Braindumps.551-600 Flashcards
A security analyst was asked to evaluate a potential attack that occurred on a publicly accessible section of the company’s website. The malicious actor posted an entry in an attempt to trick users into clicking the following:
https://www.c0mpt1a.com/contact-us/%3Fname%3D%3Cscript%3Ealert(docu…3C%2Fscript%3E
Which of the following was most likely observed?
A. DLL injection
B. Session replay
C. SQLi
D. XSS
D. XSS (Cross-Site Scripting)
Here’s why:
Cross-Site Scripting (XSS): XSS occurs when an attacker injects malicious scripts (such as JavaScript) into web pages viewed by other users. In this case, the malicious actor attempted to inject a script (alert(document.cookie)) into the website's URL parameters (name parameter in the query string). If this script executes when accessed, it could potentially compromise the security of users visiting the website by executing arbitrary JavaScript code in their browsers. Characteristics of XSS: The URL manipulation seen (alert(document.cookie)) is characteristic of a reflected XSS attack, where the injected script is reflected back to the user's browser and executed within the context of the vulnerable web page.
Options like DLL injection (option A), session replay (option B), and SQL injection (option C) do not align with the context of the provided URL and the described attack scenario. DLL injection is a method of injecting malicious DLLs into processes, session replay involves capturing and replaying legitimate session data, and SQL injection involves manipulating SQL queries to execute unauthorized actions on a database.
Therefore, option D (XSS) is the most likely type of attack observed in this scenario where the malicious actor attempted to inject a JavaScript alert into the website’s URL parameters to exploit users accessing that URL.
A company’s Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) recently warned the security manager that the company’s Chief Executive Officer (CEO) is planning to publish a controversial opinion article in a national newspaper, which may result in new cyberattacks. Which of the following would be best for the security manager to use in a threat model?
A. Hacktivists
B. White-hat hackers
C. Script kiddies
D. Insider threats
A. Hacktivists
Here’s why:
Hacktivists: Hacktivists are individuals or groups who use hacking techniques to promote political ends or to advance social causes. They often target organizations or individuals perceived as opposing their beliefs or causes. In this case, if the CEO's article is controversial enough to provoke strong reactions, hacktivists might target the company's systems in retaliation or to make a political statement. Contextual Fit: The CEO's planned publication of a controversial article in a national newspaper suggests potential for ideological disagreement or public outcry, which could attract the attention of hacktivist groups looking to exploit or retaliate against the company's digital infrastructure.
Options like white-hat hackers (option B), who are ethical hackers focused on testing and improving security systems; script kiddies (option C), who are generally inexperienced hackers using pre-written scripts to attack systems; and insider threats (option D), who are employees or insiders with access to sensitive information, are less likely in this context.
Therefore, option A (Hacktivists) is the most appropriate choice for the security manager to consider when assessing potential threats stemming from the CEO’s upcoming publication.
Which of the following provides a catalog of security and privacy controls related to the United States federal information systems?
A. GDPR
B. PCI DSS
C. ISO 27000
D. NIST 800-53
D. NIST 800-53
Here’s why:
NIST 800-53: This publication, titled "Security and Privacy Controls for Federal Information Systems and Organizations," provides a comprehensive catalog of security and privacy controls for U.S. federal information systems. It is developed by the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) and outlines controls that are applicable to federal agencies and organizations handling federal information. GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation): This regulation pertains to data protection and privacy for individuals within the European Union (EU) and European Economic Area (EEA). It does not specifically relate to U.S. federal information systems. PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard): This standard is focused on securing payment card information and is applicable to organizations handling payment card transactions. It does not pertain to U.S. federal information systems. ISO 27000: This family of standards includes ISO 27001, which is a framework for information security management systems (ISMS). While it provides a broad set of controls and guidelines for information security, it is not specific to U.S. federal information systems as outlined in NIST 800-53.
Therefore, option D (NIST 800-53) is the correct answer for a catalog of security and privacy controls related to United States federal information systems.
An analyst is concerned about data leaks and wants to restrict access to internet services to authorized users only. The analyst also wants to control the actions each user can perform on each service. Which of the following would be the best technology for the analyst to consider Implementing?
A. DLP
B. VPC
C. CASB
D. Content filtering
C. CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker)
Here’s why CASB is the most suitable choice:
Access Control: CASB solutions provide granular access control capabilities that allow organizations to enforce policies based on user identity and context. This includes restricting access to internet services to authorized users only, ensuring that only authenticated and authorized users can access specific cloud services. Control over Actions: CASB solutions also offer comprehensive visibility and control over user actions within cloud applications and services. They can enforce policies that dictate what actions users are allowed to perform, such as uploading, downloading, sharing, or editing files within cloud services. Data Leakage Prevention (DLP): While DLP (option A) focuses specifically on preventing unauthorized data exfiltration or leakage, CASB solutions often incorporate DLP capabilities as part of their feature set. This allows them to monitor and control data transfers to and from cloud services, thus addressing the analyst's concerns about data leaks effectively. VPC (Virtual Private Cloud) and content filtering (option B and D) are more focused on network segmentation and controlling internet traffic based on content categories respectively, which do not directly address the requirement of controlling user actions on internet services with granular access control.
Therefore, option C (CASB) is the best technology for the analyst to consider implementing to achieve the goals of restricting access to internet services to authorized users and controlling user actions on each service effectively.
A grocery store is expressing security and reliability concerns regarding the on-site backup strategy currently being performed by locally attached disks. The main concerns are the physical security of the backup media and the durability of the data stored on these devices. Which of the following is a cost-effective approach to address these concerns?
A. Enhance resiliency by adding a hardware RAID.
B. Move data to a tape library and store the tapes off-site.
C. Install a local network-attached storage.
D. Migrate to a cloud backup solution.
D. Migrate to a cloud backup solution.
Explanation:
Cloud backup solution: This addresses both physical security and data durability concerns. Cloud providers often have robust physical security measures and data redundancy built into their infrastructure. Additionally, cloud backups are typically more durable and less prone to physical damage compared to on-site disks or tapes. Cloud storage can also be cost-effective, especially for businesses that do not want to invest in and manage additional hardware. Enhance resiliency by adding a hardware RAID: While RAID can improve data durability by protecting against disk failures, it does not address the physical security concern of having backup media on-site. Move data to a tape library and store the tapes off-site: This can improve physical security and durability, but it involves additional costs for tape management, off-site storage services, and potentially slower recovery times compared to cloud solutions. Install a local network-attached storage: This can improve data durability within the local network but does not fully address physical security concerns since the backup media would still be on-site.
Therefore, migrating to a cloud backup solution (Option D) is the best cost-effective approach that addresses both the physical security and durability of backup data concerns.
A security engineer needs to recommend a solution to defend against malicious actors misusing protocols and being allowed through network defenses. Which of the following will the engineer most likely recommend?
A. A content filter
B. A WAF
C. A next-generation firewall
D. An IDS
C. A next-generation firewall (NGFW)
Explanation:
Next-generation firewall (NGFW): NGFWs combine traditional firewall capabilities with advanced features such as deep packet inspection, intrusion prevention systems (IPS), application awareness and control, and the ability to block malware and exploits at the network level. NGFWs are specifically designed to detect and prevent sophisticated attacks that misuse protocols and get through basic network defenses. Content filter: This primarily focuses on controlling the types of content that can be accessed by users, such as blocking websites with inappropriate material. It does not provide comprehensive protection against protocol misuse by malicious actors. Web Application Firewall (WAF): A WAF is designed to protect web applications by filtering and monitoring HTTP traffic between a web application and the Internet. While it is effective against web-based attacks such as SQL injection and cross-site scripting (XSS), it does not cover all types of protocol misuse across the network. Intrusion Detection System (IDS): An IDS monitors network traffic for suspicious activity and alerts administrators to potential threats. However, it does not actively block malicious traffic or prevent attacks; it only detects and alerts.
Given the requirement to defend against malicious actors misusing protocols and being allowed through network defenses, a next-generation firewall (NGFW) is the most comprehensive and effective solution.
A company’s legal department drafted sensitive documents in a SaaS application and wants to ensure the documents cannot be accessed by individuals in high-risk countries. Which of the following is the most effective way to limit this access?
A. Data masking
B. Encryption
C. Geolocation policy
D. Data sovereignty regulation
C. Geolocation policy
Here’s why:
Geolocation Policy: This policy allows organizations to restrict access based on the geographical location of users. By implementing a geolocation policy, access to sensitive documents can be blocked or restricted from IP addresses originating in high-risk countries or regions identified by the company's legal department. Effectiveness: Geolocation policies are effective because they directly prevent access based on the physical location of the user attempting to access the documents. This helps enforce compliance with legal and regulatory requirements that restrict access to sensitive information from certain jurisdictions.
Data masking (option A) involves obfuscating sensitive data within the application, which may protect against unauthorized access but does not specifically address geographical restrictions.
Encryption (option B) protects data by encoding it in such a way that only authorized parties with the decryption key can access it. While encryption is important for securing data in transit and at rest, it does not inherently prevent access based on geographical location.
Data sovereignty regulation (option D) refers to laws and regulations that dictate how data is stored and managed within specific jurisdictions, but it does not directly control or restrict access based on the geographical location of users.
Therefore, option C (Geolocation policy) is the most effective way to limit access to sensitive documents drafted in a SaaS application by individuals in high-risk countries, aligning with legal and compliance requirements regarding data access restrictions.
An organization suffered numerous multiday power outages at its current location. The Chief Executive Officer wants to create a disaster recovery strategy to resolve this issue. Which of the following options offer low-cost solutions? (Choose two.)
A. Warm site
B. Generator
C. Hot site
D. Cold site
E. Cloud backups
F. UPS
(Community BF 44%, DE 40%)
The question is clearly implying an electricity problem. “The Chief Executive Officer wants to create a disaster recovery strategy to resolve THIS issue” meaning the outage issue.
B. Generator and F. UPS (Uninterruptible Power Supply)
Here’s why these options are cost-effective:
Generator (Option B): A generator can provide backup power during extended power outages. It is a more affordable option compared to maintaining a hot or warm site, which involves duplicating the entire IT infrastructure at a secondary location. Generators can be set up to automatically kick in when main power fails, providing continuous operation until power is restored. UPS (Option F): An Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS) is a device that provides short-term backup power during brief power interruptions or until a generator starts up. UPS units are generally inexpensive compared to setting up a dedicated disaster recovery site (hot or warm site). They ensure that critical systems remain operational during short outages and can bridge the gap until the generator comes online.
Warm site (Option A), hot site (Option C), cold site (Option D), and cloud backups (Option E) are generally more expensive options or involve ongoing operational costs that may exceed the budget constraints for a low-cost solution in this scenario.
Therefore, option B (Generator) and option F (UPS) are the most appropriate low-cost solutions to support the organization’s disaster recovery strategy in response to frequent power outages.
(Brain dump: D. Cold site, E. Cloud backups )
(Community BF 44%, DE 40%)
A security analyst is reviewing the following logs:
[10:00:00 AM] Login rejected - username administrator - password Spring 2023
[10:00:00 AM] Login rejected - username jsmith - password Spring 2023
[10:00:00 AM] Login rejected - username guest - password Spring 2023
[10:00:00 AM] Login rejected - username cpolk - password Spring 2023
[10:00:00 AM] Login rejected - username fmartin - password Spring 2023
Which of the following attacks is most likely occurring?
A. Password spraying
B. Account forgery
C. Pass-the-hash
D. Brute-force
A. Password spraying
Here’s why:
Password Spraying: In a password spraying attack, the attacker tries a few commonly used passwords (in this case, "Spring 2023") against many accounts. This method avoids rapid or frequent login attempts that could trigger account lockouts or detection by intrusion detection systems. Pattern in Logs: The logs show repeated login attempts at the same timestamp with different usernames but the same password. This pattern is typical of a password spraying attack where the attacker is attempting to gain unauthorized access to multiple accounts by guessing a commonly used password.
Account forgery (option B) typically involves creating or manipulating user accounts to gain unauthorized access, which is not evident from the provided logs.
Pass-the-hash (option C) involves an attacker obtaining hashed password values and using them to authenticate without needing to crack the hashes, which is not indicated by the provided logs.
Brute-force (option D) attacks involve systematically trying all possible combinations of passwords until the correct one is found, which would typically result in more varied password attempts rather than using the same password for multiple accounts in quick succession.
Therefore, option A (Password spraying) is the most likely attack occurring based on the information provided in the logs.
A security analyst discovers that one of the web APIs is being abused by an unknown third party. Logs indicate that the third party is attempting to manipulate the parameters being passed to the API endpoint. Which of the following solutions would best help to protect against the attack?
A. DLP
B. SIEM
C. NIDS
D. WAF
D. WAF (Web Application Firewall)
Here’s why:
Parameter Manipulation Protection: A WAF is designed to inspect and filter HTTP/HTTPS requests to a web application or API. It can detect and prevent common attacks such as parameter manipulation, where attackers attempt to modify input parameters to exploit vulnerabilities or gain unauthorized access. Security Controls: WAFs enforce security policies that can block or sanitize incoming requests, ensuring that only valid and expected parameters are accepted by the API endpoint. They can also detect abnormal patterns or anomalies in request parameters that may indicate malicious intent. Focused Protection: While options like DLP (Data Loss Prevention, option A) focus on preventing data leakage and SIEM (Security Information and Event Management, option B) on collecting and analyzing security event logs, they do not specifically address the manipulation of parameters in API requests. NIDS (Network Intrusion Detection System, option C) monitors network traffic for suspicious activities but may not provide the granular protection needed at the application layer.
Therefore, option D (WAF) is the most appropriate solution to help protect against the attack where an unknown third party is manipulating parameters in a web API, providing effective defense at the application layer against such exploits.
An application owner reports suspicious activity on an internal financial application from various internal users
within the past 14 days. A security analyst notices the following:
– Financial transactions were occurring during irregular time frames and outside of business hours by unauthorized users.
– Internal users in question were changing their passwords frequently during that time period.
– A jump box that several domain administrator users use to connect to remote devices was recently compromised.
– The authentication method used in the environment is NTLM.
Which of the following types of attacks is most likely being used to gain unauthorized access?
A. Pass-the-hash
B. Brute-force
C. Directory traversal
D. Replay
A. Pass-the-hash
Here’s why:
Irregular Financial Transactions: Unauthorized users conducting financial transactions outside of regular business hours suggests they have gained access to internal accounts. Frequent Password Changes: Internal users changing their passwords frequently could indicate an attempt to evade detection or mitigate the impact of compromised credentials. Compromised Jump Box: The compromise of a jump box used by domain administrators suggests that attackers may have obtained privileged access, potentially through credential theft or exploitation. Authentication Method (NTLM): NTLM (NT LAN Manager) authentication is vulnerable to pass-the-hash attacks. In this method, attackers capture hashed credentials from compromised systems and use them to authenticate without needing to crack passwords.
Given these indicators, the scenario aligns with the tactics commonly associated with pass-the-hash attacks, where attackers leverage captured hashed credentials (rather than plaintext passwords) to authenticate and gain unauthorized access to systems and applications.
Therefore, option A (Pass-the-hash) is the most likely type of attack being used to gain unauthorized access in this situation.
During an incident, an EDR system detects an increase in the number of encrypted outbound connections from multiple hosts. A firewall is also reporting an increase in outbound connections that use random high ports. An analyst plans to review the correlated logs to find the source of the incident. Which of the following tools will best assist the analyst?
A. A vulnerability scanner
B. A NGFW
C. The Windows Event Viewer
D. A SIEM
D. A SIEM (Security Information and Event Management)
Here’s why:
Centralized Log Management: A SIEM collects and aggregates logs from various sources such as firewalls, EDR systems, servers, and network devices. It provides a centralized platform to correlate events and analyze them in context, which is crucial when investigating incidents that span multiple systems. Correlation and Analysis: SIEM platforms use correlation rules to detect patterns and anomalies across logs. In this case, the SIEM can correlate the logs from the EDR system (detecting encrypted outbound connections) with logs from the firewall (reporting outbound connections on random high ports). This correlation helps identify potential sources and behaviors associated with the incident. Alerting and Reporting: SIEMs provide capabilities for real-time alerting on suspicious activities and generating reports that aid in incident response and forensic analysis.
Options A, B, and C are less suitable in this context:
A. Vulnerability Scanner: Scans and identifies vulnerabilities in systems but does not provide the real-time correlation and analysis needed for incident response. B. NGFW (Next-Generation Firewall): Provides advanced firewall capabilities including monitoring and filtering network traffic but does not typically provide centralized log management or correlation across diverse logs. C. Windows Event Viewer: Provides logs specific to Windows systems but does not aggregate logs from multiple sources or offer the breadth of correlation and analysis capabilities required for cross-platform incident investigation.
Therefore, option D (SIEM) is the best tool to assist the analyst in reviewing correlated logs to identify the source of the incident involving encrypted outbound connections and increased outbound connections on random high ports.
A company recently suffered a breach in which an attacker was able to access the internal mail servers and directly access several user inboxes. A large number of email messages were later posted online. Which of the following would best prevent email contents from being released should another breach occur?
A. Implement S/MIME to encrypt the emails at rest.
B. Enable full disk encryption on the mail servers.
C. Use digital certificates when accessing email via the web.
D. Configure web traffic to only use TLS-enabled channels.
A. Implement S/MIME to encrypt the emails at rest.
Here’s why this option is appropriate:
S/MIME Encryption: S/MIME (Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions) provides end-to-end encryption for emails. This means that emails are encrypted before they leave the sender's mailbox and remain encrypted until they are decrypted by the intended recipient. Encrypting emails at rest ensures that even if attackers gain access to the mail servers and user inboxes, they cannot read the contents of the emails without the decryption keys. Protection of Email Contents: By implementing S/MIME, the company can protect sensitive email contents from unauthorized access, even in the event of a breach where attackers manage to compromise the internal mail servers.
Option B (Enable full disk encryption on the mail servers) is a good security practice for protecting data at rest on the servers themselves, but it does not specifically protect email contents transmitted over the network or stored in user inboxes once decrypted.
Option C (Use digital certificates when accessing email via the web) enhances authentication and secure access to email services but does not directly address the protection of email contents from being released in the event of a breach.
Option D (Configure web traffic to only use TLS-enabled channels) improves the security of email communications in transit by encrypting traffic between clients and servers, but it does not address the protection of email contents at rest.
Therefore, option A (Implement S/MIME to encrypt the emails at rest) is the most effective measure to prevent email contents from being released in case of another breach involving unauthorized access to internal mail servers and user inboxes.
A company hired a consultant to perform an offensive security assessment covering penetration testing and social engineering. Which of the following teams will conduct this assessment activity?
A. White
B. Purple
C. Blue
D. Red
D. Red Team
Here’s why:
Red Team: The Red Team is responsible for simulating real-world attacks on an organization's systems, networks, and personnel. This includes conducting penetration testing to identify vulnerabilities in technical systems and social engineering to assess human vulnerabilities. Penetration Testing: The Red Team performs penetration testing to actively exploit identified vulnerabilities in a controlled manner to assess the effectiveness of defensive measures. Social Engineering: Red Teams also engage in social engineering techniques to test the organization's security awareness, policies, and procedures by attempting to manipulate employees into disclosing sensitive information or performing actions that compromise security.
Options A (White Team), B (Purple Team), and C (Blue Team) do not typically perform offensive security assessments like penetration testing and social engineering:
White Team: Focuses on internal compliance, policies, and ensuring adherence to security standards. Purple Team: Collaborates between Red (offensive) and Blue (defensive) teams to share knowledge and improve overall security posture through joint testing and assessments. Blue Team: Focuses on defending against and responding to security incidents, monitoring systems, and maintaining the organization's security infrastructure.
Therefore, option D (Red Team) is the correct team that will conduct the offensive security assessment, including penetration testing and social engineering, for the company hired by the consultant.
Which of the following exercises should an organization use to improve its incident response process?
A. Tabletop
B. Replication
C. Failover
D. Recovery
A. Tabletop Exercises
A. Tabletop Exercises: These are simulations of an emergency scenario where key stakeholders discuss their roles and responses. They’re effective for testing plans, identifying gaps, and training staff without disrupting operations.
B. Replication: This involves duplicating critical systems or data to ensure availability and continuity. While important for resilience, it’s more about maintaining operations rather than directly improving incident response.
C. Failover: This refers to the process of switching to a redundant or standby system upon detecting a failure. It’s crucial for minimizing downtime but isn’t specifically an exercise for improving incident response procedures.
D. Recovery: This involves restoring systems, services, and data to their normal state after an incident. While essential, it’s reactive rather than proactive for process improvement.
Conclusion: The exercise most directly aimed at improving incident response processes is A. Tabletop Exercises. These exercises help refine procedures, identify weaknesses, and train personnel in a controlled setting, thereby enhancing the organization’s readiness to respond effectively to incidents.
An attacker is attempting to harvest user credentials on a client’s website. A security analyst notices multiple attempts of random usernames and passwords. When the analyst types in a random username and password, the logon screen displays the following message:
The username you entered does not exist.
Which of the following should the analyst recommend be enabled?
A. Input valuation
B. Obfuscation
C. Error handling
D. Username lockout
(Brain dump : C. Error handling)
(Community : C 76%, D 22%)
The message “The username you entered does not exist” gives away too much information and could aid an attacker in their attempts to gain unauthorized access. A better approach would be to use a generic error message such as “Invalid username or password.” This way, the application does not reveal whether it was the username, the password, or both that were incorrect, making it harder for an attacker to guess valid credentials
D. Username lockout
Based on the scenario described, where an attacker is attempting to harvest user credentials through multiple random username and password combinations, and the system responds with a specific message indicating whether the username exists or not, the analyst should recommend enabling Username Lockout.
Here’s the reasoning behind this recommendation:
Username Lockout: This security measure locks out a username after a certain number of failed login attempts. It helps mitigate brute-force attacks where attackers try multiple username/password combinations until they find a valid one. By locking out the username after a few unsuccessful attempts (commonly 3 to 5), the system prevents further login attempts for a specified period or until manually unlocked by an administrator. Error Handling: While important for providing clear and secure error messages, error handling alone wouldn't mitigate the risk posed by brute-force attacks. In this case, the error message "The username you entered does not exist" already provides some feedback to the attacker, but locking out the username after repeated failed attempts would effectively thwart the brute-force attempt.
Therefore, the most appropriate recommendation in this context to enhance security against credential harvesting attempts would be D. Username Lockout.
An organization disabled unneeded services and placed a firewall in front of a business-critical legacy system.
Which of the following best describes the actions taken by the organization?
A. Exception
B. Segmentation
C. Risk transfer
D. Compensating controls
D. Compensating controls
Explanation:
Compensating controls are alternative measures implemented to meet security requirements when the primary controls are not feasible or possible. In this case, disabling unneeded services and placing a firewall in front of the legacy system are measures taken to reduce risk and protect the system, compensating for the fact that the legacy system might not have the necessary built-in security features.
Other options explained:
Exception: This refers to allowing a deviation from a security policy or standard, typically granted for a specific period or under certain conditions. The actions described do not indicate granting an exception. Segmentation: This involves dividing a network into smaller segments to control access and reduce the scope of security breaches. While a firewall might be part of segmentation, the primary action described is implementing compensating controls. Risk transfer: This involves shifting the risk to another party, typically through insurance or outsourcing. The actions taken here do not involve transferring the risk but rather implementing additional controls to mitigate it.
Which of the following describes the ability of code to target a hypervisor from inside a guest OS?
A. Fog computing
B. VM escape
C. Software-defined networking
D. Image forgery
E. Container breakout
B. VM escape.
Here’s why:
VM Escape: This term specifically describes a scenario where an attacker exploits vulnerabilities in virtualization software to break out from a guest virtual machine (VM) and gain unauthorized access to the host system or other VMs running on the same hypervisor. It involves leveraging flaws in the virtualization layer to breach the isolation between guest VMs and the host system. Fog computing: This refers to a decentralized computing infrastructure where data, compute, storage, and applications are distributed in the most logical, efficient place between the data source and the cloud. It's not directly related to the scenario described. Software-defined networking: This involves managing network behavior through software abstractions, typically decoupled from the underlying hardware. It's not related to targeting a hypervisor from inside a guest OS. Image forgery: This generally refers to the creation or manipulation of images to deceive or mislead viewers, such as in the context of digital images or documents. It's unrelated to targeting a hypervisor. Container breakout: This refers to an attack where an attacker gains access to the underlying host operating system from within a container. It's specific to containerization environments like Docker rather than virtualization environments like VMs and hypervisors.
Therefore, the correct term that describes the ability of code to target a hypervisor from inside a guest OS is B. VM escape.
A local server recently crashed and the team is attempting to restore the server from a backup. During the restore process, the team notices the file size of each daily backup is large and will run out of space at the current rate. The current solution appears to do a full backup every night.
Which of the following would use the least amount of storage space for backups?
A. A weekly, incremental backup with daily differential backups
B. A weekly, full backup with daily snapshot backups
C. A weekly, full backup with daily differential backups
D. A weekly, full backup with daily incremental backups
D. A weekly, full backup with daily incremental backups.
Here’s why:
Weekly, full backup: This strategy involves taking a complete backup of all data once a week. Full backups capture all data, ensuring comprehensive recovery capability. Daily incremental backups: Incremental backups only store changes made since the last backup, whether it was a full backup or an incremental backup. This results in smaller backup sizes compared to differential backups.
Let’s briefly compare this with the other options for clarity:
A. Weekly, incremental backup with daily differential backups: In this approach, incremental backups would store changes since the last backup, but differential backups would store changes since the last full backup. Differential backups typically grow larger over time compared to incremental backups because they accumulate changes since the last full backup. B. Weekly, full backup with daily snapshot backups: Snapshot backups typically capture the state of the system at a specific point in time, but they often require significant storage space if taken daily, especially if they are full snapshots. C. Weekly, full backup with daily differential backups: Differential backups accumulate changes since the last full backup, so they can grow larger over time, especially if changes are substantial each day.
Therefore, D. A weekly, full backup with daily incremental backups is generally the most storage-efficient option because it minimizes the amount of data stored in each backup iteration, focusing only on changes made since the last backup. This approach balances storage efficiency with the ability to restore from a weekly full backup, ensuring both comprehensive backups and efficient use of storage space.
A security analyst discovers several jpg photos from a cellular phone during a forensics investigation involving a compromised system. The analyst runs a forensics tool to gather file metadata. Which of the following would be part of the images if all the metadata is still intact?
A. The GPS location
B. When the file was deleted
C. The total number of print jobs
D. The number of copies made
A. The GPS location
Here’s why:
GPS location: Many modern smartphones embed GPS coordinates into the metadata (EXIF data) of photos taken with the device. This information can reveal where the photos were taken, providing geographic coordinates of the location.
Let’s briefly review the other options:
B. When the file was deleted: This information is not typically stored in the metadata of an image file. File deletion timestamps are managed by the filesystem and are not part of image metadata. C. The total number of print jobs: Image files do not typically contain information about print jobs. Print job information is specific to print logs or printer management systems, not embedded within image metadata. D. The number of copies made: Similarly, the number of copies made of an image file is not stored in the metadata of the image itself. It would be managed externally through logging or tracking systems.
Therefore, among the options provided, A. The GPS location is the metadata that could be part of the images if all metadata is intact, assuming the photos were taken with a device that records GPS coordinates in the EXIF data.
