Brain Injury Flashcards
What is traumatic brain injury (TBI)?
TBI occurs when a sudden external physical assault damages the brain.
How common is TBI?
An estimated 50-60 million people experience some form of TBI each year.
What is the likelihood of experiencing a TBI in a lifetime?
One in two people will experience a TBI at least once in their lives.
What are the possible consequences of a TBI?
Consequences can range from temporary problems with brain function to severe disability and death.
List the five abnormal states resulting from a severe TBI.
- Stupor
- Minimally conscious state
- Vegetative state
What is stupor in the context of TBI?
A state in which the individual is unresponsive but can be aroused briefly by a strong stimulus.
What characterizes a minimally conscious state?
Individuals display some evidence of self-awareness or awareness of their environment.
What is a vegetative state?
A state resulting from widespread brain damage, leaving individuals unconscious and unaware of their surroundings.
What is meant by ‘persistent vegetative state’?
Periods of unresponsive alertness that persist beyond a few weeks.
What is a coma?
Comatose individuals are unconscious, unaware, and unable to respond to external stimuli such as pain or light.
How long does a coma typically last?
A coma typically lasts for a few days or weeks.
What are the possible outcomes after a coma?
The person may regain consciousness, move into a vegetative state, or pass away.
What does brain death indicate?
Brain death indicates a lack of measurable brain function and activity after an extended period.
How can brain death be confirmed?
Brain death can be confirmed by studies showing no blood flow to the brain.
What are the two classifications of TBIs based on the timing of damage?
Primary TBI and Secondary TBI.
What is a Primary TBI?
Damage is immediate and directly related to the cause of the incident, e.g., bleeding in the brain caused by a strike to the head.
What is a Secondary TBI?
Damage may not appear until hours, days, or weeks later due to reactive processes arising from the brain trauma.
What is an open or penetrating TBI?
An open or penetrating TBI occurs when the skull is fractured or penetrated.
What are common causes of open or penetrating TBIs?
Car accidents and gun incidents.
What is an open TBI?
An open or penetrating TBI occurs when the skull is fractured or penetrated.
What can cause an open TBI?
Car accidents, gun incidents, and similar events.
What type of injury does an open TBI often cause?
Significant injury to the brain, especially if the penetrating object enters the brain tissue.
What is a focal injury?
Damage that often stays localized to the area affected by the foreign object.
What can swelling of the brain after an open TBI lead to?
Other dangerous conditions.
How do the symptoms of an open TBI vary?
Depending on how much of the brain becomes damaged and which specific areas get injured.
What is a closed TBI?
A non-penetrating TBI where the skull remains intact.
What causes a closed TBI?
The movement of the brain within the skull in response to an external force.
What type of injury results from a closed TBI?
A diffuse injury, which is widespread.
How does damage occur during a closed TBI?
The brain tissue strikes the inside of the skull during impact.
What are some causes of closed TBI?
Falls, motor vehicle accidents, and sports injuries.
What are specific types of closed TBI?
Concussion, contusion, and diffuse axonal injuries.
What is concussion linked to?
Chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE)
CTE is a progressive neurological disorder associated with cognitive issues, speech problems, motor disorders, low impulse control, depression, and irritability.
What is CTE a consequence of?
Exposure to multiple blows to the head over many years
CTE can occur as a delayed consequence of repeated head impacts.
In which sports have rare cases of CTE been demonstrated?
Boxing, soccer, wrestling, football, and rugby
These sports involve repetitive mild head impacts.
What are some cognitive issues associated with CTE?
- Speech problems
- Motor disorders
- Low impulse control
- Depression
- Irritability
CTE leads to a range of cognitive and emotional issues.
True or False: CTE can occur after a single head injury.
False
CTE is associated with multiple head impacts over time.
Fill in the blank: CTE is a _______ neurological disorder.
progressive
What are haematomas?
Bleeding in and around the brain caused by a rupture to a blood vessel.
What are the three layers of the meninges?
- Dura mater (outermost)
- Arachnoid mater (middle)
- Pia mater (innermost)
What is an epidural haematoma?
Bleeding between the skull and the dura mater.
What is a subdural haematoma?
Bleeding between the dura and the arachnoid mater.
What is a subarachnoid haemorrhage?
Bleeding between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater.
What is an intracerebral haematoma?
Bleeding into the brain itself, damaging the surrounding tissue.
Fill in the blank: A haematoma is caused by a rupture to a _______.
blood vessel
True or False: The dura mater is the innermost layer of the meninges.
False
Fill in the blank: An epidural haematoma is located between the _______ and the dura mater.
skull
Fill in the blank: A subdural haematoma occurs between the dura and the _______.
arachnoid mater
Fill in the blank: Subarachnoid haemorrhage occurs between the arachnoid mater and the _______.
pia mater
Fill in the blank: An intracerebral haematoma causes damage to the _______ tissue.
surrounding
What tragic event brought attention to closed-head injuries in 2009?
The death of actress Natasha Richardson
What was the cause of Natasha Richardson’s death?
Epidural haematoma
What is ‘talk and die syndrome’?
A situation where a person seems fine after a head injury but rapidly deteriorates
What happens during the ‘lucid window’ after a head injury?
The individual may feel quite normal despite internal bleeding
What can cause the rapid deterioration in a patient experiencing ‘talk and die syndrome’?
Increased intracranial pressure due to expanding blood mass
What is an epidural haematoma?
An accumulation of blood between the skull and the dura mater
What are critical areas that can be affected by a large blood clot in the brain?
Areas that regulate heartbeat and breathing
What initial symptoms did Natasha Richardson exhibit after her fall?
She seemed fine and refused medical assistance
True or False: A person with ‘talk and die syndrome’ can feel normal immediately after a head injury.
True
Fill in the blank: The _______ refers to the period after a head injury when a person may feel normal.
lucid window
What are brain tumours?
Mass or group of abnormal cells that form in the body
What is the difference between a primary and secondary brain tumour?
Primary originates in the brain; secondary originates from another organ
What percentage of brain tumours are secondary?
10%
Why are survival rates poorer for secondary brain tumours?
Cancer has already established itself elsewhere
What characterizes a benign brain tumour?
Grows slowly, does not spread, usually does not regrow after removal
What characterizes a malignant brain tumour?
Can grow quickly, spread to other tissues, will regrow if not completely removed
What is a meningioma?
A benign brain tumour
What type of tumour is described as metastatic?
Secondary brain tumour
Fill in the blank: A benign brain tumour usually will not grow further once _______.
surgically removed
True or False: Malignant brain tumours do not spread to other tissues.
False
What are benign tumours usually characterized by?
Benign tumours are usually encapsulated by a membrane tissue.
What percentage of tumours do meningiomas represent?
Meningiomas represent 20% of tumours.
Where do meningiomas grow?
Meningiomas grow between the meninges.
Why is it easier to localize a meningioma than other tumours?
Because meningiomas form close to the surface of the brain.
What imaging technique is commonly used to localize meningiomas?
Computed tomography (CT) scan.
What symptoms can meningiomas cause depending on their size and location?
Headaches and disruption of brain functions.
What is the typical treatment for meningiomas that cause symptoms?
They would need to be removed.
What is the risk level associated with the removal of meningiomas?
Usually with little risk, dependent on site.
How do most malignant brain tumours behave?
They are infiltrating, invasive, and difficult to remove completely.
What is the most common type of malignant brain tumour?
Gliomas.
From which cells do gliomas originate?
Glial cells.
What is a stroke?
A leading cause of death and neurological dysfunction resulting from a sudden-onset cerebrovascular disorder.
What is the primary consequence of a stroke?
Brain damage, dysfunction, and disability.
Name three possible consequences of a stroke.
- Amnesia
- Aphasia
- Psychiatric disorders
What is an infarct in the context of stroke?
The area damaged by stroke.
What surrounds the infarct in a stroke?
A dysfunctional area called the penumbra.
Why is the penumbra important in stroke treatment?
It may be recoverable.
True or False: The goal in stroke management is to save the infarct area.
False
Fill in the blank: The area damaged by stroke is called the _______.
infarct
Fill in the blank: The area surrounding the infarct is known as the _______.
penumbra
What is the most common cause of stroke?
Cerebral ischaemia
What is thrombosis?
A blood clot (thrombus) plugs an artery preventing blood from getting to the brain tissue
What is embolism?
A clot, fatty deposit, air bubble or other object travels from a larger vessel to block a smaller vessel
What is arteriosclerosis?
The hardening and thickening of artery walls which restricts blood flow
Fill in the blank: The obstruction of the artery that leads to cerebral ischaemia can occur through thrombosis, embolism, or _______.
Arteriosclerosis
True or False: An embolism can consist of an air bubble.
True
List the three main ways cerebral ischaemia can occur.
- Thrombosis
- Embolism
- Arteriosclerosis
Fill in the blank: Damage from a transient ischaemic attack can take up to two days to become noticeable due to a process called _______.
Ischaemic cascade
What happens in a stroke?
The blood supply to part of the brain is interrupted or reduced, depriving brain tissue of oxygen and nutrients. Within minutes brain. Cells begin to die
What are the two
main causes of stroke
A burst artery in the brain due to head trauma, high blood pressure or blood vessel abnormalities this is cerebral haemorrhage. Or obstruction of an artery due to a blood clot’ a fatty deposit or thickening of artery walls.
What is an ischaemic cascade?
A series of biochemical reactions in the brain following an ischaemic stroke or lack of blood flow.
What triggers the ischaemic cascade?
Lack of blood flow to a part of the brain.
What is the effect of the ischaemic cascade on neighboring cells?
It spreads damage to neighboring cells.
What is one consequence of reduced blood flow in the ischaemic cascade?
Deprivation of adenosine triphosphate.
What uncontrolled flow occurs during an ischaemic cascade?
Uncontrolled flow of ions.
What neurotransmitter is mentioned as being in excessive amounts during the ischaemic cascade?
Glutamate.
What receptor is overactivated during the ischaemic cascade?
NMDA receptors.
What is a consequence of excess intracellular calcium during the ischaemic cascade?
Activation of pathways leading to programmed cell death.
Fill in the blank: An ischaemic cascade leads to the activation of pathways that result in _______.
programmed cell death.
What is programmed cell death also known as?
Apoptosis
Apoptosis is a fundamental biological process important for multicellular organisms.
What role does apoptosis play in multicellular organisms?
Maintaining health and integrity
It is a precisely regulated mechanism for self-destruction of cells.
What is one essential function of apoptosis?
Removal of damaged or potentially harmful cells
This function is crucial in the context of brain damage.
How does apoptosis relate to brain damage?
It helps remove damaged cells and minimize further damage
All causes of brain damage can trigger apoptosis.
What was brain damage previously assumed to represent?
Necrosis
Necrosis is passive cell death from injury occurring over a few hours.
What is the difference between necrosis and apoptosis in terms of speed?
Necrosis is faster; apoptosis is slower
Apoptosis occurs over a few days.
What is a consequence of necrosis?
Inflammation
This occurs as damaged neurons break apart, harming surrounding neurons.
What is the initial step in the apoptosis process?
Shrinkage of the cell body
This is followed by packaging debris in vesicles.
What is the process of packaging debris in vesicles during apoptosis called?
Blebbing
This process occurs without inflammation and minimizes damage to nearby cells.
True or False: Apoptosis causes inflammation in surrounding tissues.
False
Apoptosis leads to minimal damage to surrounding cells.
What is the most common symptom of Parkinson’s disease?
Tremor, an involuntary shaking or trembling that affects one or more parts of the body at rest.
Tremors lessen with movement or when sleeping.
What is bradykinesia in the context of Parkinson’s disease?
Slowness in movement, reflecting difficulty initiating movement.
It is one of the key motor symptoms of Parkinson’s.
What physical appearance can result from rigidity in Parkinson’s disease?
A mask-like appearance due to stiffness extending to facial expressions.
This can affect emotional expression.
What cognitive issues can individuals with Parkinson’s disease experience?
Cognitive deficits, ranging from mild to severe, including dementia.
Other issues may include sleep disturbances and depression.
What are some potential causes linked to Parkinson’s disease?
Faulty DNA, strokes, tumors, traumatic brain injuries, or exposure to neurotoxins.
No clear singular cause has been identified.
Is there evidence to suggest that genetic and environmental factors interact in Parkinson’s disease?
Yes, interactions between genetic and environmental factors are important.
This suggests a multifactorial causation for the disease.
True or False: Parkinson’s disease symptoms become less severe with age.
False.
Symptoms typically become more severe with age.
Fill in the blank: The experience of a tremor in Parkinson’s disease occurs _______.
at rest.
Tremors lessen with movement or when sleeping.
What brain area is primarily affected in Parkinson’s disease?
Substantia nigra
The substantia nigra is part of the basal ganglia and is crucial for dopamine production.
What neurotransmitter is significantly reduced in Parkinson’s disease?
Dopamine
Dopamine facilitates smooth and coordinated muscle movements.
What is the primary pathological feature of Parkinson’s disease?
Lewy bodies
Lewy bodies are clumps of protein that accumulate inside neurons.
What role do Lewy bodies play in Parkinson’s disease?
They are believed to play a critical role in the development and progression of the disease
The exact mechanisms of their impact are still unclear.
What is the current status of a cure for Parkinson’s disease?
There is no cure
The focus is on managing symptoms rather than curing the disease.
Which medication is commonly used to alleviate symptoms of Parkinson’s disease?
L-dopa
L-dopa is used by the body to synthesize dopamine.
What happens to the effectiveness of L-dopa over time?
It becomes less effective
Patients may require adjustments in treatment as the disease progresses.
What surgical treatment is considered when medication is ineffective?
Deep brain stimulation
This involves implanted electrodes that deliver electrical impulses to specific brain regions.
What are the outcomes of deep brain stimulation for Parkinson’s disease?
Effects are short-lived and side effects can be significant
Patients may experience varying degrees of symptom relief.
What is epilepsy?
A neurological disorder characterised by recurrent, unpredictable seizures.
What are seizures?
Sudden, temporary disturbances in the brain’s normal electrical activity, resulting in various physical and sensory symptoms.
Why can diagnosing epilepsy be challenging?
Due to the diversity of seizures, some of which are subtle changes in thought, mood, or behaviour that are not easily distinguishable from normal activity.
What tool is primarily used to diagnose epilepsy?
Electroencephalogram (EEG).
What does an EEG measure?
Electrical activity in the brain.
What do high amplitude spikes in an EEG indicate?
Potential abnormal brain activity suggesting epilepsy or seizure activity.
Fill in the blank: EEG picks up groups of high amplitude spikes and _______.
individual spikes.
True or False: EEG only detects abnormal brain activity during a seizure.
False.
What can EEG detect between seizures?
Individual spikes.
What is the main symptom associated with epilepsy?
Seizures
Seizures can range from short lapses of awareness to full-body convulsions.
What is an aura in the context of seizures?
Unusual sensations or emotions that precede a seizure
Auras can include bad smells, specific thoughts, or hallucinations.
What are the two classifications of seizure types?
Generalised and focal
Generalised seizures affect the whole brain, while focal seizures affect a specific area.
What characterizes Generalized Tonic-Clonic Seizures?
Sudden loss of consciousness, stiffening, and rhythmic jerking of limbs
These seizures may start localized and then spread through the brain.
What symptoms can occur during a Generalized Tonic-Clonic Seizure?
- Irregular breathing
- Hypoxia
- Tongue biting
- Urinary incontinence
- Confusion and fatigue after the seizure
Hypoxia can cause brain damage.
Where do Complex Partial Seizures primarily occur in the brain?
Temporal lobe
These seizures often involve compulsive, repetitive behaviors.
What are some examples of compulsive behaviors in Complex Partial Seizures?
- Lip-smacking
- Fumbling with clothing
- Performing repetitive actions
These behaviors are often automatic and lack awareness.
True or False: All seizures result in a temporary loss of consciousness.
False
While many seizures involve loss of consciousness, not all do.
Fill in the blank: Seizures can involve muscle contractions or _______.
jerking movements
These movements can affect different parts of the body.
What are Complex Partial Seizures centred in?
Temporal lobe of the brain
Symptoms include compulsive, repetitive behaviours, confusion afterwards, and lack of memory of the episode.
What symptoms are associated with Complex Partial Seizures?
Compulsive, repetitive behaviours such as lip-smacking and fumbling with clothing
Individuals may appear confused afterwards and may not remember the episode.
Who mostly experiences Absence Seizures?
Children
Characterised by brief episodes of staring into space or subtle body movements.
What is a characteristic feature of Absence Seizures?
Brief episodes of staring into space
Often mistaken for daydreaming and there is usually no recollection of the event.
What are Atonic Seizures also known as?
‘Drop attacks’
Involve sudden loss of muscle tone, causing collapse or fall.
What happens during Atonic Seizures?
Sudden loss of muscle tone
Recovery is usually quick, but there is a risk of injury.
What characterises Myoclonic Seizures?
Rapid, brief muscle contractions or jerks
Can affect a specific muscle group or the entire body.
What symptoms can Simple Partial Seizures cause?
Localized symptoms such as sensory changes, motor symptoms, or emotional changes
Occurs without loss of consciousness.
Fill in the blank: Simple Partial Seizures may cause _______.
[localized symptoms such as sensory changes, motor symptoms, or emotional changes]
What are some proposed causes of epilepsy?
- Traumatic brain injury
- Infections (meningitis, encephalitis)
- Tumours
- Inflammation
- Destruction of astrocytes
- Genetics
- Metabolic disorders
- Excitotoxicity
What is excitotoxicity in the context of epilepsy?
Excessive electrical activity during a seizure leads to the release of excitatory neurotransmitters like glutamate, which can damage brain cells if levels are too high.
How can brain damage occur in epilepsy?
Repeated occurrence of seizures, especially if frequent or severe, can lead to structural brain damage affecting memory, cognition, and overall brain function.
What are the primary treatments for managing epilepsy?
- Antiepileptic medications
- Ketogenic diet
- Surgery
- Vagus nerve stimulation (VNS)
- Lifestyle changes
What is the role of antiepileptic medications?
They control and prevent seizures by stabilising abnormal brain activity.
What is a ketogenic diet?
A diet that is high in fats and low in carbohydrates, which may benefit some individuals with epilepsy.
What is vagus nerve stimulation (VNS)?
An implantable device that stimulates the vagus nerve in the neck to send electric impulses to the brain, reducing seizure frequency and severity.
True or False: Lifestyle changes can help manage epilepsy.
True
Fill in the blank: _______ is sometimes called a ‘pacemaker for the brain’.
Vagus nerve stimulation (VNS)
What lifestyle changes can aid in managing epilepsy?
- Getting adequate sleep
- Managing stress
- Avoiding triggers
What is Huntington’s disease?
A rare and progressive neurological disorder characterised by motor dysfunction, severe dementia, and psychiatric symptoms.
What are early signs of Huntington’s disease?
Increased fidgetiness, restlessness, or irritability.
What motor symptoms develop as Huntington’s disease progresses?
Rapid, complex and jerky movements of entire limbs, leading to severe motor dysfunction.
What psychiatric symptoms are associated with Huntington’s disease?
Depression, anxiety, mood swings, and psychosis.
What is psychosis?
A collection of symptoms that affect the mind, where there has been some loss of contact with reality.
What cognitive declines occur in Huntington’s disease?
Affecting memory, reasoning, and decision-making.
True or False: Huntington’s disease only affects motor functions without any cognitive decline.
False.
Fill in the blank: Huntington’s disease is characterised by _______ dysfunction and severe dementia.
motor
What gene is associated with Huntington’s disease?
The huntingtin gene
The huntingtin gene is a single mutated dominant gene that causes Huntington’s disease.
How is Huntington’s disease inherited?
Through a single mutated dominant gene
Individuals carrying the mutated gene will develop the disorder, and about half of their offspring will inherit it.
At what age do symptoms of Huntington’s disease typically appear?
Around age 40
Symptoms usually do not appear until after the peak reproductive years.
Why does Huntington’s disease persist in the population?
Symptoms appear after peak reproductive years
This allows carriers to pass on the gene before they become aware of their condition.
What is the structure of the mutated huntingtin protein?
Abnormal structure that makes it ‘stickier’
The stickiness of the mutated protein leads to its accumulation in cells.
What is the effect of the accumulation of mutated huntingtin protein?
It is believed to be toxic to cells
This accumulation is most pronounced in the striatum, affecting various brain functions.
Which brain region is most affected by Huntington’s disease?
The striatum
The striatum is involved in decision making functions, such as motor control, emotion, habit formation, and reward.
What happens to brain cells as Huntington’s disease progresses?
Cells throughout the brain begin to die
This cell death contributes to the progression of the disease’s symptoms.
What has been developed to test for Huntington’s disease?
A genetic test
This test can determine whether relatives of Huntington’s patients carry the mutated gene.
What is the benefit of the genetic test for Huntington’s disease?
Allows those who do not carry the gene to have children without fear
This reduces the risk of passing the disorder on to offspring.
What is Multiple Sclerosis (MS)?
A progressive, autoimmune disease where the immune system attacks the central nervous system by destroying myelin sheaths.
What does MS primarily affect?
The central nervous system.
At what stage of life do initial symptoms of MS typically manifest?
Early adulthood.
What imaging technique is commonly used to diagnose MS?
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
What are the key factors that determine the nature and severity of white matter lesions in MS?
Number, size, and location of the lesions.
Fill in the blank: In MS, the immune system destroys the _______ covering axons.
myelin sheaths
True or False: MS is a genetic disease.
False
What is the primary challenge in dealing with MS?
Initial symptoms manifest in early adulthood.
What is the role of MRI in MS diagnosis?
To identify the development of white matter lesions over time.
What initially appears in the myelin sheaths in MS?
Microscopic areas of myelin degeneration
This degeneration marks the beginning of multiple sclerosis.
What happens to myelin as multiple sclerosis progresses?
Severe damage leads to axonal dysfunction and degeneration
This progression contributes to the symptoms experienced by patients.
What develops within the central nervous system as MS advances?
Areas of hard scar tissue (sclerosis)
Sclerosis is a hallmark feature of multiple sclerosis.
What is remyelination?
Repair or regeneration of the myelin sheath
This process is normally carried out by oligodendrocytes.
How does MS affect remyelination?
Remyelination process is hindered
This contributes to the ongoing damage in MS.
What is a common characteristic of MS cases regarding symptoms?
Patients experience periods of remission
Remissions can last up to two years but are often temporary.
What are common symptoms of advanced MS?
Visual disturbances, muscular weakness, numbness, tremors, ataxia
Ataxia refers to the loss of motor coordination.
What additional issues may some MS patients experience?
Cognitive deficits and emotional changes
These symptoms reflect the broader impact of MS on the nervous system.
How do genetic factors influence MS compared to other neurological disorders?
Genetic factors have less involvement in the disease process
This suggests environmental factors play a more significant role.
In which demographic is MS more common?
Females compared to males and Caucasians compared to other ethnic groups
These demographic trends highlight the complexity of MS.
Where is MS associated with higher incidence rates?
Individuals from cold climates
This geographical aspect indicates environmental influences on MS.
What are some risk factors for developing MS?
Vitamin D deficiency, exposure to Epstein-Barr virus, smoking
These factors are linked to an increased risk of MS.
A subset of MS patients have been helped by what drugs?
Immunomodulatory drugs
What are the stages of Alzheimer’s disease?
- Preclinical state
- Prodromal stage
- Dementia stage
Each stage represents a different level of disease progression, with varying symptoms.
What is observed in the preclinical state of Alzheimer’s disease?
Changes in the brain without behavioural or cognitive symptoms
This stage may involve brain changes detectable through imaging.
What symptoms are typically seen in the prodromal stage of Alzheimer’s disease?
Mild cognitive impairment
This stage indicates early signs of the disease before more specific symptoms develop.
What deficits are observed in the dementia stage of Alzheimer’s disease?
Deficits in attention, personality changes, confusion, irritability, anxiety, and speech deterioration
Basic functions like swallowing and bladder control may also become difficult.
What genetic mutations are associated with early-onset familial Alzheimer’s?
Mutations in four different genes
These mutations have a limited role in the more common late-onset form.
Which gene is implicated in increasing susceptibility to late-onset Alzheimer’s?
APOE gene on chromosome 19, specifically the APOE4 allele
This allele increases susceptibility by approximately 50 percent.
What are the three defining neuropathological characteristics of Alzheimer’s disease?
- Neurofibrillary tangles
- Amyloid plaques
- Neuron loss
These characteristics are critical for diagnosing the disease.
What are neurofibrillary tangles?
Threadlike tangles of tau protein in the neural cytoplasm
Tau protein is crucial for maintaining axonal structure.
What happens to tau protein in Alzheimer’s disease?
The structural integrity of axons is threatened due to loss of tau protein function
This loss contributes to neurofibrillary tangles.
What are amyloid plaques composed of?
Clumps of scar tissue made up of degenerating neurons and aggregates of beta-amyloid
Beta-amyloid is normally present in small amounts in healthy brains.
What occurs throughout the brains of Alzheimer’s patients?
Neuronal loss
This loss is a significant aspect of the disease’s progression.
What occurs throughout the brains of Alzheimer’s patients?
Neuronal loss occurs throughout the brains of Alzheimer’s patients
Particularly affected areas include the hippocampus and medial temporal lobe structures.
What brain areas are particularly affected in Alzheimer’s disease?
Hippocampus and medial temporal lobe structures
These areas are associated with memory and cognitive functions.
What are the consequences of brain area shrinkage in Alzheimer’s patients?
Memory loss, cognitive decline, changes in behaviour and personality
These changes reflect the impact of neuronal loss on daily functioning.
Is there a cure for Alzheimer’s disease?
No, there is currently no cure for Alzheimer’s disease
Research continues to seek effective treatments and potential cures.
What is the dominant hypothesis regarding Alzheimer’s symptoms?
The dominant amyloid hypothesis
This hypothesis suggests amyloid plaques are the primary cause of other symptoms.
What has challenged the amyloid hypothesis in Alzheimer’s research?
Mixed results from clinical trials targeting beta-amyloid
Some researchers argue that amyloid accumulation might be a consequence rather than the primary cause.
True or False: The amyloid hypothesis is no longer considered in Alzheimer’s research.
False
The hypothesis continues to drive research and therapeutic approaches.
Which process illustrates the brain’s adaptability in finding new ways to perform tasks?
Reorganisation
Reorganisation can result from a concussion and is more common than degeneration or neuronal loss.
What type of memory is most likely to be affected after a bilateral medial temporal lobectomy?
Anterograde memory
Anterograde memory refers to the inability to form new memories after the surgery.
What is the correct answer to the question regarding the memory affected after a bilateral medial temporal lobectomy?
Anterograde memory
Anterograde amnesia is a common result of damage to the medial temporal lobes.
Fill in the blank: A bilateral medial temporal lobectomy is most likely to impair _______.
Anterograde memory
How does rehabilitative training help patients after a small stroke recover from central nervous system damage?
By limiting the expansion of cortical damage
Cortical damage is injury or degeneration affecting the cerebral cortex
Why aha a comprehensive understanding of long term potentiation remained elusive despite extensive research?
Difficulty interpreting complex changes in the hippocampus.
Which of the following is an early regenerative chance observed in retrograde degeneration?
Increase in size of they cell body
In alzheimers disease which type of memory remains relatively intact?
Implicit sensory motor memory.
Which cognitive condition is commonly associated with Down syndrome due to genetic abnormalities
Early onset alzheimers disease.
