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SBI4U > BRAINSCAPE GAG > Flashcards

BRAINSCAPE GAG Flashcards

1
Q

<img></img>

A

Hydroxyl

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2
Q

<img></img>

A

Carbonyl

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3
Q

<img></img>

A

Carboxyl

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4
Q

<img></img>

A

Amino

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5
Q

<img></img>

A

Sulfhydryl

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6
Q

<img></img>

A

Phosphate

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7
Q

Properties: Hydroxyl

A

polar

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8
Q

Properties: Carbonyl

A

polar

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9
Q

Properties: Carboxyl

A

polar, acidic

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10
Q

Properties: Amino

A

polar, basic

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11
Q

Properties: Sulfhydryl

A

slightly polar

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12
Q

Properties: Phosphate

A

polar

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13
Q

<img></img>

A

Ionized Phosphate

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14
Q

<img></img>

A

Ionized Carboxyl

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15
Q

<img></img>

A

Ionized Amino

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16
Q

Definition: Monomer

A

The smallest repeating unit of a polymer

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17
Q

Definition: Polymer

A

A large molecule composed of repeating monomers

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18
Q

Definition: Monosaccharide

A

A simple sugar; a carbohydrate composed of 3-7 carbon atoms

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19
Q

Definition: Disaccharide

A

A carbohydrate composed of two monosaccharides joined by a covalent bond

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20
Q

Definition: Polysaccharide

A

A carbohydrate polymer composed of many monosaccharides joined by covalent bonds

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21
Q

Definition: Glycosidic Linkage

A

A covalent bond between monosaccharides

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22
Q

Formula: Glucose/Fructose/Galactose

A

C6H12O6

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23
Q

Compare: Alpha Glucose vs Beta Glucose

A

Alpha glucose has a hydroxyl in the down position on its first carbon, beta has a hydroxyl in the up position

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24
Q

Compare: Glucose vs Galactose

A

Glucose has a hydroxyl in the down position on its fourth carbon, galactose has one in the up position

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25
Q

Which reaction releases a water molecule?

A

Dehydration synthesis/condensation

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26
Q

Which reaction uses up a water molecule?

A

Hydrolysis reaction

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27
Q

What is maltose made of?

A

Alpha Glucose + Alpha Glucose

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28
Q

What is sucrose made of?

A

Alpha Glucose + Beta Fructose

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29
Q

What is lactose made of?

A

Beta Glucose + Beta Galactose

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30
Q

Which carbons link in the formation of maltose?

A

alpha 1:4 linkage

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31
Q

Which carbons link in the formation of sucrose?

A

alpha 1:2 linkage

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32
Q

Which carbons link in the formation of lactose?

A

beta 1:4 linkage

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33
Q

Rank the three common polysaccharides from least branched to most branched

A

Cellulose, starch, glycogen

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34
Q

What is the use of glycogen?

A

Short-term energy storage in animals

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35
Q

What is the use of starch?

A

Short-term energy storage in plants

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36
Q

What is the use of cellulose?

A

Structural support in plants

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37
Q

How often does glycogen branch?

A

Approximately every ten residues

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38
Q

How often does starch branch, and where?

A

Approximately every 30 residues, in the amylopectin

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39
Q

Which carbons link in cellulose, and of which monomer?

A

1:4 beta glucose linkage

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40
Q

What is chitin made of?

A

A carbohydrate with a nitrogen-containing functional group

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41
Q

<img></img>

A

Alpha glucose

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42
Q

<img></img>

A

Galactose

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43
Q

<img></img>

A

Fructose

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44
Q

Which carbons link in glycogen, and of which monomer?

A

alpha glucose 1:4 linkage

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45
Q

Which carbons link in amylopectin, and of which monomer?

A

alpha glucose 1:4 linkage

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46
Q

Which carbons link in branches, and of which monomer?

A

alpha glucose 1:6 linkage

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47
Q

Functions: Triglycerides

A

long-term energy storage, twice the energy per grams compared to carbohydrates/proteins, provide insulation, components of cell membranes

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48
Q

Features: Saturated Fatty Acids

A

no double bonds, saturates with hydrogen atoms, straight chain, solid at room temperature

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49
Q

Features: Unsaturated Fatty Acids

A

One or more double bonds, not saturated with hydrogen atoms, liquid at room temperature 

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50
Q

Features: Cis Fats

A

Very bulky, liquid at room temperature

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51
Q

Features: Trans Fats

A

Pack together, solid at room temperature, unhealthy

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52
Q

<img></img>

A

Glycerol

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53
Q

<img></img><br></br><br></br>Is this saturated or unsaturated?

A

Saturated

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54
Q

<img></img><br></br><br></br>Is this saturated or unsaturated?

A

Unsaturated

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55
Q

What are the two main types of linkages?

A

Ester linkages and ether/glycodic linkages

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56
Q

How many water molecules are produced during the creation of triglyceride?

A

Three

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57
Q

<img></img><br></br><br></br>What type of linkage is this?

A

Ester linkage

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58
Q

<img></img><br></br><br></br>What type of linkage is this?

A

Ether linkage

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59
Q

Definition: Valence

A

The number of chemical bonds that each atom of a chemical element typically form

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60
Q

What is the valence of: Carbon, Oxygen, Phosphorus, Nitrogen, Sulphur, Hydrogen?

A

4/2/5/3/2/1

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61
Q

Definition: Isotope

A

Atoms with the same number of protons but a different number of neutrons

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62
Q

Definition: Radioisotope 

A

An unstable isotope that emits radiation and decays over time while becoming more stable

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63
Q

How are radioisotopes used in medicine?

A

Radioisotope tracing, a process where radioactive material is injected into the body and traced using a positron emission topography (PET) scan to locate tissues with higher levels of activity (higher activity indicates cancer)

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64
Q

Definition: Biochemistry

A

The study of the chemical processes within living organisms

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65
Q

Definition: Intramolecular Forces

A

The forces that hold atoms together within a molecule

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66
Q

Definition: Intermolecular Forces

A

The attractive and repulsive forces between the molecules of a substance

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67
Q

Definition: Electronegativity

A

The tendency of a nucleus to attract electrons towards itself

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68
Q

An electronegativity difference of less than __ results in a(n) __ bond

A

0.5, pure covalent

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69
Q

An electronegativity difference between __ and __ results in a(n) __ bond

A

0.5, 1.6, polar covalent

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70
Q

An electronegativity difference greater than __ results in a(n) __ bond

A

1.6, ionic

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71
Q

Definition: Hydrogen Bonding

A

The attraction of a slightly positively charged hydrogen atom to a slightly negatively charged oxygen, nitrogen or fluorine atom that is also connected to a hydrogen atom

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72
Q

Definition: Hydrophobic

A

Does not dissolve in water

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73
Q

Definition: Hydrophillic

A

Dissolves in water

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74
Q

Why is water described as polar?

A

The two hydrogen atoms have slightly positive charges while the oxygen atom has a slightly negative charge due to their electronegativity difference

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75
Q

State the 4 unique properties of water

A

Hydrogen bonding, special density properties, polarity, dissociation of intramolecular bonds

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76
Q

What property of water explains how water can travel within the xylem vessels of a tree?

A

Hydrogen bonding, more specifically cohesion/adhesion. Cohesion making the water molecules stick together, and adhesion making them stick to the xylem.

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77
Q

What property of water explains how belly flops hurt?

A

Hydrogen bonding, more specifically surface tension

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78
Q

What is surface tension?

A

The tension of the surface of a liquid caused by the attraction of the molecules on the surface to the bulk of the liquid.

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79
Q

What property of water explains how drinking lots of fluids can help reduce a fever?

A

Hydrogen bonding, more specifically water’s high specific heat capacity, which is explained by the high amount of energy needed to break these bonds, meaning it takes a lot of heat to make water molecules move faster and heat up

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80
Q

What property of water explains why lakes freeze from the top down?

A

Water becomes less dense as a solid, which causes ice to float to the top

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81
Q

What property of water explains how the products of digestion easily diffuse across the villi membrane?

A

Water’s polar nature makes it a solvent, dissolving the products of digestion, making it easier for them to diffuse as non-solids

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82
Q

Definition: Acid

A

Acids are substances with high concentrations of H+ ions. They donate protons, and they produce H+ ions when dissolved in water.

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83
Q

Definition: Base

A

Bases are substances with low concentrations of H+ ions. They accept protons, and they produce OH- ions when dissolved in water.

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84
Q

Definition: Buffer

A

A solution that resists changes in pH when an acid or base is added to it

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85
Q

Why are buffers important to biological systems?

A

They maintain acid-base homeostasis by releasing H+ or OH- ions. This prevents complications that can occur if the pH of the body is too high or too low

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86
Q

Formula: Maltose/Sucrose/Lactose

A

C12H22O11

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87
Q

<img></img>

A

Phospholipid

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88
Q

What are the main component of cell membranes?

A

Phospholipids

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89
Q

Definition: Phospholipid

A

A lipid with a hydrophillic “head” and a hydrophobic “tail”

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90
Q

What is the structural difference between a triglyceride and a phospholipid?

A

One fatty acid is replaced with a phosphate group

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91
Q

Definition: Phospholipid Bilayer

A

A thin polar membrane formed in aqueous environments that allows for the cell to be selectively permeable

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92
Q

Definition: Steroids

A

Hydrophobic molecules composed of four linked carbon rings

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93
Q

Functions: Steroids

A

component of cell membrane in animals, sex hormones, used to reduce inflammation

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94
Q

Definition: Waxes

A

Diverse structures, solid at room temperature. Most have long chains of fatty acids or carbon rings.

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95
Q

Example: A wax produced in plants

A

Carnauba wax

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96
Q

Example: A wax produced in animals

A

Beeswax, earwax

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97
Q

Functions: Waxes

A

Hydrophobic, waterproof protection

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98
Q

What are protein monomers called?

A

Amino Acids

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99
Q

What bond is present in proteins? 

A

Peptide bond

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100
Q

What are protein polymers called?

A

Polypeptides

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101
Q

<img></img>

A

Amino Acid

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102
Q

Definition: Zwitterion

A

A molecule that contains an equal amount of positively or negatively charged functional groups

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103
Q

Visualize: Peptide Bond

A

<img></img>

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104
Q

__ structure is the linear sequence of amino acids

A

primary

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105
Q

__ structure is the amino acids hydrogen bonding and either forming coils or folds

A

Secondary

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106
Q

What are the two secondary structures of proteins?

A

Alpha helix and beta pleated sheets

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107
Q

What do helixes and sheets in a polypeptide arrange themselves by in tertiary structures?

A

Hydrophobic/philicness, hydrogen bonding, electrostatic charges and molecular chaperones

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108
Q

__ structure is when various polypeptides join together to form multi-polypeptide proteins

A

Quaternary

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109
Q

How are alpha helixes created?

A

Hydrogen bonding between every fourth amino acid within a strand

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110
Q

Example: Alpha helix

A

In keratin

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111
Q

How are beta pleated sheets created?

A

Hydrogen bonds forming between two parts of the polypeptide chain layered on each other

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112
Q

Example: Beta pleated sheet

A

Inside spider webs 

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113
Q

R-group interactions create __ structure

A

Tertiary

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114
Q

Definition: Denaturation

A

The breaking of stabilizing bonds within a protein molecule that disrupt its shape

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115
Q

What causes denaturation?

A

Changes in pH, heat, exposure to alcohol, high salt concentrations

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116
Q

What are are nucleic acid monomers called?

A

Nucleotides

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117
Q

What is a sugar-phosphate backbone made of?

A

Nucleotides bonded by phosphodiester bonds

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118
Q

What are the two types of nucleic acids?

A

Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and ribonucleic acid (RNA)

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119
Q

How do DNA and RNA differ in their sugars?

A

RNA contains Ribose, a sugar with 5 oxygens, while DNA contains deoxyribose, a sugar with 4 oxygens (lacking one on the second carbon)

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120
Q

What is DNA’s purpose?

A

It contains the genetic information of organisms, which are decoded into the particular amino acid sequences of proteins

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121
Q

What is RNA’s purpose?

A

It contains the genetic information for some virus particles, and it assists DNA to make proteins

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122
Q

<img></img>

A

Deoxyribose

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123
Q

<img></img>

A

Ribose

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124
Q

What is a nucleotide made of?

A

A sugar, a nitrogenous base and a phosphate group

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125
Q

What are the two pairs of nitrogenous bases in DNA

A

Adenine and Thymine; Guanine and Cytosine

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126
Q

What are the two pairs of nitrogenous bases in RNA

A

Adenine and Uracil; Guanine and Cytosine

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127
Q

List the purines of DNA and RNA

A

Adenine and Guanine

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128
Q

List the pyrimidines of DNA and RNA

A

Thymine, Uracil, and Cytosine

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129
Q

How many hydrogen bonds are present in Guanine-Cytosine pairings?

A

Three

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130
Q

How many hydrogen bonds are present in Adenine-Thymine pairings?

A

2

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131
Q

Definition: Enzyme

A

A protein with catalytic purposes due to its power of specific activation

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132
Q

Enzymes have a __ shape

A

Globular

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133
Q

How much faster do enzymes allow reactions to occur?

A

10^6 times faster

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134
Q

What is the active site?

A

A specifically shaped site on an enzyme with a unique chemical environment that permits a chemical reaction to proceed more easily

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135
Q

What is activation energy?

A

The energy that chemical reactions need to begin

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136
Q

What state are molecules in during the initial input of energy?

A

Transition state

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137
Q

Why are enzymes necessary instead of just raising body temperature?

A

Biological systems are very sensitive to temperature changes

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138
Q

How do enzymes increase the rate of reactions?

A

They lower the activation energy

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139
Q

Definition: Cofactor

A

A metal ion or mineral that is needed by some enzymes to help the reaction

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140
Q

Definition: Coenzymes

A

Organic molecules/vitamins that assist the reaction

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141
Q

Definition: Substrate

A

The reactants activated by the enzyme, specific to an enzyme

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142
Q

The __ cycle refers to the lock and key mechanism

A

Catalytic

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143
Q

__ may be used more than once

A

Enzymes

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144
Q

What is the induced fit hypothesis?

A

When a substrate combines with an enzyme it changes the active site in order to create a precise conformation. Reduces activation energy by stretching the bonds of the substrate.

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145
Q

__ enzymes catalyze hydrolysis reactions

A

Hydrolase

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146
Q

What are some factors that affect enzymes?

A

Substrate concentration, pH, temperature, and inhibitors

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147
Q

How does substrate concentration affect enzymatic reactions?

A

The reaction velocity increases as substrates become more concentrated, but when all enzyme molecules are occupied this velocity reaches a maximum.

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148
Q

How does enzyme concentration affect enzymatic reactions?

A

As enzymes become more concentrated, more enzymes are available to bind with substrates, increasing the maximum reaction velocity.

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149
Q

__ are chemicals that reduce the rate of enzymatic reactions

A

Inhibitors

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150
Q

What is competitive inhibition?

A

Inhibitors that resemble the substrate compete with the substrate for the active site. If more inhibitor is present compared to substrate it will successfully bind with the active site.

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151
Q

What is non-competitive inhibition?

A

Inhibitors bind to the allosteric site, which regulates enzyme activity. They prevent the enzyme from working. 

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152
Q

What is negative feedback in biochemical pathways?

A

The last reaction of a pathway produces a non-competitive inhibitor that prevents the enzyme that started the pathway from working again, ensuring cell products are not produces unnecessarily.

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153
Q

Rank the three proteins used in the Proteins Lab by how sensitive they were to HCl

A

Albumin, Casein, Gelatin

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154
Q

How do strong acids and bases affect protein denaturation and solubility?

A

They both denature proteins due to their extreme placement on the pH spectrum, lowering solubility and producing a precipitate

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155
Q

Which metal salt (CuSO4 and AgNO3) caused the most albumin denaturation in the Proteins Lab?

A

AgNO3 showed a stronger denaturing effect due to the fact that silver salts are more toxic than copper salts

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156
Q

Does isopropyl alcohol work well as a disinfectant? Why or why not?

A

Yes, it denatures the proteins in bacteria as proven by the fact that it made albumin clear and transparent.

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157
Q

Why is heat an effective form of sterilization?

A

Heat effectively denatures proteins, which are present in bacteria.

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158
Q

How does heat affect enzyme activity?

A

It weakens the hydrogen bonds within the enzyme by increasing their movement, causing the enzyme to lose its shape and ability to function properly. 

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159
Q

How does cold affect enzymatic activity?

A

The cold slows down the movement of molecules which results in less collisions, and it renders the bonds within the enzyme inflexible which does not let the subtrate bind properly.

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160
Q

How does pH affect enzymatic activity?

A

Enzyme active sites are denatured when not in optimal pH levels which slows reaction rate

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161
Q

How do acids and bases specifically affect hydrogen bonds?

A

Excess H+ ions bond with negatively charged carboxyl groups, and OH- ions remove H+ from positvely charged amino groups.

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162
Q

How does enzyme surface area affect enzymatic activity?

A

If enzyme surface area is larger, the substrates can interact with more active sites.

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163
Q

Definition: Isoelectric Point

A

The pH at which a molecule has no electrical charge

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164
Q

What happens to solubility at the isoeletric point?

A

At the isoelectric point a molecule is at its minimum solubility because there is no polarity repelling it or attracting it to other particles in its environment.

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165
Q

Describe the first step of glycolysis in detail

A

Glucose converted into glucose 6-phosphate by a hexokinase. This adds a phosphate group to glucose’s sixth carbon. This uses 1 ATP. This is irreversible.

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166
Q

Describe the second step of glycolysis in detail

A

Glucose 6-phosphate converted into fructose 6-phosphate by an isomerase. This is reversible.

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167
Q

Describe the third step of glycolysis in detail

A

Fructose 6-phosphate converted into fructose 1,6-bisphosphate by a kinase. This adds a phosphate group to fructose 6-phosphate’s first carbon. This uses 1 ATP. This is irreversible.

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168
Q

Describe the fourth step of glycolysis in detail

A

Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate converted into dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP) and glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P) by aldolase. This is reversible.

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169
Q

Describe the fifth step of glycolysis in detail

A

Dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP) is converted into glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P) by an isomerase. Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate can also be turned into dihydroxyacetone phosphate by this isomerase, but that is not important in glycolysis. This is reversible.

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170
Q

Describe the sixth step of glycolysis in detail

A

Both glyceraldehyde 3-phosphates (G3P) are oxidized into 1,3-bisphosphoglycerates by glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenases. Two redox reactions occur during this step, with NAD+ being reduced into NADH and H+. It also adds an inorganic phosphate (no ATP spent) to each glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate. This is reversible.

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171
Q

Describe the seventh step of glycolysis in detail

A

Both 1,3-bisphosphoglycerates are converted into 3-phosphoglycerates by a kinase. This removes a phosphate, and adds it to ADP, producing 1 ATP (actually two). This is reversible.<br></br><br></br>

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172
Q

Describe the eighth step of glycolysis in detail

A

Both 3-phosphoglycerates are converted into 2-phosphoglycerates by a mutase. This moves the phosphate from the 3rd carbon to the 2nd carbon. This is reversible.

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173
Q

Describe the ninth step of glycolysis in detail

A

Both 2-phosphoglycerates are converted into phosphoenolpyruvates by enolase. This releases a water molecule. This is reversible.

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174
Q

Describe the tenth step of glycolysis in detail

A

Both phosphoenolpyruvates are converted into pyruvates by a kinase. This removes the phosphate, and adds it to ADP, producing 1 ATP (actually two). This is irreversible.

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175
Q

Function: Kinase

A

Adds a phosphate group to a molecule

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176
Q

Function: Dehydrogenases

A

Catalyze oxidations by transferring hydrogen

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177
Q

Function: Isomerases

A

Alter the physical structure of molecules

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178
Q

Function: Mutases

A

Isomerases that rearrange functional groups

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179
Q

What is the net reaction of glycolysis? 

A

Glucose + 2ADP + 2Pi + 2NAD+ –> 2 Pyruvate + 2 ATP + 2 NADH + 2H2O

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180
Q

What is the net reaction of pyruvate oxidation?

A

1 Pyruvate + NAD+ + HS-CoA -> 1 Acetyl-CoA + NADH + H+ + CO2

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181
Q

Formula: Cellular respiration

A

C6H12O6 + 6O2 –> 6CO2 + 6H2O + ATP

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182
Q

Describe the first step of the Krebs cycle in detail

A

Acetyl-CoA (2C) and oxaloacetate (4C) are fused into citrate (6C) by citrate synthetase. This releases the CoA. 

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183
Q

Describe the second and third steps of the Krebs cycle in detail

A

Citrate (6C) is rearranged into isocitrate (6C) by aconitase. 

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184
Q

Describe the fourth step of the Krebs Cycle in detail?

A

Isocitrate (6C) is rearranged is converted into alpha-ketoglutarate (5C) by isocitrate dehydrogenase. 1 CO2 is released. NAD + is converted to NADH and H+.

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185
Q

Describe the fifth step of the Krebs cycle in detail

A

Alpha-ketoglutarate (5C) is converted into succinyl-CoA (4C) by alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase. 1 CO2 is released. NAD + is converted to NADH and H+. CoA gets added to the molecule.

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186
Q

Describe the sixth step of the Krebs cycle in detail

A

Succinyl-CoA (4C) is converted into succinate (4C) by succinyl-CoA synthetase. It also creates GTP from GDP + inorganic phosphate. GTP lends a phosphate to ADP to produce 1 ATP. The CoA is released.

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187
Q

Describe the seventh step of the Krebs cycle in detail

A

Succinate (4C) is converted into fumarate (4C) by succinate dehydrogenase. FAD is covnerted into FADH2.

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188
Q

Describe the eighth step of the Krebs cycle in detail

A

Fumarate (4C) is converted into malate (4C) by fumarase. This adds 1 H2O to the molecule.

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189
Q

Describe the ninth step of the Krebs cycle in detail

A

Malate (4C) is converted into oxaloacetate (4C) by malate dehydrogenase. It also creates NADH and H+ from NAD+.

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190
Q

What enzyme is used in pyruvate oxidation?

A

Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex

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191
Q

What is the maximum ATP yield of a glucose molecule in a prokaryote?

A

38 ATP

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192
Q

What is the maximum ATP yield of a glucose molecule in heart, liver and kidney cells?

A

38 ATP

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193
Q

What is the maximum ATP yield of a glucose molecule in most cells of a eukaryote?

A

36 ATP

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194
Q

Where does glycolysis take place?

A

Cytosol

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195
Q

Where does the Krebs cycle take place?

A

Matrix

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196
Q

Where does oxidative phosphorylation take place?

A

Mitochondria

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197
Q

Where does pyruvate oxidation take place?

A

Matrix

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198
Q

What is the H+/ATP ratio in oxidative phosphorylation?

A

2

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199
Q

How many protons are pumped out of the matrix for each NADH?

A

6

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200
Q

How many protons are pumped out of the matrix for each FADH2?

A

4

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201
Q

How many ATP does each NADH make?

A

3

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202
Q

How many ATP does each FADH2 make?

A

2

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203
Q

Name the folds of the inner mitochondrial membrane

A

Cristae

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204
Q

How many carbons does Acetyl-Coa have?

A

2

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205
Q

What is the waste product of cellular respiration?

A

CO2

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206
Q

Definition: Chemiosmosis

A

The use of the H+ ion gradient to phosphorylate ADP to ATP

207
Q

What is the first protein in the electron transport chain called?

A

NADH Dehydrogenase

208
Q

What is the third protein in the electron transport chain called?

A

bc1 complex

209
Q

What is the fourth protein in the electron transport chain called?

A

Cytochrome c oxidase

210
Q

What is the final electron acceptor?

A

O (NOT O2)

211
Q

What enzyme creates ATP in the electron transport chain?

A

ATP synthase

212
Q

What are the products of the Krebs cycle per pyruvate?

A

1 ATP + 3 NADH + 1 FADH2 + 2 CO2

213
Q

What are the products of the Krebs cycle per glucose?

A

2 ATP + 6 NADH + 2 FADH2 + 4 CO2

214
Q

What are the important products of glycolysis?

A

2 pyruvate + 2 NADH + 2 ATP

215
Q

What are the products of pyruvate oxidation per pyruvate?

A

1 Acetyl-CoA + 1 NADH + 1 CO2

216
Q

What does pyruvate break down into?

A

Acetyl + CO2

217
Q

Why is the maximum ATP produced by eukaryotic cells that aren’t heart, liver or kidney cells only 36?

A

The mitochondrial membrane is not permeable to the 2 NADH produced in glycolysis, and the 2 NADH must be shuttled in at the cost of 2 ATP

218
Q

Galactose is phosphorylated outside of glycolysis and enters as __

A

Glucose-6-phosphate

219
Q

Fructose is phosphorylated outside of glycolysis and enters as __

A

Fructose-6-phosphate

220
Q

Glycerol enters glycolysis as __

A

Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate

221
Q

What is the maximum ATP yield of a glycerol molecule in most cells of a eukaryote?

A

20 ATP

222
Q

What is the maximum ATP yield of a glycerol molecule in a prokaryote?

A

22 ATP

223
Q

What is the maximum ATP yield of a glycerol molecule in heart, liver and kidney cells?

A

22 ATP

224
Q

Where does beta oxidation take place, and for what?

A

Mitochondrial matrix, for fatty acids to undergo catabolism

225
Q

What is the outer part of the inside of the mitochondria called?

A

Intermembrane space

226
Q

Build-up of __ will allosterically inhibit glycolysis

A

Pyruvate

227
Q

What are the two types of fermentation?

A

Ethanol fermentation and lactic acid fermentation

228
Q

In what organisms does ethanol fermentation take place?

A

Unicellular organisms

229
Q

In what organisms does lactic acid fermentation take place?

A

Some bacteria and eukaryotic cells

230
Q

Why does fermentation happen?

A

To regenertate NAD+ to keep glycolysis going to create ATP

231
Q

What are the 4 organic compounds that can be produced by anaerobic respiration?

A

Ethanol, lactate, acetone, butanol

232
Q

Definition: Oxygen debt

A

 The amount of oxygen required to remove lactic acid and replace the body’s oxygen

233
Q

How does oxygen debt get repaid?

A

Increased respiration after exercise 

234
Q

Where does anaerobic respiration take place?

A

Cyotosol

235
Q

What are the end products of anaerobic respiration in humans?

A

Lactica acid and NAD+

236
Q

What does the term “eukaryotic cell” mean?

A

A type of organism that contains a membrane-bound nucleus

237
Q

What does the term “prokaryotic cell” mean?

A

A type of organism that lacks a nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles

238
Q

Definition: Organelle

A

A specialized structure within a cell that performs specific functions

239
Q

What is the purpose of the important macromolecule found in the nucleus?

A

The purpose of DNA is to carry the genetic information of organisms

240
Q

Definition: Nucleoplasm

A

The gel-like substance within the nucleus that contains chromatin and other nuclear components

241
Q

Definition: Nuclear Matrix

A

A network of proteins that provides structural support to the nucleus and organises the chromatin

242
Q

Definition: Nucleolus

A

A dense region within the nucleus where ribosomal RNA (RNA) is synthesised and ribosome assembly begins

243
Q

Definition: Nuclear Envelope

A

A double membrane that surrounds the nucleus, separating it from the cytoplasm

244
Q

Definition: Nuclear Pore Complex

A

<b><span>Protein channels embedded in the nuclear envelope that regulate the passage of molecules between the nucleus and the cytoplasm</span></b>

245
Q

Function: Nucleus

A

Stores the cell’s hereditary material and co-ordinates the cell’s activities

246
Q

What is the endoplasmic reticulum made of?

A

<b><span>A complex system of channels and sacs composed of membranes enclosing a lumen; made up of the rough and smooth ER</span></b>

247
Q

What are the 2 types of endoplasmic reticulum and what are their functions?

A

<b><span>Smooth and rough; smooth is used for the creation/storage of lipids and steroids, while rough is used for the synthesis of various proteins</span></b>

248
Q

What unique fact about ribosomes allows antibiotics to help fight infection and not kill the host cells?

A

<b><div><span>Ribosomes of eukaryotes are structurally different from bacterial ribosomes</span></div></b><br></br>

249
Q

What are the two parts of a ribosome called?

A

The large subunit and the small subunit

250
Q

Definition: Endomembrane system

A

Group of interconnected organelles in a eukaryotic cell that modify, package and transport lipids and proteins. Involved in processes like synthesis, transport, and recycling cellular materials

251
Q

What is the general type of enzyme found in lysosomes? What do they catalyze?

A

Hydrolytic enzymes; these enzymes catalyze hydrolysis of macromolecules into smaller molecules, and allow for digestion of these macromolecules<br></br>

252
Q

Definition: Peroxisomes

A

Membrane-enclosed sacs that contain enzymes. They break down biological molecules and some toxic molecules

253
Q

What type of enzymes are found in peroxisomes? What is their function?

A

The enzymes found in peroxisomes are known as oxidases; they catalyze redox reactions. They also contain catalase which breaks down H2O2, a common product of reactions in peroxisomes, into water and oxygen gas

254
Q

Definition: Photosynthesis

A

The process by which green plants and some other organisms convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose and oxygen through the use of light energy

255
Q

What are the two sequential processes of photosynthesis?

A

the light reactions and carbon fixation

256
Q

What are the 3 parts of the light reactions?

A

photoexcitation, electron transport, and chemiosmosis

257
Q

Electrons in chlorophyll molecules are initially at __?

A

ground state

258
Q

Definition: Photosystem

A

A cluster of chlorophyll molecules associated with proteins that absorb light inside of chloroplasts

259
Q

Definition: Antenna complex

A

An array of protein and chlorophyll molecules that gather light energy

260
Q

Definition: Reaction centre

A

A complex that initiates the light reactions

261
Q

Definition: Primary electron acceptor

A

A molecule in the thylakoid membrane that traps a high energy electron donated from the reaction centre (redox reaction)

262
Q

Describe how photosystems work in detail

A

Pigment molecules known as the antenna complex gather photons and pass them to the reaction centre, which donates its excited electron to a primary electron acceptor

263
Q

How many photosystems do chloroplasts in plants and algae have?

A

2

264
Q

Describe photosystem I

A

Contains a specialized molecule known as P700 since it best absorbs light with an average wavelength of 700 nm

265
Q

Describe photosystem II

A

Contains a specialized molecule known as P680 since it best absorbs light with an average wavelength of 680 nm

266
Q

Where does cyclic photophosphorylation take place?

A

photosystem I

267
Q

What is the purpose of cyclic phosphorylation?

A

Allows chloroplasts to make more ATP to drive the light-independent reactions

268
Q

What is the Calvin cycle?

A

When chemical energy captured in ATP and NADPH is used to “fix” carbon dioxide in the light-independent reactions

269
Q

CO2 is fixed into a ___?

A

3 carbon sugar

270
Q

Calvin cycle also referred to as __?

A

C3 photosynthesis

271
Q

What enzyme catalyzes the calvin cycle?

A

ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate carboxylase (rubisco)

272
Q

What is the importance of the Calvin cycle?

A

Removes 200 billion tons of CO2 from the air every year

273
Q

Where does the Calvin cycle occur?

A

Stroma

274
Q

ATP and NADPH from light reaction used to reduce __ into __ molecules

A

CO2, carbohydrate

275
Q

What are the 3 stages of the Calvin cycle?

A

carbon fixation, reduction reactions, Ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate (RuBP) regeneration

276
Q

Describe phase 1 of the Calvin cycle in detail

A

CO2 joins to RuBP (5C) to form a 6C intermediate. This reaction is catalyzed by rubisco. Intermiediate 6C molecule immediately splits into 3C molecules called PGA (3-phosphoglycerate). This reaction occurs 3 times, therefore 3 CO2 are used and 6 PGA are produced.

277
Q

Describe phase 2 of the Calvin cycle in detail

A

6 PGA molecules are phosphorylated by ATP to produce 6 molecules of 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate. 6 1,3 BPG are then reduced by NADPH to produce 6 G3P (a sugar). One G3P exits the cycle as a final product and the remaining 5 are used in RuBP regeneration. G3P that exited is used to synthesize larger sugars.

278
Q

Describe phase 3 of the Calvin cycle in detail

A

5 G3P are rearranged to form 3 molecules of RuBP. 3 ATP are used in this process. The RuBP is now available to join with the next CO2 in the next cycle.

279
Q

What would happen to Co2 and O2 levels if a plant was enclosed in a sealed container, and a light was switched on?

A

CO2 falls as it is consumed by photosynthesis, and O2 increases as it is made.

280
Q

What would happen to Co2 and O2 levels if a plant was enclosed in a sealed container, and no light was present?

A

No photosynthesis occurs, but CO2 increases while O2 decreases due to respiration

281
Q

As light intensity increases, the rate of ___ increases to a maximum

A

photosynthesis

282
Q

What resources that benefit us are products of photosynthesis?

A

Food and fossil fuels

283
Q

What is chlorophyll a’s R group?

A

-CH3

284
Q

What is chlorophyll b’s R group?

A

-COH

285
Q

Definition: Porphyrin ring

A

Mg ion in centre, surrounded by hydrocarbon ring. This ring contains the electrons that absorb light energy.

286
Q

Definition: Phytol chain

A

Hydrocarbon tail anchors the molecule to a membrane

287
Q

What were the first organisms to use sunlight in the production of organic compounds from water and CO2?

A

Cyanobacteria

288
Q

Cyanobacteria contain chlorophyll _ to carry out photosynthesis

A

a

289
Q

Cyanobacteria contain d: photosynthetic pigments called __

A

phycobilins

290
Q

What are the prokaryotic autotrophs?

A

Cyanobacteria

291
Q

What are the eukaryotic autotrophs?

A

Algae, protists and plants

292
Q

Definition: Cuticle

A

Water resistant and protective wax on a leaf

293
Q

Definition: Upper epidermis

A

Single layer of cells containing few or no cloroplasts, allow light to pass to mesophyll

294
Q

Definition: Palisade mesophyll cell

A

Cells with abundant chloroplasts, location of most photosynthesis

295
Q

Definition: Guard cells

A

Create openings called stomata

296
Q

Definition: Stomata

A

Regulate exchange of CO2 and O2, allow water to escape by transpiration

297
Q

Definition: Transpiration

A

The evaporation of water from leaves

298
Q

Definition: Transpiration pull

A

A force that helps to move water, minerals and other substances upward

299
Q

Size and shape of guard cell changes with __

A

water concentration

300
Q

In the morning, what does blue light do?

A

Activates receptors in guard cell membranes that stimulate proton pumps to actively drive protons out of guard cells. Establishes an H+ ion gradient, which causes K+ ions to diffuse into the guard cells. Water follows by osmsis, and guard cells swell and open.

301
Q

Stomata are usually closed during the __

A

night

302
Q

Process of stomata closing is regulated by __?

A

A decrease in sucrose in guard cells

303
Q

When K+ ions diffuse into the guard cells, what happens?

A

Water also moves in by osmosis and the guard cells swell, causing stomata to open. 

304
Q

Stomata are usually open during the __?

A

day

305
Q

Why should stomata be open during the day?

A

To make CO2 available at same time as sunlight for photosynthesis

306
Q

Definition: Stroma

A

Protein-rich semiliquid material in the interior of chloroplast

307
Q

Definition: Lamellae

A

Unstacked thylakoids between grana

308
Q

Definition: Thylakoid

A

Membrane-bound, flattened sacs that stack to form grana

309
Q

Where is chlorophyll embedded?

A

Thylakoid membrane

310
Q

What is the name of the technique used to separate pigment compounds in leaves?

A

Paper chromatography

311
Q

Why do leaves change colour in the fall?

A

There is less light and water in the fall, which trigger guard cells to close stomata (stops gas exchange). Plant can not go through photosynthesis, and chlorophyll breaks down

312
Q

Formula: Photosynthesis

A

6CO2 + 6H2O + light energy -> C6H12O6 + 6O2

313
Q

What wavelengths of light is maximally absorbed by chlorphyll a?

A

Purple and red

314
Q

What wavelengths of light is maximally absorbed by chlorphyll b?

A

Blue and orange

315
Q

What wavelengths of light is not absorbed by neither chlorphyll a nor b?

A

green

316
Q

Why do plants appear to be green?

A

The chlorphyll can’t absorb green wavelengths

317
Q

Define: Bundle-sheath cell

A

A leaf cell type that forms a tightly packed layer surrounding the veins 

318
Q

Definition: Xylem

A

Transports water and water-soluble nutrients

319
Q

Definition: Phloem

A

Transports sugars, proteins, and other organic molecules

320
Q

How might transpiration be harmful to a plant?

A

If water loss exceeds water intake, the plant will become dehydrated

321
Q

How might transpiration be helpful to a plant?

A

Produces an evaporative cooling effect that prevents overheating and helps to move water, minerals and other substances upwards

322
Q

Where is ADP phosphorylated in photosynthesis?

A

Stroma

323
Q

What creates the proton gradient in photosynthesis?

A

b6f complex and the splitting of H2O

324
Q

__ is the final electron acceptor in photosynthesis, it is reduced to __

A

NADP+, NADPH

325
Q

For every two electrons that pass through the electron transport chain in photosynthesis, __ NADH and __ ATP are made by __

A

1, 1, ATP synthase

326
Q

NADPH and ATP are used in light-independent reactions to fix __ into __

A

CO2, glucose

327
Q

6 turns of the Calvin cycle needed to make __ glucose molecule

A

1

328
Q

Definition: Photorespiration

A

The reaction of oxygen with ribulose 15-bisphosphate in a process that reverses fixation and reduces the efficiency of photosynthesis

329
Q

What enzyme is involved in photorespiration?

A

rubisco

330
Q

Describe the consequence of photorespiration in terms of photsynthetic efficiency in plants

A

all of the energy used to regenerate the ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate is wasted, thus reducing the efficiency of photosynthesis

331
Q

C4 plants separate the initial uptake of __ from the __ into different __

A

CO2, Calvin cycle, types of cells

332
Q

What happens in the mesophyll cells in C4 photosynthesis? What is the product of carbon fixation?

A

CO2 is added to phosphoenolpyruvate (C3) to create oxaloacetate (C4) which gives the plants their name. The oxaloacetate is converted into malate and transported into the bundle-sheath cells. There, the malate is decarboxylated, resulting in pyruvate, which is transported back into the mesophyll cells and converted into PEP. The CO2 released from this decarboxylation goes into the Calvin cycle, and it is the final product.

333
Q

What is the role of bundle-sheath cells? How do they help to limit the degree of photorespiration?

A

They are impermeable to gases and have high concentrations of CO2, meaning that photorespiration does not occur

334
Q

Describe the temporal adaptations in CAM plants and how the stomata are involved?

A

CO2 fixation is separated from the Calvin cycle by time of day. CAM plants thrive in hot, arid desert conditions. To prevent water loss, their stomata remain closed during the day and open at night. CO2 is fixed at night while the stomata are open. The reactions proceed until malate is formed, and then it is stored in a large vacuole until daytime, when the stomata close. When the light-dependent reacyions have produced enough ATP and NADPH to support the Calvin cycle, the malate exits the vacuole and is decarboxylated, freeing the CO2 which is then fixed again by rubisco and enters the Calvin cycle.

335
Q

Definition: Photophosphorylation

A

The conversion of ADP to ATP using solar energy

336
Q

What is created by photorespiration?

A

Phosphoglycolate and 3-phosphoglycerate

337
Q

Fully explain Friedrich Miescher’s findings

A

Isolated nucleic acids from the nuclei of white blood cells obtained from pus-soaked bandages. Called this DNA “nuclein.” First person to discover DNA!

338
Q

Fully explain Frederick Griffith’s findings Studied Streptococcus pneumoniae bacteria in mice. He used two strains: the pathogenic S-strain and the non-pathogenic r-strain. He injected mice with a combination of heat-killed S-strain and live R-strain. He discovered that the R-strain became pathogenic when exposed to the heat-killed S-strain

A

suggesting that somehow

genetic information was being transferred between the two strains.

339
Q

Fully explain Oswald Avery’s findings Avery and his colleagues prepared identical extracts of the heat-killed S-strain

A

disrupted their cell membranes

and collected the contents of the cells. Then

one of three enzymes was added to each extract (either a protein-destroying enzyme

an rna-destroying enzyme

and a dna-destroying enzyme). Each-enzyme treated extract was then mixed with R-strain cells. The only extract that did not transform the R-strain cells into pathogenic S-strain cells was the extract exposed to the DNA-destroying enzyme. Also figured out how to isolate DNA.

340
Q

Fully explain Rosalind Franklin’s findings Used X-ray diffraction to examine DNA fibers. She captured high-resolution images of DNA’s structure

A

particularly focusing on the helical shape of DNA. Her findings revealed that DNA is a double helix

with two strands cpiled around each other. Her data proved essential information for understanding DNA’s structure before Watson and Crick stole it.

341
Q

Fully explain Martha Chase’s and Alfred Hershey’s findings Used bacteriophages

A

specifically T2 phages

to study whether DNA or protein was the genetic material transferred during viral infection. They labeled viral DNA with radioactive phosphorus and viral protein with sulfur to track the transfer to bacteria. After using a blender and centrifugation

it was evident that the bacteria was not radioactive when viral protein was cultured with bacteria

but it was when viral DNA was cultured with bacteria

meaning DNA was the genetic material.

342
Q

Fully explain Francis Crick’s and James Watson’s findings Using Rosalind Franklin’s work

A

Watson and Crick built a 3D model of DNA’s structure. Their model proposed that DNA is made of two strands forming a double helix

with nitrogenous bases pairing specifically. They also wrote a paper on how DNA could replicate

revolutionizing molecular biology.

343
Q

Fully explain Matthew Meselson’s and Franklin Stahl’s findings Used E. coli bacteria grown in media with heavy nitrogen isotopes (N15) and light nitrogen (N14) to distinguish between parent and daughter strands. Grew bacteria in a liquid culture containing N15 and checked its density

A

noting that it was uniform. After one round of replication in the N14 media

the conservative model of replication was ruled out because all DNA’s density was midway between N14 DNA and N15 DNA (there was a single band after centrifugation). After a second round of replication

the DNA separated into two bands

N14 density and N15 density

proving dispersive wrong as only one band would have ever been observed.

344
Q

Fully explain Craig Venter’s findings Led the sequencing of the human genome

A

mapping the entire human genome identifying every gene and their functions

345
Q

Fully explain Francis Collin’s findings Directed the Human Genome Project

A

using sequencing technologies to map all 20

000-25

000 human genes. The completion of the Human Genome Project revealed the full sequence of human DNA

providing insights into human genetics

disease

and potential treatments through genomics.

346
Q

What is Chargaff’s Rule Erwin Chargaff determined that the amount of adenine in DNA is always equal to the amount of thymine

A

and the amount of guanine is always equal to the amount of cytosine

347
Q

What word describes the directionality of the sugar-phosphate backbones? Antiparallel

A
348
Q

The 3’ end terminates with __? a hydroxyl group

A
349
Q

The 5’ end terminates with __? a phosphate group

A
350
Q

Definition: Genes The functional unit of DNA. They code for the production of specific proteins or RNA. 

A
351
Q

What is non-coding DNA? A large percentage of the DNA of an organism which regulate gene expression instead of coding for the synthesis of proteins or RNA.

A
352
Q

Where is eukaryotic DNA contained? The nucleus

A

and a little bit is in chloroplasts and mitochondria

353
Q

Where is prokaryotic DNA contained? The nucleoid region of the cytosol of the bacteria

A

which has no nuclear membrane

354
Q

How does DNA coil? It wraps around proteins called histones to form nucleosomes

A

which coil into chromatin fibers before packing together to form chromosomes.

355
Q

Definition: Supercoiling The condensing of loop-like structures of DNA controlled by topoisomerase I and II

A
356
Q

Definition: Plasmid A non-nucleoid structure that carries extra genetic information. Very important tool in biotechnology as it is used for the genetic modification of organisms

A
357
Q

“Which model of replication is this?<br></br><img src=”“paste-54d38c6618818685b85869557ac80d75aa85386c.jpg””>” Conservative

A
358
Q

“Which model of replication is this?<br></br><img src=”“paste-f2732c2cd47dfb83f1edfcb1c0ba19a8d4440844.jpg””>” Semi-conservative

A
359
Q

“Which model of replication is this?<br></br><img src=”“paste-0ef00398c5ee1cb0dd18945a750b92377f85986f.jpg””>” Dispersive

A
360
Q

When does DNA replication take place? During the S (synthesis) phase of the cell cycle

A
361
Q

Why does cell replication take place? It is crucial for cell division

A

ensuring that each daughter cell receives a complete set of the original parental genome

362
Q

What are the three stages in the replication process? Initiation

A

elongation and termination

363
Q

Definition: Initation stage Helix is unwound to exposes bases for new base pairing

A
364
Q

Definition: Elongation stage (transcription) New strands are assmbled using parental DNA as template

A
365
Q

Definition: Termination stage (transcription) Process stops and new DNA molecules coil into their double helix forms before separating. The replication machine is dismantled.

A
366
Q

Function: DNA Helicase Unwinds the double helix by breaking the hydrogen bonds. Starts at a specific nucleotide sequence called the origin of replication. A replication fork and bubble is formed.

A
367
Q

Function: DNA Gyrase Assists initation by making sure twists and knots don’t form ahead of the replication bubble. Helps to relieve strain at the replication fork.

A
368
Q

Function: Single stranded binding proteins Keep DNA template strands separated

A
369
Q

Definition: Topioisomerase Reesolve tenisions such as supercoiling ahead of the replication bubble by introducing cuts in DNA strands.

A
370
Q

Function: DNA Polymerase III Catalyzes the addition of new nucleotides at the 3’ end of a growing polynucleotide strand. Can reverse and replace nucleotides during replication.

A
371
Q

What is used to power DNA synthesis? The cleavage of two phosphates from a nucleoside triphosphate

A
372
Q

What direction are DNA strands synthesized in? 5’ to 3’

A
373
Q

Why must DNA be primed? DNA Polymerase III attaches nucleotides to free 3’ hydroxyl ends

A

which are not exposed after DNA is unwound.

374
Q

Function: Primase Creates an RNA Primer

A
375
Q

Function: RNA Primer Serves as a starting point for the addition of nucleotides because it ends with a 3’ hydroxyl group

A
376
Q

Definition: Leading strand Strand that is synthesized toward the replication fork. Formed continuously from the 3’ end of the parent strand

A
377
Q

Definition: Lagging strand Strand that is synthesized away from the replication fork. Formed discontinuously (in segments) from 5’ end. Creates Okazaki fragments

A

each beginning with an RNA primer.

378
Q

Definition: Okazaki fragments Short DNA fragments generated during the synthesis of the lagging strand in DNA replication.

A
379
Q

Function: DNA Polymerase I  Removes RNA primer and fills gaps between Ozakazi fragments on the lagging strand. It also proofreads. 

A
380
Q

Function: DNA Ligase Catalyzes the joining of Okazaki fragments to avoid gaps

A
381
Q

Definition: Replication machine Protein-DNA complex at each fork

A
382
Q

Function: DNA Polymerase II Proofreads newly synthesized DNA

A
383
Q

Definition: Mismatch repair A mechanism for repairing errors made during DNA replication

A

whereby a group of proteins recognize a mispaired nucleotide on the newly synthesized strand and replace it with a correctly paired nucleotide

384
Q

Definition: Telomere A repetitive section of DNA near each end of a chromosome. Helps to prevent the loss of important genetic information during replication.

A
385
Q

Why is information lost during DNA replication in eukaryotes and not prokaryotes? In eukaryotes

A

when the final RNA primer added closest to the 5’ end of the lagging strand is removed

there is no DNA or primer following it to provide a 3’ end

meaning the primer and any DNA that comes after it can not be synthesized into DNA/replicated and are lost. Prokaryotic DNA replication is circular

not linear

and as such every primer is in between two other primers

guaranteeing no information is lost.

386
Q

Function: Telomerase Synthesizes telomeric regions and can replace lost sequences

A
387
Q

Definition: Gene expression The transfer of genetic information in a cell that results in protein synthesis

A
388
Q

What is often called the central dogma of genetics? The theory that genetic information flows from DNA to RNA to protein

A
389
Q

What are the two phases of protein synthesis? Transcription and translation

A
390
Q

Where does transcription occur? In the nucleus

A
391
Q

Where does translation occur? In the cytoplasm at a ribosome

A
392
Q

What did Beadle and Tatum determine in 1941? They determined that one gene codes for a specific polypeptide. This is known as the one gene/one polypeptide hypothesis.

A
393
Q

Definition: Transcription Synthesis of RNA molecule from DNA template

A
394
Q

Why is transcription necessary? DNA cannot leave the nucleus

A
395
Q

Definition: Messenger RNA (mRNA) A copy of the DNA that can leave the nucleus 

A
396
Q

What are the four steps of transcription? Initiation

A

elongation

termination

and processing (post-transcription modification)

397
Q

Definition: Promoter “A series of nucleotides with a high concentration of adenine and thymine bases adjacent to the start of the of the gene

A

on the coding strand. It orients RNA polymerase on the right strand

and DNA begins to be opened at the promoter. ““TATA box.”””

398
Q

Definition: Transcription factors A set of proteins required for initiation of transcription; it is required for the RNA polymerase complex to bind to the promoter

A
399
Q

Definition: Template strand Antisense strand

A

the strand with the gene to be transcribed

400
Q

Definition: Sense strand Coding strand

A

not copied

401
Q

Explain the elongation step of transcription RNA polymerase brings RNA nucleotides to the template strand

A

following complementary base pairing rules but replacing thymine with uracil for mRNA

402
Q

Is the promoter region transcribed? No

A
403
Q

How many primers are needed for the elongation step of transcription? None

A
404
Q

What direction does RNA polymerase read the DNA template strand? 3’ to 5’

A
405
Q

What direction does RNA polymerase build the mRNA? 5’ to 3’

A
406
Q

Definition: Terminator A sequence of nucleotides that mark the end of a gene

A

which cease transcription and release mRNA when RNA polymerase reaches it 

407
Q

Definition: Precursor mRNA mRNA that requires processing before translation occurs

A
408
Q

Definition: Mature mRNA mRNA that has been processed

A

with spliced exons

a 5’ cap and a 3’ poly-A tail

409
Q

Definition: 5’ cap A modified guanine nucleotide added to the 5’ end of mRNA. It is recognized by protein synthesis machinery

A
410
Q

Definition: 3’ poly-A tail A series of adenine nucleotides linked to the 3’ end of mRNA. Makes it stable so it can exist longer in cytoplasm.

A
411
Q

Definition: Introns Sections of mRNA that do not contain information needed to build the protein. They are extras and must be removed before the protein can be built.

A
412
Q

Definition: Exons Sections of mRNA that contain the protein recipe and are joined to form the finished or mature mRNA. This process is called splicing

A

carried out by a spliceosome complex

413
Q

Definition: Splicing The process by which introns are removed from precursor mRNA

A
414
Q

Definition: Spliceosome complex A large ribonucleoprotein that carries out splicing

A
415
Q

How does mRNA modification work in prokaryotes? There is none

A

as transcription and translation can occur simultaneously in prokaryotic cells (no nucleus) meaning mRNA can be used in protein synthesis as soon as it is made

416
Q

Function: RNA Polymerase Synthesizes mRNA by following a strand of DNA during transcription

A
417
Q

Definition: Gene A distinct sequence of nucleotides forming part of a chromosome

A

the order of which determines the order of monomers in a polypeptide

418
Q

Definition: Alternative splicing The process by which only certain exons are spliced together

A

allowing a gene to code for more than one type of polypeptide. As a result

certain cell types are able to produce forms of a protein that are specific for that cell.

419
Q

What are the three important characteristics of genetic code and what do they mean? Redundancy (more than one codon can code for the same amino acid

A

protecting us from mutations)

continuity (genetic code is read as a series of three-letter codons)

and universality (almost all organisms build the same proteins with the same genetic code)

420
Q

How many amino acids are there? 20

A
421
Q

Definition: Codon A series of three nucleotides that correspond to specific amino acids

A
422
Q

Definition: Transfer RNA (tRNA) RNA that brings amino acids to the ribosomes and contains an anticodon with the three opposite nucleotides from the amino acid it carries

A
423
Q

How are ribosomes involved in translation? They are the site of protein synthesis

A
424
Q

What are ribosomes made of? Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) and proteins

A
425
Q

Definition: Translation factors Proteins that assist with translation

A
426
Q

What is the structure of transfer RNA? One end contains an anticodon loop

A

a 3’ to 5’ sequence of nucleotides that is complementary to a specific 5’ to 3’ mRNA codon. The opposite has an acceptor stem with an attached amino acid

complementary to the anticodon.

427
Q

What enzyme attaches amino acids to transfer RNA molecules? Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase

A
428
Q

What are the four binding sites on ribosomes? P (peptide)

A

A (amino acid)

E (exit)

and mRNA binding site

429
Q

Name the three steps in the translation process Initiation

A

elongation

termination

430
Q

Explain the initiation phase of translation The small ribosomal subunit binds to the mRNA and moves across the transcript until it reaches the start codon AUG. The initiator tRNA with its UAC anticodon binds to the mRNA. Large subunit joins

A

forming the active ribosome. The ribosome moves forward one codon at a time. The initiator tRNA occupies the P site.

431
Q

Explain the elongation phase of translation A second tRNA brings the second amino acid to the ribosome and enters the A site. A peptite bond is formed by a condensation reaction. Peptidyl transferase enzyme

A

found in the large subunit

catalyzes the synthesis. The ribosome moves over by one mRNA codon. The new polypeptide chain moves to the P site (emerges from the ribosome). The empty tRNA exits from the E site. Process is repeated rapidly.

432
Q

Explain the termination phase of translation The process continues until the stop codon on the mRNA is reached. A protein called a release factor cleaves the newly synthesized polypeptide from the last tRNA.

A
433
Q

How many different codons are there? 64

A
434
Q

What direction is mRNA read in? 5’ to 3’

A
435
Q

What direction is tRNA read in? 3’ to 5’

A
436
Q

Definition: Mutation Any change to DNA

A

can affect how genes code for proteins

437
Q

What are the three major types of mutations? Point mutations

A

frameshift mutations

and chromosomal mutations

438
Q

Definition: Point mutation A mutation that involves a single change in the DNA nucleotide sequence. The change occurs when 1 base is substituted for another base.  

A
439
Q

Definition: Silent mutation A mutation that has no effect on the amino acid sequence

A
440
Q

Definition: Missense mutation A mutation that changes the amino acid sequence

A
441
Q

Definition: Nonsense mutation A mutation that creates a premature stop codon

A
442
Q

Definition: Frameshift mutation Mutations that cause the reading frame of the codons to shift because of the addition or deletion of one or more nucleotides. Usually renders the protein nonfunctional.

A
443
Q

What are the four types of chromosomal mutations? Deletion

A

duplication

inversion

translocation

444
Q

Definition: Deletion mutation Loss of part of the chromosome

A
445
Q

Definition: Duplication mutation Extra copy made of part of the chromosome

A
446
Q

Definition: Inversion mutation Reverses direction of part of the chromosome

A
447
Q

Definition: Translocation mutation Part of one chromosome attaches to another chromosome

A
448
Q

What are some alternative ways mutations affect proteins besides determining the protein itself? Where and how much of a protein is made

A

and when a protein is made

449
Q

<b><span>What are the roles of histones and methylation in regulating gene expression?</span></b>” “<b><span>Histones modulate chromatin structure through chemical modifications while DNA methylation serves as a heritable mechanism for silencing genes </span></b>

A
450
Q

<b><span>What is an epigenetic tag?</span></b>” “<b><span>Epigenetic tags are heritable alterations that are not due to changes in the DNA sequence. Epigenetic tags such as DNA methylation and histone modification alter DNA accessibility and chromatin structure, regulating patterns of gene expression.</span></b>

A
451
Q

<b><span>What are imprinted genes?</span></b>” “<b><span>Imprinted genes are an epigenetic phenomenon that cause genes to be expressed or not, depending on whether they are inherited from the male or female parent. Imprinted genes mean either the dad’s or the mom’s copy of a gene will be epigenetically silenced.</span></b>

A
452
Q

<b><span>What are some environmental factors that can impact the epigenome?</span></b>” “<b><span>Stress, diet, activity level</span></b>

A
453
Q

What are two different ways that changes in the epigenome can lead to cancer? “<b><span style=”“font-weight: 400;”“>Some genes have higher methylation levels (less active DNA)</b>

A

and some have lower levels (more active DNA). </span></b>Higher methylation levels can silence genes that keep growth in check

repair damaged DNA

and initiate programmed cell death. Lower methylation levels can activate genes that promote cell growth

it is more likely to be duplicated

deleted

and moved to other locations

and causes a loss of imprinting which can lead to two active or two inactive copies of a gene that should be imprinted.”

454
Q

What is epigenome reprogramming? Reprogramming is the process by which epigenetic tags are erased from reproductive cells so that the fetus’s cells can specialize into any type of cell.

A
455
Q

“<b><span style=”“font-weight: 400;”“>Summarize the challenges researchers face in trying to prove epigenetic inheritance.</span></b>” Inherited traits can occur from epigenetic inheritance

A

but also from extremely small mutations. It is very difficult to pinpoint these mutations

so the origin of such traits can not be proven. Additionally

when a woman is pregnant

the fetus

the mom

and the fetus’s reproductive cells are all exposed to the same environment. This means three generations may receive epigenetic tags directly. In order to prove actual inheritance

traits must carry on from the first generation to the fourth.

456
Q

“<b><span style=”“font-weight: 400;”“>Summarize some possible implications of epigenetic inheritance on evolution.</span></b>” Evolution is known to be slow

A

with mutations and natural selection taking an extremely long time to drastically change a species. However

the epigenome can change rapidly and these rapid changes can be inherited by future generations

essentially “evolving” their epigenome much quicker than evolution that involves DNA alteration.

457
Q

Definition: Gene regulation The control of the level of gene expression in response to different conditions in the cell

A
458
Q

Definition: Constitutive genes Genes that must be expressed all of the time and are involved in vital biochemical processes such as respiration

A
459
Q

What are the three levels that gene regulation occurs at in prokaryotes? During transcription

A

during translation

and after protein synthesis

460
Q

Definition: Operon A cluster of genes grouped together under the control of a single promoter in prokaryotic genomes

A
461
Q

What is the lac operon? A cluster of three genes each involved in processing the sugar lactose

A
462
Q

What sugar do bacteria with the lac operon prefer? Glucose

A
463
Q

Definition: Operator A special DNA sequence that a repressor binds to to prevent transcription

A
464
Q

Definition: Repressor protein Prevents transcription by binding to the operator to block RNA polymerase.

A
465
Q

Definition: Activator protein A protein that increases transcription of a gene or a set of genes. It assists RNA polymerase.

A
466
Q

Describe the events that occur when (-GLUCOSE

A

-LACTOSE) A repressor protein is continuously synthesized from a regulatory gene. It binds to and sits on the operator site

which is right in front of the lac operon. The repressor protein blocks the promoter site where the RNA polymerase settles so transcription does not occur.

467
Q

Describe the events that occur when (-GLUCOSE

A

+LACTOSE) A derivative of lactose called allolactose is formed within the bacerial cell. This fits onto the repressor protein at an allosteric site. This causes the repressor protein to change its shape. It can no longer sit on the operator site. RNA polymerase can now reach its promoter site and genes are transcribed. An activator protein stabilizes RNA polymerase. The activator protein only works when glucose is absent. 

468
Q

Describe the events that occur when (+GLUCOSE

A

+LACTOSE) RNA polymerase can sit on the promoter site after allolactose removes it but it is unstable and it keeps falling off because no activator protein is produced to stabilize RNA polymerase.

469
Q

Definition: Inducible operon Operons that can be turned on 

A
470
Q

Definition: Repressible operon Operons that can be turned off

A
471
Q

Explain the trp operon 5 genes and a regulatory region. Under normal circumstances

A

tryptophan must be created

so the repressor does not bind to the operator. However

when trypotphan reaches a certain level in the cell

it binds to a repressor protein

and this makes it easier for the repressor to bind to the operator

reducing transcription

472
Q

Explain pre-transcriptional and transcriptional control in eukaryotes Altering chromatin structures and loosening nucleosome structures so that proteins can gain access to the DNA

A
473
Q

Definition: Enhancers A DNA sequence that increases the transcription of genes

A
474
Q

Explain post-transcriptional and transational control in eukaryotes Alternative splicing

A

modifications of mRNA that do not include a 5’ cap or a 3’ poly-A tail so that it either degrades in the cell or does not leave the nucleus. Smll RNA molecules control gene expression through RNA interference

which inhibit gene expression by degrading mRNA or inhibiting translation by forming base pairs with mRNA.

475
Q

Explain post-translational control in eukaryotes Many polypeptides that are synthesized in eukaryotic cells are not active immediately after synthesis. Activating them requires different modifications

A

for example insulin unfolding. Additionally

regulating how long a protein is available in the cell is a form of gene regulation. Adding a chain of ubiquitin molecules to a protein acts as a signal for the protein to be degraded.

476
Q

Definition: Physical mutagen Physical agents such as radiation or heat

A

that cause damage to DNA by inducing structural changes.

477
Q

Definition: Chemical mutagen Chemical substances that alter DNA by interacting directly with its bases or by inducing replication errors

A
478
Q

Definition: Mutagen An event or substance that increases the rate of changes to the DNA sequence of an organism’s genome

A
479
Q

Definition: Transposon A short segment of DNA capable of moving within the genome of an organism; also called a jumping gene

A
480
Q

Definition: Photorepair A specific mechanism for repairing the thymine dimer structures.

A
481
Q

Definition: Thymine dimer A structure that is created when two adjacent thymines covalently link together because of UV radiation.

A
482
Q

Definition: Excision repair A non-specific repair mechanism that involves removing a damaged region of DNA and replacing it with the correct sequence. 

A
483
Q

Definition: Recombinant DNA A molecule of DNA that contains nucleotides from different sources

A
484
Q

Definition: Exogenous Originating from outside of a specific organism

A
485
Q

Definition: Restriction Endonucleases Cleaves DNA at specific sequences

A

found in bacteria

486
Q

Definition: Methylases Enzymes that add methyl groups to specific DNA sites

A

which prevent restriction enzymes from cutting the DNA

487
Q

How is DNA Ligase used in biotechnology? Used for gluing cut strands of DNA together

A

and it is isolated from a bacteriophage

488
Q

What is gel electorphoresis? An electric current is used to separate DNA fragments according to their size. The negatively charged DNA fragments move to the positive side of the gel

A

and the smaller fragments move faster. A unique pattern is created which is used to analyze DNA and create a profile.

489
Q

How does gene cloning work? Bacterial cells are mixed with a recombinant plasmid DNA

A

and a large amount of identical bacteria can be produced and studied after the non-modified bacteria die

490
Q

Production site: Adrenocorticotropic hormone anterior pituitary gland

A
491
Q

Target organ: Adrenocorticotropic hormone adrenal cortex

A
492
Q

Effect: Adrenocorticotropic hormone “<b><span style=”“font-weight: 400;”“>Acts on the adrenals to produce cortisol and aldosterone. Cortisol raises blood sugar levels by releasing stored glucose</b>

A

and aldosterone increases blood pressure by increase salt absorption of the kidneys into blood which in turn makes them absorb more water</span></b>”

493
Q

“Production site: <b><span style=”“font-weight: 400;”“>Thyroid-stimulating hormone</span></b>” Anterior pituitary gland

A
494
Q

“Target organ: <b><span style=”“font-weight: 400;”“>Thyroid-stimulating hormone</span></b>” Thyroid

A
495
Q

<b><span>Effect: Thyroid-stimulating hormone</span></b>” “<b><span>Stimulates the thyroid to increase the uptake of iodine from the blood to make thyroxine which controls metabolism and turns off tsh production which stops making too much thyroxine. </span></b>

A
496
Q

“Production site: <b><span style=”“font-weight: 400;”“>Human growth hormone</span></b>” Anterior pituitary gland

A
497
Q

“Target organ: <b><span style=”“font-weight: 400;”“>Human growth hormone</span></b>” Bones and muscle

A
498
Q

“Effect: <b><span style=”“font-weight: 400;”“>Human growth hormone</span></b>” Increases Ca2 absorption and cell division and protein synthesis and lipid metabolism to grow muscle and bone.

A
499
Q

“Production site: <b><span style=”“font-weight: 400;”“>Follicle-stimulating hormone</span></b>” Anterior pituitary gland

A
500
Q

“Target organ: <b><span style=”“font-weight: 400;”“>Follicle-stimulating hormone</span></b>” Ovaries and testes

A
501
Q

Effect: <b><span>Follicle-stimulating hormone</span></b>” “<b><span>In females, stimulates follicles on the ovary to grow and prepare the eggs for ovulation. In males, stimulates the production of sperm. </span></b>

A
502
Q

“Production site: <b><span style=”“font-weight: 400;”“>Luteinizing hormone</span></b>” Anterior pituitary gland

A
503
Q

“Target organ: <b><span style=”“font-weight: 400;”“>Luteinizing hormone</span></b>” Ovaries and testes

A
504
Q

“Effect: <b><span style=”“font-weight: 400;”“>Luteinizing hormone</span></b>” In females

A

stimulates the production of estrogen and progesterone. In males

stimulates the producton of testosterone.

505
Q

Production site: Prolactin Anterior pituitary gland

A
506
Q

Target organ: Prolactin Mammary glands

A
507
Q

Effect: Prolactin Promotes the growth of mammary alveoli and stimultates production of milk

A
508
Q

Production site: Antiduretic hormone Posterior pituitary

A
509
Q

Target organ: Antidiuretic hormone Kidney tubules

A
510
Q

Effect: Antidiuretic hormone Acts on the kidneys to reabsorb water into the blood

A
511
Q

Production site: Oxytocin Posterior pituitary

A
512
Q

Target organ: Oxytocin Muscles of the mammary glands and uterus

A
513
Q

Effect: Oxytocin Stimulates uterine muscle contractions and the release of milk by the mammary glands

A

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