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LAM 2 > Bovine Digestive > Flashcards

Bovine Digestive Flashcards

1
Q

Are dental carries a significant problem in cattle?

A

No

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2
Q

Grazing on sadly soil and wearing down teeth prematurely can lead to what condition?

A

Premature Dental Carries

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3
Q

Are fractured teeth common in cattle?

A

No

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4
Q

Staining of teeth in cattle is often from what?

A

Diet

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5
Q

Is calculus formation common in cattle?

Why?

A
  • No

- High fiber diet usually keeps the teeth clean.

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6
Q

Pitting of the teeth in cattle is often caused by what?

How is this diagnosed?

A
  • Fluorosis

- Removing bone from the tail and having it analyzed.

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7
Q

A condition where extra fluid is in the uterus is called what?

A

Hydrops Uterus

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8
Q

What are 2 specific locations for the extra fluid seen with a hydrops uterus?

A
  • Amnion

- Allantoic sac

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9
Q

With a hydrops uterus, what is the calf unable to do?

A

Unable to swallow so can’t recall fetal fluids.

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10
Q

What is the term used for a short mandible or “weak jaw”?

A

Brachygnathia

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11
Q

What does the calf have trouble doing with brachygnathia?

A

Difficulty eating since teeth and mandible don’t meet dental pad.

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12
Q

A tumor of the teeth is known as what?

A

Adamantonoma

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13
Q

Are salivary problems common in cattle?

A

No

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14
Q

Excessive salivation is known as what?

A

Ptyalism

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15
Q

Ptyalism can be a clinical sign seen in what 5 other conditions besides oral disease?

A
  • Choke
  • Ruminal problems
  • Abomasa problems
  • Toxicities
  • Rabies
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16
Q

What are 3 salivary problems that can be seen in cattle?

A
  • Sialandenitis
  • Salivary cyst
  • Salivary gland neoplasia
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17
Q

Actinobacillosis is also known as what?

A

Wooden Tongue

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18
Q

Actinomycosis is also known as what?

A

Lumpy Jaw

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19
Q

Which condition affects soft tissue such as the tongue?

A

Actinobacillosis (Wooden Tongue)

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20
Q

What bacteria causes “Wooden Tongue”?

A

Actinobacillus lingniersi

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21
Q

To diagnose Actinobacillosis (Wooden Tongue), examine the pus for what?

A

Sulfur granules and gram-negative rod-shaped bacteria

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22
Q

What bacteria causes “Lumpy Jaw”?

A

Actinomyces bovis

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23
Q

Actin mycosis usually affects what?

A

Boney tissue such as the mandible.

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24
Q

How is actinomycosis diagnosed?

A

Gram-positive filamentous bacteria seen on biopsy.

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25
Q

What virus causes “Bluetongue”?

A

Orbivirus

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26
Q

Which species does Bluetongue affect more, cattle or sheep?

A

Sheep

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27
Q

Blue tongue is transmitted by what?

A

Culicoides

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28
Q

What time of year is Bluetongue more likely to occur?

A

End of the summer months

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29
Q

T/F: Bluetongue can potentially affect only one member of the herd?

A

True

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30
Q

What is a clinical sign that Blue Tongue often presents with?

A

Hyperemia of the mucous membranes and skin

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31
Q

How is Blue Tongue usually diagnosed?

A

ELISA

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32
Q

Foot and Mouth Disease is caused by what type of virus?

A

Highly contagious picornavirus

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33
Q

Which of the following species is not affected by Foot and Mouth Disease:

  • Cattle
  • Pigs
  • Horses
  • Sheep
  • Goats
A

Horses

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34
Q

What are 2 forms of transmission for Foot and Mouth Disease?

A
  • Direct contact

- Airborne

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35
Q

What is the primary clinical sign for Foot and Mouth Disease in pigs?

A

Foot lesions

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36
Q

Foot and Mouth Disease can survive for months in what?

A

Food products from infected animals

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37
Q

How do outbreaks of Foot and Mouth Disease often start in pigs?

A

Feeding uncooked garbage to pigs.

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38
Q

Why are pigs considered to be very infective to other animals when it comes to Foot and Mouth Disease?

A

Breathe out high concentrations of the virus.

39
Q

What is the control method used for Foot and Mouth Disease?

A

Quarantine and destruction

40
Q

What type of virus causes Vesicular stomatitis?

A

Vesiculovirus

41
Q

How is Vesicular Stomatitis transmitted?

A

Direct contact

42
Q

Can vesicular stomatitis infect horses?

A

Yes

43
Q

Vesicular stomatitis can look similar to what other disease?

A

Foot and Mouth disease

44
Q

What is the main form of control used with vesicular stomatitis?

A

Insect vector control

45
Q

What virus causes Bovine Papular Stomatitis?

A

Parapoxvirus

46
Q

A mild viral disease of calves that is characterized by proliferative lesions around or in the south is known as what?

A

Bovine Papular Stomatitis

47
Q

What type of virus causes Bovine Virus Diarrhea (BVD)?

A

Pestivirus

48
Q

Which type of BVD is more mild and usually subclinical?

A

Type 1

49
Q

Which type of BVD is more acute and shows more clinical signs?

A

Type 2

50
Q

Which type of BVD causes immunosuppression?

A

Type 1

51
Q

The outcome of a BVD infection in a pregnant animal may be dependent on what 3 factors?

A
  • Strain of BVD
  • Stage of gestation
  • Immune status of cow
52
Q

If a cow becomes infected with BVD during the 1st or 2nd trimester, what happens to the fetus?

A

Fetal death or abortion

53
Q

If a cow becomes infected with BVD before the fetus is immunocompetent (day 90-120) then what happens?

A

Calf is persistently infected.

54
Q

A mucosal disease may result if a persistently infected animal becomes infected with what strain of BVD?
This eventually results in what?

A
  • Cytopathic strain

- Eventually results in death

55
Q

If a cow is infected with BVD during days 120-180, what results?
What is an example of this?

A
  • Birth defects

- Cerebellar hypoplasia

56
Q

If a cow is infected with BVD after day 180, what are 2 possible results?

A
  • Normal calf

- Seropositive calf

57
Q

What form of Malignant Catarrhal Fever can be seen in the US and Europe?
From what species can sheep get this from?

A
  • Sheep associated form

- White-tailed deer and cattle

58
Q

The African form of Malignant Catarrhal Fever can be spread by what 2 species?

A
  • Wildebeest

- Bison

59
Q

T/F: Malignant Catarrhal Fever can be spread from cow to cow and sheep to cow.

A

False - Does not spread from cow to cow but can spread from sheep to cow.

60
Q

In the US the disease of cattle which is characterized by symptoms similar to those in Rinderpest is:

  • BVD/MC
  • IBR
  • PI3
  • Malignant catarrhal fever
  • Vesicular stomatitis
A

BVD/MC

61
Q

What is the treatment for malignant catarrhal fever?

A

No treatment

62
Q

Is there a vaccine available for malignant catarrhal fever?

A

No

63
Q

What is a disease affecting ruminants that has been eliminated worldwide?

A

Rinderpest

64
Q

Fever, inflammation, hemorrhage, erosion of entire GIT, severe diarrhea and wasting can be seen with what disease?

A

Rinderpest

65
Q

What disease primarily affects goats and sheep?

A

Rinderpest

66
Q

Pharyngeal trauma and abscesses are often cause by what?

A

Iatrogenic

67
Q

Why can bloat be seen with choke or other esophageal structures?

A

Failure of eructation causes gas to be trapped in the rumen due to blockage of the esophagus.

68
Q

What is the first concern to address with choke or esophageal disorders?

A

Relief of the bloat

69
Q

The wither depression test is also known as what?

A

“Scootch test”

70
Q

A test where you roll the skin under your hand where the scapulas come together on the cow is known as what?
What is a normal response to this?

A
  • Wither Depression Test/”Scootch Test”

- Normal response is cow moving away from the stimulus

71
Q

A negative response to the withers depression test indicates what?

A

Means the cow is very painful.

72
Q

A cow can display an expiratory grunt with what 2 pain response tests?

A
  • Withers depression test

- Deep palpation at the xiphoid process

73
Q

If a cow gives an expiratory grunt during a deep palpation at the xiphoid process, is this a positive or negative response?

A

Positive response

74
Q

Blood in the feces can indicate what?

A

Red - bleed in rectum

Black - upper GI bleed

75
Q

Mucus in the feces can indicate what?

A

Obstruction

76
Q

Fibrin in the feces can indicate what?

A

Inflammation/infection (salmonella, BVD)

77
Q

Sand/stones in the feces can indicate what?

A

Dietary deficiency (fiber)

78
Q

What are 2 of the most common clinical signs seen with cattle diseases?

A
  • Ruminal stasis

- Anorexia

79
Q

What are 2 types of gas produced by microbial fermentation?

A
  • Methane

- Carbon dioxide

80
Q

What hay combination produces more gas in the rumen, clover/alfalfa or timothy/Bermuda?

A

Clover/alfalfa

81
Q

Is bloat due to excess gas production?

A

No

82
Q

What is the general etiology behind bloat?

A

Failure of eructation

83
Q

What are 3 possibles of bloat?

A
  • Failure of the cardia to relax
  • Obstruction of the esophagus or cardia (choke)
  • Failure of reticulo-ruminal muscular contraction
84
Q

What are 3 forms of frothy bloat?

A
  • Legume pasture bloat
  • Legume hay bloat
  • High concentrate bloat
85
Q

Failure of reticulo-ruminal muscular contraction can be caused by what?

A

Hypocalcemia

86
Q

Treatment of frothy bloat in cattle will often involve the administration of what?

A

A surfactant orally

87
Q

What is the DOC for frothy acute bloat?

A

Poloxalene (Therabloat)

88
Q

What is an example of a surfactant used to destabilize foam so an animal can eructate?

A

Poloxalene

89
Q

Free gas and chronic bloat are common in what type of cattle?
Why?

A
  • Feedlot cattle

- Due to pain from respiratory disease

90
Q

What are 3 factors that increase ruminal motility?

A
  • Mild distension, tension generated during contraction
  • Eating/chewing
  • Increased acidity as abomasum empties
91
Q

What are 4 factors that decrease ruminal motility?

A
  • Severe ruminal distension
  • Pain (esp. abdominal)
  • Abomasa distention (severe)
  • Increased concentration of undissociated VFAs associated with ruminal acidosis
92
Q

What are 2 other names for Traumatic Reticuloperitonitis?

A
  • Traumatic gastritis

- Hardware disease

93
Q

What are 4 clinical signs that can be seen with traumatic reticuloperitonitis?

A
  • Trembling of triceps muscle
  • Expiratory grunt
  • Arched back stance
  • Neutrophilic leukocytosis with a left shift
94
Q

What are 2 forms of conservative treatment for reticuloperitonitis?

A
  • Magnet

- Antibiotics

LAM 2 (1 decks)

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