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Boxed stuff Flashcards

1
Q

What is the “I AM IT” acronym used for and what does it mean?

A

Hypersensitivity reactions
I:Type 1 for Immediate
AM: Type 2 for Antibody mediated
I: Type 3 for Immune complex mediated/Inflammation
T: Type 4 for Tcell mediated

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2
Q

Histocompatibility Complex proteins have two classes… What are their jobs?

A

Class 1= surface of most cells in the body, inform Killer Tcells what going on INSIDE other cells
Class 2= made by APC informing Helper Tcells problems existing OUTSIDE of cells

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3
Q

What type of immunoglobulin/cells are found with Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions? and where would you see this?

A

IgE, mast cells, basophils and allergic mediators
Anaphylaxis, hay fever, asthma

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4
Q

What type of immunoglobulins are found with Type 2 hypersensitive reactions? and what conditions cause this?

A

IgG, IgM
Blood group incompatibility/transfusions, pernicious anemia, myasthenia gravis

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5
Q

What type of immunoglobulins are found with Type 3 hypersensitive reactions? and what conditions cause this?

A

IgG
SLE, RA, serum sickness, Rheumatic fever

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6
Q

What type of immunoglobulins are found with Type 4 hypersensitive reactions? and what conditions cause this?

A

NO immunoglobulins, Tcell mediated.
It is delayed.
Infections, dermatitis, graft rejections

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7
Q

What is the primary dye

A

Crystal violet

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8
Q

What is the decolorizer

A

Alcohol rinse

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9
Q

What color do Gram + stain

A

Purple

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10
Q

What color do Gram - stain

A

Red/pink

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11
Q

What cell presents antigen to Tcells?

A

Macrophages

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12
Q

What cell inactivates pathogens?

A

Natural killer cells

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13
Q

What part of antigen is recognized by immune system?

A

Epitope

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14
Q

Sabin used LIVE attenuated virus for his vaccine, Salk treated polio with what to KILL the virus?

A

Formaldehyde

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15
Q

What is the shape of:
Bacilii
Cocci
Spirochetes
Spirilla

A

Rod
Spherical
Spiral
Spring

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16
Q

Staph, Botulism, and Listeria are (gram + or -)?

A

Gram +

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17
Q

E.Coli, Salmonella, Shingella, Cholera, Francisella tularensis, and Mycobacterium bovis are (Gram + or -)?

A

Gram -

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18
Q

What are on the Biodefense list -Category A?

A

Anthrax, Botulism, Plague, Smallpox, Tularemia, viral Hemorrhagic fever, Arenaviruses (Lassa fever), Bunya viruses (Hanta), Flaviruses (Dengue), and Filoviruses (Ebola)

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19
Q

What is the gram + bacterial cell wall made of?

A

Peptidoglycan

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20
Q

What is the gram - bacterial cell wall made of?

A

Peptidoglycan AND Lipopolysaccharides

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21
Q

What disease is coined with Lungs that look like swiss cheese?

A

CA-MRSA

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22
Q

Found in Sheep, AKA Woolsorter’s Dx, is aerobic… What’s the disease and pathogen?

A

Anthrax
Bacillus anthracis

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23
Q

What pathogen causes toxic shock syndrome, impetigo and is transmitted via fomite?

A

Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)

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24
Q

How many days does Tetanus take to set in?

A

8 Days

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25
Q

Botulism causes (flaccid or spastic) paralysis in 12-36 hours?

A

Flaccid (PNS)

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26
Q

Tetanus causes (flaccid or spastic) paralysis in 8 days?

A

Spastic (CNS)

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27
Q

What are the 5 Jones criteria for Rheumatic fever? and how many do you need to make a Dx?

A

5/5
“SPECS”
Sydenham’s Chorea
Polyarthritis
Erythema marginatum
Carditis
Subcutaneous nodules

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28
Q

What is the test for Strep Throat?

A

Mitis-Salivarius Agar

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29
Q

What is the test for Scarlet fever?

A

DICK test

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30
Q

What disease is known for the strawberry tongue?

A

Scarlet fever

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31
Q

What pathogen is AKA Babes Ernst bodies and is tested via the SCHICK test?

A

Corynebacterium diphtheria

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32
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheria is known for what physical feature?

A

Gray pseudo membrane

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33
Q

Do (gram + or gram -) bacteria typically end in US or UM?
What is the exception?

A

Gram +
Listeria monocytogene

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34
Q

Do (gram + or gram -) bacteria typically end in A or IA?
What is the exception?

A

Gram -
Haemophilus
Camphylobacter jejuni

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35
Q

What pathogen is tested on a Thayer-Martin chocolate agar?

A

Neisseria gonorrhea

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36
Q

Where is a likely spot to pick up Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
What is a characteristic of this pathogen?

A

Hot tubs and burn victims in hospitals.
Blue/Green pus

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37
Q

What pathogen has a metallic green sheen?

A

Escherichia coli

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38
Q

What gram - bacteria does NOT present with fever?

A

Shigella

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39
Q

What is the pathogen responsible for the MC cause of bacterial gastroenteritis?

A

Camphylobacter jejuni

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40
Q

Bordetella pertussis is causative of what condition?

A

Whooping cough

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41
Q

2nd MC cause of bacterial gastroenteritis and known for “pea soup diarrhea”?

A

Salmonella

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42
Q

Klebsiella AKA Friedlanders is known for what physical trait?

A

red currant jelly sputum

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43
Q

Rice water stools is common in what disease?

A

Cholera, from pathogen Vibrio cholera

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44
Q

Rickettsia rickettsii is AKA what and what type of vector carries it?

A

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever or Tick Typhus
ixodid tick

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45
Q

Match the Rickettsia and name the vector:
prowazekii
typhi
tsutsugamushi

A

Epidemic typhus (Louse feces)
murine typhus (flea)
Scrub typhus (Chigger)

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46
Q

Maculopapular rash is a physical characteristic of?

A

Rickettsia prowazekii

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47
Q

Rochalimaea quintana AKA? and what is the vector?

A

Trench fever
Louse

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48
Q

Coxiella burnetti AKA? and mode of transition?

A

Q fever
milk-drank or dried up and inhaled or a tick

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49
Q

Treponema pallidum is the pathogen to what disease?

A

Syphilis

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50
Q

What are the three phases of syphilis?

A

Primary= Chancre
Secondary= Rash
Third= Gumma

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51
Q

Tabis dorsalis is effecting what, and what leads to this?

A

Gumma is the third stage of syphilis. This primarily effects the thoracic aorta and posterior column. Infection of post column causes Tabis dorsalis.

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52
Q

What is the vector for Borrelia recurrentis?

A

lice

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53
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi is the pathogen to what disease

A

Lymes

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54
Q

Weil’s syndrome is associated with what pathogen?
HINT vector is rat urine often found on pop can lids!

A

Leptospira interrogans

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55
Q

What WBC increase with viral infections?

A

Lymphocytes

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56
Q

What is the disease expression of Adenovirus?

A

Upper and lower Respiratory
conjunctivitis
diarrhea

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57
Q

What is the disease expression of Echovirus?

A

upper respiratory
pharyngitis
skin rash

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58
Q

What is the disease expression of Rhinovirus?

A

upper respiratory
(common cold)

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59
Q

What is the disease expression of Coxsackie virus/Picorna? *Most dangerous

A

“devils grip” -Pleurodynia
herpangina
myocarditis
pancreatitis
hand-foot-mouth

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60
Q

What is the disease expression of Respiratory syncytial virus/Paramyxo?

A

bronchiolitis
pneumonia (in children)

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61
Q

what is the viral family of influenza?

A

orthomyxo

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62
Q

Clarify the difference in Variola virus and Vaccinia virus.

A

Variola= smallpox and have guarnieri bodies
Vaccinia= cow pox, and can also make you immune from small pox

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63
Q

What virus is tested with the ELSIA and Western blot test?

A

HIV 1 and 2
*2 positive ELSIA is confirmed with Western Blot

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64
Q

Aedes Aegypti mosquito is the vector for what pathogen?

A

Yellow fever

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65
Q

What disease is spread through rodent dust?

A

Hanta virus

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66
Q

Walter Reed is associated with what disease?

A

Dengue/hemorrhagic fever

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67
Q

Negri bodies are associated with what disease?

A

Rabies

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68
Q

West Nile virus and Rift Valley fever and Arboviral encephalitis are spread through what vector?

A

mosquito

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69
Q

What is mycologist or mycoses?

A

Fungi or the studies of mushrooms

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70
Q

Dermatophytosis is another word for what?

A

Tinea or ring worm

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71
Q

“pricked by a rose thorn” is associated with what infection? And what tissues are affected?

A

Sporotrichosis / Sporothrix schenckii
Nodules beneath the skin and lymph invation

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72
Q

Hisoplasmosis is AKA?

A

Ohio valley fever

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73
Q

North American blastomycosis is AKA

A

Chicago disease

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74
Q

Coccidioidomycosis is AKA

A

San Joaquin valley fever

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75
Q

“Fungus balls” in the lungs is associated with what infection?

A

Aspergillus fumigatus

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76
Q

Necrotic pneumonia is caused from what infection?

A

Fungus balls! AKA Aspergillus fumigatus

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77
Q

Trichuris Trichiura AKA

A

Whipworm

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78
Q

Enterobius vermicularis AKA

A

Pinworm

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79
Q

What disease can be prevented by not walking barefoot in sand?

A

Necator americanus

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80
Q

Schistosoma – are associated with what vectors through its life cycle?

A

Snails and humans
Ingestion of fresh water containing larvae

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81
Q

Opisthorchis sinesis is transmitted through what vector?

A

consumption of fish

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82
Q

Paragonimus westermani is transmitted through what vector?

A

consumption of crab

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83
Q

What are the vectors for Taenia Saginata and Taenia Solium?

A

Saginata= consumption of raw or undercooked beef
Solium= consumption of raw or undercooked pork

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84
Q

What pathogen is transmitted via canine feces?

A

Echinococcus granuloses

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85
Q

The longest tapeworm, Diphyllobothrium latum, causes what deficiency and is transmitted through consumption of what?

A

B12
raw or undercooked fish

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86
Q

Naegleria fowleri causes what?

A

primary acute Meningoencephalitis

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87
Q

Giardia lamblia is AKA

A

camper’s diarrhea

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88
Q

What is the vector for Plasmodium falciparum?

A

Anopheles mosquito

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89
Q

Trypansoma brucei (rhodesiense or gambiens) is transmitted through what vector?

A

TseTse fly

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90
Q

Trypansoma cruzi is AKA and what is the vector

A

Chagas
Kissing bug

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91
Q

Sand flys are vectors for what pathogens?

A

Leishmania donovani and Leishmania tropica

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92
Q

What is the vector for Taxoplasma gondii?

A

Cat feces

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93
Q

What agency protects air water and land

A

Enviornmental protection agency

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94
Q

What protects us from hazordous waste?

A

Public health assessment

95
Q

What are the re emerging disease?

A

TB
smallpox
malaria

96
Q

Where does a Berry aneurysm occur?

A

Anterior communicating of the Circle of Willis

97
Q

What is PDA/Patent Ductus Arteriosus?

A

Congenital failure of closure between pulmonary artery and aorta.

98
Q

DRIP is and acronym for the Tetralogy of Fallot. What does it stand for?

A

Dextrorotation of the aorta
Right ventricular hypertrophy
Intraventricular septal defect
Pulmonary artery stenosis

99
Q

What valves are affected in Rheumatic fever?

A

Mitral and aortic

100
Q

Deficiency in iron causes what type of anemia?

A

Microcytic Hypochromic

101
Q

Deficiency of B12 or B9 causes what type of anima?

A

Macrocytic normochromic

102
Q

What type of angina occurs at rest?

A

Prinzmetal

103
Q

Skip lesions are associated with what disease?

104
Q

GERD is often also referred to as?

A

Barrett’s esophagus

105
Q

Most common place for peptic ulcers?

106
Q

Steatorrhea or malabsorption of fat is often due to what disease?

A

Celiac/nontropical sprue/gluten enteropathy/celiac sprue

107
Q

Pancoast tumors can cause?

A

Horner’s
Ptosis
Miosis
Anhydrosis

And affects the brachial plexus

108
Q

Occupational matching:
Silicosis
Asbestosis
Siderosis
Byssinosis
Bagassosis
Stannosis

A

Silicon/sandblasters
Asbestos
Iron dust
Cotton dust
Sugar cane dust
Tin dust

109
Q

Where are casts found?

A

DCT into urine

110
Q

RBC casts are found in what disorder?

A

Glomerulo nephritis

111
Q

WBC casts are found in what disorder?

A

Pyelonephritis

112
Q

HEP is an acronym for genitourinary disorders. What does it mean?

A

Hypertension
Edema
Proteinuria

113
Q

What hormones are secreted by the POST pituitary?

A

Oxytocin and ADH

114
Q

What hormones does the ANT pituitary secret?

A

GH
TSH
ACTH
FSH
LH
prolactin
MSH

115
Q

Pain in lower extremities, increased in smokers and young males are signs of what blood/lymph disorder?

A

Thromboangiitis obliterans AKA Buerger’s

116
Q

Hodgkin’s affects what cells?

A

Reed-Sternberg giant cells

117
Q

Burkitt’s lymphoma is associated with what chromosome?

A

Chromosome 8

118
Q

What is the difference between:
Hyperplasia
Metaplasia
Dysplasia
Anaplasia
Hypoplasia
Aplasia
Agenesis

A

Increased number
One cell type to another
Size, shape, function changes
Disorganized/Cancer
Defective development
Lack of development
Absence of growth

119
Q

Types of degeneration:
Caseous
Enzymatic
Fatty
Gummatous
Wallerian

A

TB-single lesion=Ghon Complex
Pancreas head
Liver
Tertiary syphilis
Peripheral nerves

120
Q

What immunoglobulin is found in milk and membranes?

A

IgA
“Grade A milk”

121
Q

What immunoglobulin is the smallest and most numerous?

122
Q

What immunoglobulin is involved in allergies and parasites?

123
Q

What immunoglobulin is the first responder and the largest?

124
Q

Never Let My Engine Blow 60 30 8 3 0
is a riddle for what?

A

WBC and the % they should be in the blood

125
Q

MPH is an acronym for attributes of Ivory White Vertebra. What does it stand for?

A

Metastasis
Pagets/Osteitis Deformans
Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

126
Q

T or F Anemia is present in ALL leukemias

127
Q

What type of leukemia is most common in young adults?

A

AML Acute myeloblastic leukemia

128
Q

Acute leukemia is in __
While Chronic is in __

A

Acute=Young
Chronic=Older

129
Q

What are the age ranges associated with the following leukemias:
ALL
AML
CML
CLL

A

3-4
15-20
All ages
Elderly

130
Q

What does the term anasarca mean?

A

whole body swelling

131
Q

What are ascites?

A

Free fluid in peritoneal cavity

132
Q

What is transudate mostly made of?

133
Q

What makes interleukin?

A

Helper CD4+
T lymphocytes
Monocytes
Macrophages
Endothelial cells

134
Q

What is is the word associated with Right sided heart failure?

A

Cor pulmonale

135
Q

What are the two epiphyseal bone cancers? and what age group is associated with it?

A

Giant cell - Old
Chondroblastoma - young

136
Q

What are the two diaphyseal bone cancers and the ages associated with them and is there periosteal reactions?

A

Ewing’s - young - Yes
Multiple Myeloma- old -No

137
Q

What cancer causes onion or laminated skin?

138
Q

What cancer causes sunburst, radiating or spiculated periosteal reactions?

139
Q

What causes parallel or solid periosteal reactions?

A

infections or fracture

140
Q

Multiple myeloma AKA

A

Plasma cell cytoma

141
Q

Grawitz’s is AKA

A

Renal adenocarcinoma

142
Q

What cancer has a reversed A/G ratio?

A

Multiple myeloma

143
Q

What is Caplan’s?

A

RA + pneumonia

144
Q

Lover’s heel, calcaneal spur, “Can’t see, can’t pee, can’t dance with me” is for what disease?

A

Reiter’s / ReA

145
Q

What blood marker would you find with someone with AS/Marie Strumpell

146
Q

AKA for DISH

A

Forestier’s

147
Q

Lewy bodies are found with what disease?

A

Parkinson’s/ Paralysis agitans

148
Q

B12 deficiency and glove and stocking paresthesias is associated with what disease?

A

PLS -PosteroLateral sclerosis
AKA Combined systems disease

149
Q

Common in females, Charcot’s triad, slurred speech, intension tremor and nystagmus is associated with what disease?

A

Multiple sclerosis

150
Q

CREST sign is and acronym for Scleroderma, what does it stand for?

A

Calcinosis
Raynaud’s phenomenon
Esophageal dysfunction
Sclerodactyly
Telangiectasia

151
Q

Genetic disorders:
Down’s
Turner or Bonnevie-Ullrich
Klinefelter’s syndrome
DiGeorge Anomally

A

Trisomy 21
XO - 45X - female
XXY - 47 - male
Thymic hypoplasia, Tcell immunodeficiency

152
Q

Benign cancer associated with skeletal muscle.

A

Rhabdomyoma

153
Q

Basement membrane cancer.

A

Goodpasture’s

154
Q

Pott’s disease is…

155
Q

Barrel chest is seen in?

156
Q

Lipofuscin are…

A

dark spots

157
Q

Charcot joint AKA

A

Neurogenic joint

158
Q

Calcium Pyrophosphate Disease (CPPD) AKA

A

pseudogout

159
Q

Ankylo AKA

A

Marie Strumpell’s Disease

160
Q

-OH group points up =
-OH group points down=

161
Q

What is the “feul factor” for carbs

162
Q

Increasing positive charges or loss of negative charges is what?

163
Q

Addition of hydrogen, gain of electrons is?

164
Q

What are the “Big 4”

A

Glycolysis
Pyruvate oxidation
Citric acid cycle
oxidative phosphorylation

165
Q

What are the structures of CHO’s?

A

Starch (complex) and sugar (simple)

166
Q

Maltose, Lactose, Sucrose are…?
(mono, di, oligo or poly saccharides)
And what are their bonds?

A

Disaccharides
Maltose= alpha 1-4
Lactose= beta 1-4 (beta b for bad because it doesn’t digest)
Sucrose= alpha-beta 1-2

167
Q

How many kcal/g of fat do we get?

168
Q

What type of bond is between glycerol and fatty acids in lipids?

A

Ester bonds

169
Q

of Carbons/Double bonds
(ALLE)

A

Arachidonic 20:4
LinoleNic 18:3
LinolEIC 18:2
EPA (Eicosapentaenoic acid) 20:5

170
Q

What are the precursor molecules (think MASH)

A

Mevalonate
Acetyl CoA
Squalene
HMG CoA

171
Q

What lipoprotein is sourced from the intestinal mucosa and has the highest % of triglycerides

A

Chylomicron

172
Q

What lipoprotein has the highest % of cholesterol?

173
Q

What lipoprotien has the lowest % of protein?

174
Q

What does beta oxidation require?

175
Q

What enzyme transfers a phosphate?

176
Q

Where does the krebs cycel occur?

A

Mitochondria

177
Q

Where does the ETC occur?

A

Inner mitochondria

178
Q

What is a ketogenic amino acid?

179
Q

List the essential amino acids?
(Pvt TIM HALL)

A

Phenylalanine
Valine
Tryptophan
Threonine
Isoleucine
Methonine
Histidine
Arginine
Leucine
Lysine

180
Q

What is the amnio acid precursor to Serotonin?

A

Tryptophan

181
Q

What is the amino acid precursor to GABA?

182
Q

What is the amino acid precursor to Creatine?

A

Clycine/Arginine

183
Q

What is the amino acid precursor to NAD?

A

Tryptophan

184
Q

What are the 2 sulfur containing amino acids?

A

Methionine and cysteine

185
Q

Explain the process of exercise and the Cori cycle.

A

Exercise causes the body to produce Ammonia (From amino acids) and Lactate (from glucose). These together will form Alanine. Alanine is transported to the liver where it is broken back to lactate and ammonia. Lactate will make more glucose to go to the supporting muscles and the ammonia will exit through the urea cycle.

186
Q

How many kcal/g do we get from proteins?

187
Q

What are the fat soluble vitamins?

188
Q

Deficiency in what vitamin causes Wernicke’s Korskoff?

A

B1/Thamine

189
Q

What B vitamin is riboflavin?

190
Q

Pellagra (4Ds) is caused from deficiency in what vitamin?

191
Q

What vitamin is Pantothenic acid?

192
Q

What B vitamin is cyanocobalamin?

193
Q

Macrocytic anemia is caused by deficiency of what vitamin?

A

B12/Cyanocobalamin

194
Q

Vitamin C is also named?

A

Ascorbic acid

195
Q

What is the white part of fruit high in?

A

Bioflavonoids

196
Q

What is the % of calcium you sould have in blood?

197
Q

Hypochromic anemia is a deficiency of what micromineral?

198
Q

Iron is transported as __ and stored as __

A

Transferrin
Ferritin

199
Q

Macrocytic/Pernicious anemia is caused by a deficiency of what micromineral?

200
Q

Menke’s syndrome is a deficiency of what micromineral?

201
Q

What micromineral transports glucose?

202
Q

Selenium is synergistic with what vitamin?

203
Q

How many NADH and FAD are formed in the Krebs cycle?

204
Q

What is needed to start the krebs cycle?

A

Acetyl coenzyme

205
Q

Pyruvate to Acetyl CoA requires what?
(These Five Coenzymes Love Nutrition)

A

Thiamine pyrophosphate from B1
FAD from B2
CoA from B5
Lipoic acid
NAD from B3

206
Q

In summary how many ATP in:
Krebs
Glycerol-3-phosphate shunt
Glycolysis
TOTAL

A

30
4
2
Total = 36

207
Q

What are the products of glycolysis?

A

2 ATP
2 Pyruvate
2 NADH

208
Q

Where does glycolysis take place?

209
Q

What is the charge of AA or proteins?

210
Q

What are wheat and rice missing?

211
Q

Legumes are missing what?

A

Methionine

212
Q

Corn is missing?

A

Lysine and Tryptophan

213
Q

What is an enantiomer?

A

Mirror image

214
Q

Stereoisomers are?

A

Atoms bonded in the same order but differ in precise orientation

215
Q

Epimers are?

A

Sugar differing in configuration at a single asymmetric center

216
Q

What do bile salts end in?

A

Cholic acid or Cholate

217
Q

Rate limiting enzyme for Kreb’s cycle?

A

Isocitrate dehydrogenase

218
Q

Rate limiting enzyme for HMP shunt?

A

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

219
Q

Rate limiting enzyme for FA synthesis?

A

Acetyl CoA carboxylase

220
Q

Rate limiting enzyme for Beta oxidation?

A

Carnitine acyltransferase 1

221
Q

Rate limiting enzyme for Urea cycle?

A

Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase 1

222
Q

What is a holoenzyme?

A

Enzyme + Cofactor

223
Q

What regulates rate of enzyme synthesis at the DNA level?

224
Q

What is the Allosteric site?

A

area on the enzyme where a compound may bind and change the rate of activity

225
Q

Substrates ___ a reaction,
Products __ a reaction.

A

Stimulate
inhibit.

226
Q

Michaelis-Menten constant Km is what?

A

Concentration of substrate at which an enzyme yields half Vmax

227
Q

What enzyme transfers a phosphate?

228
Q

What enzyme moves hydrogen

A

Oxidoreductase

229
Q

NAD ___ molecules
NADH ___ molecules

A

breaks
builds

230
Q

When an amino acid derivative has the suffix -ine what is it associated with?

A

Epinephrine

231
Q

Peptides with suffix -in are associated with?

232
Q

Steroid with suffix -one are associated with

A

Testosterone

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