created for a restricted audience, while SOC3 reports are provided for general consumption.

573
Q

steganography

A

A technique for obscuring the presence of a message, often by embedding information within a file or other entity.

574
Q

stored procedure

A

One of a set of precompiled database statements that can be used to validate input to a database.

575
Q

stream cipher

A

A type of symmetric encryption that combines a stream of plaintext bits or bytes with a pseudorandom stream initialized by a secret key.

576
Q

stress test

A

A software testing method that evaluates how software performs under extreme load.

577
Q

structured exception handler

A

A mechanism to account for unexpected error conditions that might arise during code execution. Effective error handling reduces the chances that a program could be exploited. 1

578
Q

Structured Query Language injection

A

An attack that injects a database query into the input data directed at a server by accessing the client side of the application.

579
Q

Structured Threat Information eXpression

A

A framework for analyzing cybersecurity incidents.