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Gastropathology - Large Animal > Bovine > Flashcards

Bovine Flashcards

1
Q

Portions of ruminant GI PE (7)

A
  • external palpation of rumen fill, stratification
  • auscultation of rumen contractions
  • simultaneous auscultation/percussion (“pinging”) of abdomen bilaterally
  • rectal examination
  • tests for abdominal pain (grunt, withers pinch test)
  • thorough oral exam
  • observe for rumenation
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2
Q

What are you evaluating in a rumen sample analysis?

A
  • pH
  • wet mount (population and motility of protozoa)
  • color
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3
Q

3 forms/categories of ruminant ‘indigestion’

A
  • simple
  • severe
  • lactic acidosis
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4
Q

CS of ‘simple’ indigestion (4)

A
  • depression
  • diminished appetite
  • decreased rumen contractions
  • rumen distension
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5
Q

CS of ‘severe’ indigestion (6)

A
  • sudden, dramatic change of attitude
  • decreased appetite
  • decreased milk production
  • recumbency
  • dehydration
  • complete rumen stasis w/ gas cap
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6
Q

CS of lactic acidosis (8)

A
  • anorexia
  • dehydration
  • increased HR and RR
  • recumbency
  • complete GI stasis
  • bloat
  • semi-coma/coma
  • blindness
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7
Q

characteristics of normal rumen contents (pH, color, odor)

A
  • pH 6.4-6.8
  • contents olive green
  • VFA odor
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8
Q

characteristics of rumen contents during lactic acidosis (pH, color, odor)

A
  • pH 4.5-5.0
  • contents milky color
  • sour, fermented odor
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9
Q

lab data associated with lactic acidosis (4)

A
  • high anion gap acidosis
  • decreased Ca, Mg
  • hemoconcentration (? PCV and Hb)
  • CBC: neutropenia and toxicity
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10
Q

treatment for simple/severe ruminant indigestion (5)

A
  • ruminotoric (laxatives as powder or bolus)
  • Ca
  • good quality forage
  • transfaunation (+/-)
  • thiamine until normal appetite
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11
Q

Treatment for lactic acidosis (6)

A
  • IV fluids (no bicarb)
  • rumenotomy
  • transfaunation
  • Ca, Mg
  • thiamine, NSAID
  • antibiotics
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12
Q

Potential complications of indigestion/lactic acidosis (6)

A
  • fungal or bacterial rumenitis
  • rumen necrosis
  • peritonitis
  • hepatic abscess
  • vena cava thrombosis
  • laminitis
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13
Q

prevention of indigestion/lactic acidosis (2)

A
  • gradual introduction to cereal grains
  • high percentage of good quality roughage
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14
Q

_______ is a recurrent problem in individual animals on a high grain diet, defined as eructation or rumen outflow failure

A

free gas bloat

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15
Q

Free gas bloat is particularly common in __________ and in animals following ______________

A
  • calves <6 months
  • bronchopneumonia
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16
Q

CS of free gas bloat (4)

A
  • marked abdominal distension
  • L sided ping
  • large gas cap on rumen
  • sudden death (1-5 hours after ingestion of offending feed)
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17
Q

Necropsy findings for free gas bloat

A

bloat line: pale thoracic esophagus, congested cervical esophagus

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18
Q

Free gas bloat treatment

A
  • pass a stomach tube (remove gas)
  • administer antacid-ruminotoric mixtures
  • avoid trocharization if possible (secondary peritonitis)
  • identify underlying problem
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19
Q

An animal with marked abdominal distention but lacking a ping is probably suffering from __________

A

frothy bloat

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20
Q

Causes of frothy bloat

A

feeding of lush pasture, legumes (clover, alfalfa)

  • these are high in chloroplast membrane fragments and soluble protein, producing a stable foam that traps gas, blocks the cardia and prevets eructation
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21
Q

Treatment for frothy bloat (3)

A
  • administration of anti-foaming agents

(Poloxalene, dioctyl sodium succinate, vegetable oil)

  • oral fluids
  • Ca
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22
Q

Traumatic reticulitis is more common during ________ and ___________

A
  • late pregnancy
  • partruition
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23
Q

Why are cattle more prone to traumatic peritonitis?

A

they are indiscriminant eaters

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24
Q

4 things that ingested items can do once they’ve collected in the reticulum

A
  • sit harmlessly
  • small perforation: local peritonitis
  • large perforation: generalized peritonitis
  • perforate reticular wall and diaphragm
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25
Q

CS of acute TRP (6)

A

sudden drop in milk production -

anorexia, lethargy

  • ↓ fecal output
  • fever
  • ↑HR, RR
  • cranial abdominal pain
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26
Q

2 signs of cranial abdominal pain (cow)

A
  • positive grunt or withers pinch test
  • abducted elbows, arched stance
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27
Q

CS of TRP when chronic (4)

A
  • weight loss
  • poor lactation
  • rough hair coat
  • vagal indigestion
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28
Q

Diagnosis of TRP (4)

A
  • history, PE
  • lab data
  • abdominal US
  • reticular radiograph
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29
Q

Lab data associated with TRP (4)

A
  • leukopenia (acute)
  • leukocytosis (chronic)
  • ↑ fibrinogen
  • ↑ globulin (chronic)
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30
Q

Treatment for TRP (4)

A
  • stall confinement
  • administer magnet
  • broad spectrum antibiotics
  • symptomatic therapy (fluids, electrolytes, NSAIDs)
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31
Q

Prevention of TRP (2)

A
  • prophylactic administration of magnets
  • environment (limit access to sharp pointy things)
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32
Q

______________: syndrome characterized by disruption to the forestomach emptying

A

vagal indigestion

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33
Q

2 types of vagal indigestion

A
  • failure of omasal transport
  • failure of abomasal emptying
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34
Q

predisposing factors for vagal indigestion (3)

A
  • adhesions
  • TRP
  • irritation of the vagal nerve
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35
Q

CS of vagal indigestion (5)

A
  • ↓ feed intake with normal water consumption
  • ↓ milk production
  • bradicardia
  • variable rumen sounds (↑ but ineffective contractions)
  • “papple” or L-shape from behind (rumen gas cap and ventral filling)
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36
Q

Diagnosis of Vagal indigestion

A
  • history, PE
  • lab data
  • rumen analysis
  • ultrasound
  • radiography (TRP)
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37
Q

Lab data associated with vagal indigestion (2)

A
  • normal (if omasal transit failure)
  • hypochloremic metabolic acidosis (abomasal transit disruption)
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38
Q

Differential diagnoses for Vagal indigestion (3)

A
  • indigestion
  • bloat (gas or frothy)
  • other proximal GI disease (omasal or abomasal impaction, small intestinal obstruction)
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39
Q

__________ is usually reqquired to establish the underlying cause for vagal indigestion

A

exploratory laparotomy

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40
Q

Prognosis for vagal indigestion

A

extremely poor if associated with adhesion formation or neoplasia

  • pregnant animals often improve after calving
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41
Q

3 types of abomasal displacement

A
  • simple L-sided displacement
  • simple R-sided displacement
  • R-sided displacement with volvulus
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42
Q

In LDA, the abomasum migrates from its normal position and lodges between the ______ and the __________, resulting in ______________

A
  • rumen
  • L abdominal wall
  • partial pyloric obstruction
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43
Q

LDA is most common in ______________

A

lactating dairy cattle in the first 3 months after calving

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44
Q

predisposing factors for LDA (4)

A
  • diet
  • hypocalcemia
  • inherited predisposition
  • concurrent illness
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45
Q

CS of LDA (5)

A
  • ↓ in milk production
  • L-sided ping
  • ↓ appetite
  • altered feces (volume and consistency)
  • distant rumen contractions
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46
Q

Diagnosis of LDA (3)

A
  • history, signalment
  • L-sided ping
  • lab data
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47
Q

Lab data associated with LDA (5)

A
  • ketosis
  • aciduria
  • +/- hypochloremic metabolic acidosis
  • hypokalemia
  • hypocalcemia
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48
Q

treatment of LDA (3)

A
  • fluid therapy (typicaly oral, calcium, dextrose (IV) or propylene glycol (oral))
  • surgical correction (R paralumbar omentopexy)
  • rolling (potential for recurrence; not commonly done)
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49
Q

Diagnosis of RDA

A
  • R-sided ping
  • lab findings similar to LDA
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50
Q

Treatment of RDA

A

surgical correction: R flank omentopexy

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51
Q

Differential diagnoses for R-sided ping (4)

A
  • RDA
  • abomasal volvulus
  • cecal dilatation/volvulus
  • gas in the: spiral colon, duodenum, rectum, uterus, rumen, peritoneum
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52
Q

A R-sided abomasal volvulus may follow a _____ or ________

A
  • RDA
  • rolling of an LDA
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53
Q

An abomasal volvulus can rotate either direction, but most commonly __________ (when viewed from behind), results in the pylorus ending up near the ___________

A
  • counterclockwise
  • reticulum
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54
Q

CS of abomasal volvulus (4)

A
  • more dramatic than with simple displacement
  • lethargy
  • dehydration
  • ↑ HR and RR
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55
Q

Treatment of abomasal volvulus (3)

A
  • R flank omentopexy
  • R paramedian abomasopexy
  • fluid resuscitation
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56
Q

Prognosis for abomasal volvulus

A
  • <50% after 24 h
  • <5% after 48 h
  • inversely proportionate to HR and anion gap
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57
Q

the prognosis for abomasal volvulus varies inversely with ________ and ___________

A

HR and anion gap

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58
Q

Complications of abomasal volvulus (3)

A
  • atony and failure of abomasal emptying
  • abomasal impaction
  • vagal indigestion
59
Q

Abomasal ulceration is associated with (4)

A
  • intensive rearing (calves, cows first 6 weeks after calving)
  • stress
  • concurrent disease
  • NSAID therapy
60
Q

2 varieties of abomasal ulceration

A

perforated and non-perforated

61
Q

Which type of abomasal ulcer is prone to bleed?

A

non-perforating

62
Q

typically, _______ ulcers do notperforate and ______ ulcers do not bleed

A
  • bleeding
  • perforating
63
Q

CS of abomasal ulceration

A
  • similar to TRP
    • anorexia
    • fever
    • rumen stasis
    • focal abdominal pain
    • bruxism
    • rapid deterioration if large perforation)
  • bleeding, non-perforating ulcers
    • dark, tarry feces
    • pale mucous membranes
    • rapid pulse
    • weakess
    • cool extremities
64
Q

Diagnosis of abomasal ulceration

A
  • history, PE
  • lab data
    • peritoneal tap
    • leukocytosis/leukopenia (peritonitis)
    • anemia
    • hypoproteinemia
  • US
65
Q

Abomasal ulceration treatment (5)

A
  • nhigh quality forage; no grain
  • stall confinement
  • antibiotics
  • ant-acid drugs
  • blood transfusion
66
Q

Prognosis for abomasal ulceration

A

poor if perforated, good if bleeding but not perforated

67
Q

_________: an infectious cause of calf diarrhea that is a major cause of calf mortality

A

Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC)

68
Q

_________ is the most important E. coli toxin in calves because it is _______ and has ________

A
  • STa
  • heat stable
  • rapid onset
69
Q

E. coli calf infections have an onset of ___-___ d of age (up to _________ with mixed infections)

A
  • 1-7 d
  • 3 weeks
70
Q

CS of E. coli calf diarrhea

A
  • mild to severe diarrhea
  • dehydration (if severe, dehydration and weakness can preceed diarrhea)
71
Q

Lab data associated with ETEC (7)

A
  • metabolic acidosis (HCO3- loss can be extreme)
  • ↓ Na
  • ↓ Cl
  • ↓ glucose
  • ↑K
  • CBC: hemoconcentration, leukopenia (+/-) - alkaline fecal pH
72
Q

Diagnosis of ETEC (4)

A
  • age
  • CS
  • Lab data
  • fecal isolation of E. coli with appropriate fimbrial antigens (rarely actually done)
73
Q

Prevention of ETEC (4)

A
  • clean environment
  • adequate colostral transfer
  • commercial bacterin to dry cows
  • monoclonal antibody product after birth
74
Q

Calves

A

<2 weeks

75
Q

Severity of Rotavirus infection is greatest in animals < _____ d of age

A

5d

76
Q

Pathophysiology of Rotavirus infection

A
  • SI only
  • localized to villous tips
  • enzyme deficiencies (lactase)
  • net secretion
77
Q

CS of Rotavirus (5)

A
  • lethargy
  • dehydration
  • ↓ appetite
  • low-grade fever
  • diarrhea
78
Q

Diagnosis of Rotavirus (4)

A
  • electron microscopy
  • ELISA
  • latex agglutination
  • fecal pH tends to be acidic (<6.5)
79
Q

prevention of Rotavirus (3)

A
  • phenol-based disinfectant
  • vaccination of dry cows
  • ensure adequate passive transfer of immunoglobulin
80
Q

Age range for calf Coronavirus infection

A

older calves, 7-21 d (range 1 to 90 days)

81
Q

_________ is a cause of diarrhea that affects both the SI and colon

A

Coronavirus

82
Q

Pathology of Coronavirus

A

infects the epitelial cells of jejunal villi and causes villous blunting; crypt cells are spared

83
Q

CS of Coronavirus (5)

A
  • depression
  • reluctance to nurse
  • diarrhea usually severe and watery
  • dehydration
  • feces may contain clear mucus (signs typically last >7 days)
84
Q

Diagnosis of Coronavirus

A
  • fecal tests (EM and ELISA)
  • FA test of tissues (shed by healthy adult cattle and calves)
85
Q

Prevention of Coronavirus (4)

A
  • environmental management
  • vaccination of dry cows
  • ensure adequate colostral transfer
  • commercial oral antibody products at birth
86
Q

Infectious causes of calf diarrhea

A
  • E. coli (ETEC)
  • Rotavirus
  • Coronavirus
  • Salmonella
87
Q

Which areas of the GI tract are affected by Salmonellosis?

A
  • distal SI
  • cecum
  • colon
88
Q

Calves with diarrhea from ____ infection are often bacteremic

A

Salmonella

89
Q

Potential complications of Salmonella in calves (4)

A
  • synovitis
  • osteomyelitis
  • pneumonia
  • meningitis
90
Q

Calf salmonellosis infection can occur as early as ____d, but usually >_____d of age

A
  • 4d
  • >14d
91
Q

CS of salmonellosis (2)

A
  • fever
  • diarrhea (often bloody)
92
Q

Lab data associated with Salmonellosis (4)

A
  • WBCs
    • ↓ w/ L shift and toxicity if acute
    • ↑ if chronic
  • dehydration
    • hemoconcentration, azotemia
    • TP normal to ↓
  • metabolic acidosis
    • ↓ Na, Cl
93
Q

Salmonella diagnostics (2)

A
  • blood culture
  • fecal culture
94
Q

Necropsy findings associated with Salmonellosis

A

fibirnonecrotic or diphtheritic membranes in the distal SI, cecum, and/or colon

95
Q

Prevention of Salmonellosis

A

Environmental hygeine

(vaccines are of questionable value)

96
Q

Cryptosporidium parvum typically affects calves of what age?

A

5-15 d, up to 30d

97
Q

T/F

Cryptosporidium parvum is host specific

A

F

98
Q

Pathophysiology of Cryptosporidium parvum

A

villous atrophy, fusion, and crypt inflammation

99
Q

CS for Crypto infection

A

typically mild, non-specific

reduced feed intake

dehydration

often resolves spontaneously within 7 days

100
Q

Diagnosis of Crypto infection

A

acid-fast staining of fresh feces

101
Q

Attaching & effacing E. coli infection is seen in calves of what age?

A

variable (2d to 4 months)

102
Q

Pathology of A&E E. coli

A

produces cytotoxins

  • significant intestinal damage
  • histological changes in the SI, cecum, colon
103
Q

CS of A&E E. coli

A
  • blood in the feces
  • malabsorption
  • maldigestion
  • protein loss
104
Q

Coccidiosis typically affects calves of what age?

A

2-4 months

range: 3 weeks to 18 months

105
Q

CS of Coccidiosis

A
  • mild signs
    • loose feces
    • dull haircoat
    • failure to thrive
  • Severe signs (less common)
    • bloody diarrhea
    • tenesmus
    • colic
106
Q

Diagnosis of Coccidiosis

A

fecal flotation

>5,000 oocysts/g considered significant

107
Q

Coccidiosis treatment (2)

A

Amprolium or sulfamethazine

108
Q

Prevention of Coccidiosis (3)

A
  • Monensin
  • Lasalocid
  • Amprolium
109
Q

Clostridium perfringens typically infects calves of what age group?

A

>14 days (up to 90d)

110
Q

CS of Clostridium perfringens (4)

A
  • abdominal distention and colic
  • lethargy, dehydration
  • diarrhea: usually low volume, often bloody
  • central neurological signs
111
Q

Diagnosis of C. perfringens (3)

A
  • CS
  • minimal acidosis
  • toxin identification
112
Q

Treatment of C. perfringens (3)

A
  • antibiotics (penicillin)
  • thiamine
  • anti-toxin
113
Q

Prevention of C. perfringens infection

A

administer Type C and D toxoid prior to calving

114
Q

a recumbent calf is likely to be __-___% dehydrated

A

12-15%

115
Q

a weak calf is likely to be __-___% dehydrated

A

8-12%

116
Q

a sick but ambulatory calf is likely to be __-___% dehydrated

A

5-8%

117
Q

General therapies for recumbent/weak calves

A
  • IV fluid therapy
    • Bicarb supplementation
    • IV hypertonic followed by oral fluids?
  • antibiotics?
  • milk withdrawal
    • only with severe cases and for less than 24h
118
Q

General therapies for ambulatory calves

A
  • oral fluid therapy
    • bicarb containing
    • energy source (glucose)
  • 4-6 L daily
    • interspersed with milk feeding
  • antibiotics?
119
Q

T/F

It is best to simply combine oral fluids with milk replacer for a sick but ambulatory calf

A

F

Do not dilute milk/milk replacer, alternate feedings

120
Q

Causes of sudden onset diarrhea (without oral lesions) in adult cattle (7)

A
  • salmonellosis
  • winter dysentery
  • paratuberculosis
  • arsenic toxicosis
  • coccidiosis
  • parasitism
  • BVD (short clinical course)
121
Q

Causes of sudden onset diarrhea (WITH oral lesions) in adult cattle (3)

A
  • mucosal disease (BVD)
  • Rinderpest
  • Malignant catarrhal fever
122
Q

___________ is the most common cause of acute diarrhea in adult cattle

A

Salmonella

123
Q

_________: strain of Salmonella that exhibits vertical transmission

A

S. dublin

124
Q

S. dublin may localize to what tissues? (4)

A
  • mammary gland
  • lung
  • uterus
  • fetus
125
Q

CS of acute Salmonellosis in ADULT cattle (6)

A
  • drop in milk production
  • fever
  • lethargy
  • ↓ feed intake
  • watery, fetid diarrhea (blood, mucus, fibrin casts)
  • abortion
126
Q

It is primarily important to differentiate Salmonellosis (ADULT) from _____ and _________

A

BVDV

winter dysentery

127
Q

ADULT diagnosis of Salmonella (2)

A
  • bacterial culture of feces (>3 samples)
  • rectal biopsy
128
Q

Treatment of ADULT salmonellosis (3)

A
  • fluid therapy
  • NSAIDs
  • +/- antibiotics
129
Q

___________: explosive outbreaks of diarrhea in adult cattle between October and April

A

winter dysentery

130
Q

What is the most likely cause of winter dysentery?

A

coronavirus

131
Q

CS of Winter dysentery

A
  • fever
  • acute, fetid, watery diarrhea (potential for severe blood loss in first time infections)
  • ↓ appetite, milk production
132
Q

CS of Johne’s Disease

A
  • chronic, intermittent diarrhea (without blood)
  • ↓ milk production
  • weight loss
  • edema
133
Q

__________ is the causitive agent of Johne’s disease

A

Mycobacterium avium subsp. Paratuberculosis

134
Q

Johne’s diagnosis: Herd

A
  • environmental testing
  • ELISA on a subset of the population
135
Q

Johne’s diagnosis: individual w/ clinical signs

A
  • antibody quantitative ELISA
  • fecal culture, PCR
136
Q

______ is used for Johne’s diagnosis in small ruminants and ________ is used for camelids

A
  • ELISA
  • fecal PCR
137
Q

Control of Johne’s

A
  • herd biosecurity
    • buy from known MAP-negative sources
    • raise replacements instead of buying
    • manure control (including on crops)
    • enforce biosecurity for all, including visitors
  • test and cull infected animals
138
Q

Prevention of new Johne’s infections (on a known positive farm)

A
  • maternity pen
    • remove calves within 10 minutes
    • clean cows and pens with adequate bedding
  • colostrum management
    • seronegative cows, not pooled, heat-treated
    • colostrum replacers
  • calf-rearing
    • separate from adults
    • milk replacer or pasteurized milk
    • avoid manure contamination
  • clean water sources
139
Q

CS of BVD (6)

A
  • viral diarrhea
  • reproductive syndrome
  • congenital deformities
  • immunosuppression
  • persistent infection
  • mucosal disease
140
Q

CS of ACUTE Mucosal disease (BVD)

A

sudden onset, animals >6 months old (infected in utero prior to d 150)

  • fever
  • lethargy
  • anorexia
  • ↑ HR, RR
  • profuse, watery diarrhea (can contain mucus, blood, fibrin)
  • shallow buccal erosions
  • rumen stasis, dehydration

-

141
Q

CS of CHRONIC Mucosal disease (6)

A
  • recurrent diarrhea
  • chronic bloat
  • anorexia
  • lethargy
  • rough hair coat
  • chronic oral erosions
142
Q

Potential causes of bloody diarrhea (4 calf, 3 adult)

A
  • calf
    • Salmonellosis
    • A&E E. coli
    • coccidiosis
    • Clostridium perfringens
  • ​Adult
    • Salmonella
    • Winter Dysentery
    • Acute Mucosal disease (BVD)
143
Q

Adult Bovine TPR

A
  • T 101-103
  • HR: 60-90 bpm
  • RR: 15-25

Gastropathology - Large Animal (3 decks)

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