BOOTCAMP 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is Turner syndrome?

A

A genetic condition in which a female is partially or completely missing an X chromosome, commonly with a 45, XO karyotype due to paternal meiotic nondisjunction.

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2
Q

What is mosaic Turner syndrome?

A

A subtype where some cells have 45, XO and others have 46, XX, usually from mitotic nondisjunction, leading to milder features and increased risk of gonadoblastoma

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3
Q

What is the difference between germline and somatic mosaicism?

A

Germline mosaicism involves multiple gamete lineages passed to offspring (e.g., in osteogenesis imperfecta), while somatic mosaicism involves multiple cell lineages in somatic cells, not passed to offspring (e.g., in Down syndrome).

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4
Q

How does mosaic Turner syndrome develop?

A

It arises when the X chromosome is lost during early embryonic cell division, resulting in a mix of 45, XO and 46, XX cells.

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5
Q

Acute myelogenous leukemia (AML) is a malignancy of myeloblasts. Risk factors include prior exposure to alkylating chemotherapeutic agents, radiation, myeloproliferative disorders, and Down syndrome (trisomy 21). Clinical features include

A

Pancytopenia, with lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly being less common than acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL).

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6
Q

Lynch syndrome, hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC), is an inherited syndrome. It also involves the two-hit hypothesis. A germline mutation in MLH1 and MSH2 DNA mismatch repair genes (increased nucleotide changes and microsatellite stability) is present at birth, and a later mutation inactivates the second allele. Patients may present with a familial history of colorectal cancer. ? is the most common non-colon malignancy in these patients, but the development of ovarian cancer is also common (epithelial serous subtype).

A

Endometrial cancer

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7
Q

Neuroblastoma is the most common adrenal medullary tumor, frequently occurring in children. It is derived from neural crest cells and involves overexpression of the n-myc proto-oncogene. Clinical features include

A

Abdominal pain, distension (mass effect), and opsoclonus-myoclonus syndrome (rapid eye movements, rhythmic jerking) +/- ataxia.

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8
Q

Retinoblastoma results from the inactivation of both alleles of the RB1 gene. It classically presents in the first three years of life, with ?. Retinoblastoma involves the two-hit hypothesis; tumor suppressor genes require both alleles to be inactivated (e.g., mutation, imprinting). In affected individuals, one RB1 gene is mutated in all cells at birth (germline mutation), and a second somatic mutation or “hit” occurs after birth.

A

Leukocoria (white pupillary reflex), strabismus, and a creamy-white mass on fundoscopy.

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9
Q

What is erythema infectiosum, and what are its key clinical features?

A

Commonly known as fifth disease, it presents with constitutional symptoms (fever, headache) and a “slapped-cheek” rash, usually sparing the nasolabial folds.

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10
Q

What causes erythema infectiosum, and what are its key symptoms?

A

Caused by parvovirus B19, it starts with a 1-2 week prodrome of congestion, headache, fever, and malaise, followed by a lacy rash on the trunk and extremities.

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11
Q

Describe parvovirus B19

A

It is a nonenveloped, single-stranded DNA virus that causes various conditions, including hydrops fetalis and arthritis, and attaches to globoside (blood group P antigen) a glycosphingolipid cellular receptor found on erythroid precursors (e.g., erythroblasts, megakaryocytes), erythrocytes, and various other cells (e.g., placental syncytiotrophoblasts, fetal cardiomyocytes, endothelial cells).

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12
Q

How does parvovirus B19 affect the body?

A

It replicates in the nucleus of erythroid precursor cells in the bone marrow, causing cell lysis and the release of mature virions. Individuals lacking P antigen are resistant to infection.

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13
Q

Individuals who lack P antigen are naturally resistant to

A

Parvovirus B19 infection

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14
Q

EBV is typically transferred by direct contact via saliva. The virus then enters the bloodstream through the tonsillar crypts and pharyngeal mucosa, preferentially infecting B lymphocytes by binding to ? via a viral envelop glycoprotein called gp350/220. These EBV-infected B lymphocytes can then activate cytotoxic T lymphocytes by presenting viral antigens on MHC class I molecules.

A

CD21 (also called CR2)

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15
Q

Rhinovirus is a nonenveloped, single-stranded, positive-sense, acid-labile, linear RNA virus. It binds to ?, found on nasopharyngeal and adenoid epithelial cells.

A

Intracellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1)

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16
Q

Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is a human herpesvirus that can spread via sexual transmission, direct contact, blood or tissue exposure, or perinatally. Cellular integrins function as entry receptors for this virus. Binding results in the activation of

A

Integrin-specific signal transduction pathways.

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17
Q

Rabies virus is an enveloped, single-stranded, negative-sense, linear RNA virus that contains a bullet-shaped envelope. Its envelope has knob-like glycoproteins that allow it to attach to the ? at the neuromuscular junction.

A

Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor

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18
Q

Positive if Induration is:

> 5 mm: Immunosuppressed, HIV positive, recent contact with active TB, signs of prior TB on CXR.
10 mm: Immigrated from endemic areas, works in high-risk environments, intravenous drug users, children < 4 years, certain chronic medical conditions.
15 mm: Positive for all other individuals not falling into groups A or B.

A

PPD Skin Test Positivity Criteria

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19
Q

Process:
Injection of tuberculin protein into the skin.
Reevaluation 48-72 hours later to measure induration (not erythema).

A

PPD Testing Procedure

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20
Q

Type of Reaction:
- Type IV Cell-Mediated Hypersensitivity Reaction:
Pre-sensitized T cells respond to tuberculin antigens.
T cells release cytokines, activating macrophages and causing local inflammation.

A

Mechanism of PPD Test

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21
Q
  • A positive test suggests likely infection with tuberculosis (active or latent).
  • Does not differentiate between active and latent TB infection.
A

Interpretation of PPD Test Results

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22
Q

Examples Include:
- Contact dermatitis
- Stevens-Johnson syndrome
- Toxic epidermal necrolysis
- Drug reaction with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms (DRESS)
- Multiple sclerosis
- Type I diabetes mellitus
- Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

A

Other Type IV Hypersensitivity Reactions

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23
Q

Type I: Anaphylaxis (mediated by IgE).
Type II: Hemolytic transfusion reactions, Graves’ disease (antibody-mediated).
Type III: Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (immune complex-mediated).

A

Comparison to Other Hypersensitivity Types

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24
Q

What are the common symptoms and laboratory findings associated with poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN) in children?

A

Symptoms include dark urine, facial and periorbital edema, and hypertension. Laboratory findings typically show brown urine, proteinuria (< 3.5 g/day), RBC casts, elevated anti-streptolysin O titers, and decreased complement (C3) levels.

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25
Q

What is the underlying mechanism of poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN) and how does it present on immunofluorescence?

A

PSGN is a type III hypersensitivity reaction occurring 2-4 weeks after a group-A streptococcal infection. On immunofluorescence, it shows a “lumpy-bumpy” pattern due to subepithelial immune complexes (IgG, IgM, C3) with normal serum C4 levels.

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26
Q

Can be seen during, or immediately after, a respiratory or gastrointestinal infection. Additionally, it is mostly seen in males in their second or third decade of life.

A

IgA nephropathy (Berger disease)

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27
Q

Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML) Overview

A

CML is commonly caused by the t(9;22) translocation, leading to an abnormal tyrosine kinase protein. Clinical features include constitutional symptoms (fatigue, weight loss, myalgias) and splenomegaly. CML can transform into acute leukemia (AML, ALL) during a blast crisis.

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28
Q

Neurofibromatosis Type II

A

Results from a mutation in the NF2 tumor suppressor gene on chromosome 22, coding for the protein merlin. Patients are at risk for bilateral acoustic neuromas and meningiomas.

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29
Q

Von Hippel-Lindau Disease

A

An autosomal dominant condition due to a mutation in the VHL tumor suppressor gene on chromosome 3, affecting hypoxia-inducible factor ubiquitination. Patients are at risk for cerebellar and retinal hemangioblastomas, pheochromocytoma, and renal cell carcinoma (clear cell subtype).

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30
Q

Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome

A

Caused by a mutation in the WT2 gene on chromosome 11. Associated with Wilms tumor, macrosomia, hemihyperplasia, macroglossia, and other embryonal tumors (neuroblastoma, rhabdomyosarcoma).

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31
Q

Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) Diagnosis

A

Diagnosed when five or more symptoms are present for at least two weeks, with at least one being depression or anhedonia. Symptoms include sleep disturbance, decreased interest, guilt, decreased energy, concentration issues, appetite changes, psychomotor changes, or suicidal ideation (mnemonic: SIG E CAPS). Symptoms cannot be attributed to substance abuse or other medical conditions.

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32
Q

Treatment of Major Depressive Disorder

A

First-line treatment includes SSRIs (e.g., escitalopram) due to high efficacy, tolerability, and safety. Caution is needed in patients with a history of mania or bipolar disorder, as SSRIs can trigger manic episodes and should not be used as monotherapy.

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33
Q

Bipolar II Disorder Diagnosis

A

Characterized by a history of hypomanic episodes (increased energy, impulsive behavior) without requiring intervention.

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34
Q

Treatment for Bipolar Depression

A

First-line treatment is monotherapy with a second-generation atypical antipsychotic (e.g., quetiapine). Second-line therapy includes mood stabilizers like lithium or lamotrigine.

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35
Q

Antipsychotic Use in Bipolar Disorder

A

Haloperidol (first-generation antipsychotic) is not indicated for bipolar depression; it’s used for positive symptoms of schizophrenia.

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36
Q

Key Takeaway on SSRIs and Bipolar Disorder

A

SSRIs should be avoided in patients with a history of bipolar disorder due to the risk of precipitating a manic episode.

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37
Q

First-line treatment for bipolar depression is monotherapy with

A

A second-generation atypical antipsychotic, such as quetiapine

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38
Q

What syndrome is characterized by atrophic glossitis, esophageal webs, and dysphagia, primarily affecting Scandinavian women, and what are the key features?

A

Plummer-Vinson syndrome; features include a smooth, shiny, bright red tongue due to papillae atrophy and esophageal webs causing dysphagia.

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39
Q

What is the common presentation associated with Plummer-Vinson syndrome, and what causes it?

A

Iron-deficiency anemia (IDA); caused by malabsorption, malnutrition, or blood loss.

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40
Q

What are the symptoms and lab findings of iron-deficiency anemia?

A

Symptoms include fatigue, weakness, pallor, palpitations, dizziness, and glossitis. Lab findings show low ferritin, iron, hemoglobin, hematocrit, and microcytic, hypochromic erythrocytes. Hypochromasia is a term that describes erythrocytes that are pale in color when examined under a microscope.

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41
Q

What complications can arise from esophageal webs?

A

Dysphagia and increased risk of esophageal squamous cell carcinoma.

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42
Q

What are the key features of atrophic glossitis in Plummer-Vinson syndrome?

A

Smooth, shiny dorsal surface of the tongue and bright red appearance due to underlying vasculature.

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43
Q

What is suicidal ideation, and what are some key statistics on suicide in adolescents?

A

Suicidal ideation refers to deliberate thoughts and plans to end one’s own life. Suicide is the second most common cause of death in individuals aged 15-34, with higher completion rates in males. Psychiatric disorders, such as generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), major depressive disorder (MDD), and post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), are associated with suicide.

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44
Q

What are the key risk factors associated with suicide?

A

Risk factors include previous suicide attempts (the most important risk factor), alcohol or substance abuse, chronic disease, recent traumatic events, and a history of abuse or sexual assault.

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45
Q

How should a patient presenting with suicidal ideation be managed in an emergency setting, and what is the protocol for minors?

A

Suicidal ideation should be treated as an emergency. This may include admitting the patient to a psychiatric institution or ordering an emergency mental health evaluation. For minors (<18 years), a parent or guardian must be informed, as the patient does not have independent decision-making rights.

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46
Q

What is the clinical presentation, pathogenesis, and long-term impact of EBV infection in infectious mononucleosis?

A

Infectious mononucleosis, primarily caused by Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), commonly affects teenagers and young adults and presents with fever, fatigue, hepatosplenomegaly, and pharyngitis. It is typically transmitted through saliva (e.g., kissing), and targets B lymphocytes by binding the CD21 receptor (CR2) on these cells. Infection triggers an immune response with atypical CD8+ cytotoxic T lymphocytes, recognized by their large size, pleiomorphic nuclei, and basophilic cytoplasm. These T cells control EBV infection by lysing infected B cells.

EBV can establish lifelong latency in memory B lymphocytes by expressing viral proteins like EBNA-1 and LMP1, which help prevent apoptosis. Long-term, these viral proteins may promote oncogenesis, contributing to EBV-associated malignancies such as Burkitt lymphoma, Hodgkin lymphoma, and nasopharyngeal carcinoma. Symptoms generally last several weeks but may have lasting health implications.

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47
Q

Reactive CD8+ cytotoxic T lymphocytes are commonly observed on peripheral blood smears in patients with infectious mononucleosis. They appear as

A

Large cells with pleiomorphic nuclei and abundant basophilic cytoplasms.

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48
Q

What are the common symptoms and signs of rheumatoid arthritis (RA)?

A

RA typically presents with symmetrical joint pain, swelling, and stiffness, which progress over time to joint deformities like ulnar deviation, subluxation of the metacarpophalangeal joint, swan neck, and Boutonniere deformities.

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49
Q

What systemic symptoms can accompany RA?

A

RA may present with extraarticular symptoms, such as fatigue, weight loss, and low-grade fever.

50
Q

What laboratory findings support a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Common findings include elevated acute phase reactants (ESR and CRP) and positive rheumatoid factor and antinuclear antibodies (though non-specific). The most specific marker for RA is anticitrullinated peptide antibodies.

51
Q

How can RA be differentiated from reactive arthritis?

A

Reactive arthritis often occurs after infection (respiratory, GI, or urologic) and presents with asymmetric oligoarthritis, urethritis, and conjunctivitis. Anticitrullinated peptide antibodies are not associated with reactive arthritis.

52
Q

Which antibodies are commonly associated with scleroderma, Sjögren syndrome, and systemic lupus erythematosus?

A
  • Scleroderma: Antinuclear, anticentromere, anti-RNA polymerase III, anti-topoisomerase I antibodies
  • Sjögren syndrome: Anti-Ro/SSA and anti-La/SSB antibodies
  • Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE): Antinuclear, antiphospholipid, and anti-dsDNA antibodies.
53
Q

Key takeaway about RA?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune inflammatory disease primarily affecting synovial joints, leading to joint deformity. Anticitrullinated peptide antibodies are the most specific serologic marker.

54
Q

What are the key clinical features of severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)?

A

SCID often presents with failure to thrive, chronic diarrhea, recurrent infections (including invasive fungal infections like Candida), and mucocutaneous candidiasis. Patients also lack a thymic shadow on chest x-ray.

55
Q

How does the absence of a thymic shadow help differentiate SCID from other immunodeficiencies?

A

An absent thymic shadow narrows the diagnosis to SCID or DiGeorge syndrome. Unlike DiGeorge syndrome, SCID patients usually have normal calcium levels, as they do not have parathyroid aplasia.

56
Q

What is the most common genetic cause of SCID?

A

SCID is often due to an X-linked recessive mutation in the IL-2R gamma chain, critical for B and T cell growth and differentiation. This leads to absent T cells and dysfunctional B cells.

57
Q

How can SCID be identified on newborn screening?

A

SCID is screened in newborns in the United States, often detecting T cell lymphopenia early. However, lack of medical records or adoption may result in a missed diagnosis.

58
Q

What are the differences between SCID and other immunodeficiencies like CGD, CVID, and MPO deficiency?

A
  • CGD (Chronic Granulomatous Disease): Defect in NADPH oxidase, increasing susceptibility to catalase-positive organisms, diagnosed by dihydrorhodamine flow cytometry.
  • CVID (Common Variable Immunodeficiency): Presents later with sinopulmonary infections and low immunoglobulins due to B cell differentiation defects.
  • MPO Deficiency: Affects neutrophil function, often asymptomatic but can lead to recurrent Candida infections.
59
Q

Key takeaway about SCID?

A

SCID is a severe immunodeficiency caused by a defect in T and B cell development, resulting in life-threatening infections, absent thymus on imaging, and differentiation from DiGeorge syndrome by the presence of normal calcium levels.

60
Q

What is septic pulmonary embolism, and what are common symptoms?

A

Septic pulmonary embolism occurs when infected emboli, often from tricuspid valve vegetations in bacterial endocarditis, travel to the lungs. Symptoms include hemoptysis, shortness of breath, pleuritic chest pain, fever, and hypoxemia.

61
Q

How does intravenous drug use (IVDU) increase the risk of bacterial endocarditis?

A

IVDU can introduce bacteria such as Staphylococcus aureus into the bloodstream, leading to right-sided bacterial endocarditis with vegetations on the tricuspid valve, which can embolize to the lungs.

62
Q

What are the classic clinical findings of bacterial endocarditis?

A

Bacterial endocarditis commonly presents with fever, new cardiac murmur, embolic phenomena (e.g., Osler nodes, Janeway lesions, splinter hemorrhages), anemia, and possibly sepsis.

63
Q

What imaging findings might indicate septic pulmonary emboli in bacterial endocarditis?

A

CT imaging may show multiple peripheral nodular lesions in the lungs due to emboli, often associated with intraluminal filling defects from infected emboli.

64
Q

Why are right-sided heart lesions particularly concerning for septic pulmonary emboli?

A

Right-sided endocarditis lesions (especially on the tricuspid valve) can directly embolize to the lungs, causing septic emboli, which present with nodular lung lesions and respiratory symptoms.

65
Q

What is a common early finding in diabetic peripheral neuropathy related to deep tendon reflexes?

A

A diminished or absent Achilles tendon reflex is a common early sign of diabetic peripheral neuropathy, often seen in poorly controlled type II diabetes mellitus.

66
Q

What sensory loss pattern is associated with diabetic peripheral neuropathy?

A

Diabetic peripheral neuropathy typically presents with a “stocking-glove” sensory loss pattern, affecting the distal extremities first (e.g., loss of vibration sense, proprioception, and light touch).

67
Q

What are muscle spindles, and what role do they play in muscle reflexes?

A

Muscle spindles are sensory receptors in skeletal muscle that respond to muscle stretch. They are involved in the stretch reflex (deep tendon reflexes) by activating sensory nerve axons (group Ia and II) that stimulate alpha motor neurons to induce muscle contraction.

68
Q

How do muscle spindles differ from Golgi tendon organs (GTOs) in terms of structure and function?

A

Muscle spindles are sensitive to muscle length changes and are connected in parallel to extrafusal fibers, mediating stretch reflexes. In contrast, GTOs are connected in series, respond to muscle tension, and inhibit further contraction when excessive force is detected, promoting sudden muscle relaxation.

69
Q

What sensory nerve axons innervate muscle spindles, and where do they attach?

A

Muscle spindles are innervated by group Ia and II sensory nerve axons. Group Ia axons wrap around the non-contractile center of both nuclear chain and nuclear bag fibers, while group II axons attach to the contractile ends of nuclear chain fibers.

70
Q

Muscle Spindles – Structure and Function

A
  • Location: Muscle spindles are sensory receptors located within skeletal muscles, varying in number based on the muscle’s function.
  • Structure: Each spindle comprises intrafusal muscle fibers connected in parallel to extrafusal muscle fibers. Intrafusal fibers have a non-contractile center and contractile ends.
  • Fiber Types: Intrafusal fibers include nuclear chain and nuclear bag fibers.
  • Nerve Innervation: Innervated by group Ia and group II sensory nerves, sensitive to muscle length changes. Group Ia sensory axons wrap around the non-contractile center of both nuclear chain and bag fibers, while group II sensory axons are found at the contractile ends of nuclear chain fibers.
71
Q

Muscle Spindles and Stretch Reflexes

A
  • Reflex Mechanism: Muscle spindles mediate the stretch reflexes (deep tendon reflexes). When stretched by a tap with a reflex hammer, extrafusal muscle fibers lengthen and stretch intrafusal fibers, stimulating group Ia/II sensory nerves.
  • Reflex Pathway: This increases the action potential rate, leading to monosynaptic reflex activation of alpha motor neurons, which then contract extrafusal muscle fibers.
  • Exam Relevance: Deep tendon reflex testing during a physical exam assesses the stretch reflex mediated by muscle spindles.
72
Q
  • Golgi Tendon Organs (GTOs): Located at the muscle-tendon junction, GTOs are innervated by group Ib sensory axons. They are connected in series to extrafusal muscle fibers and regulate muscle tension by inhibiting excessive force, causing relaxation.
  • Meissner’s Corpuscles: Rapidly adapting receptors near the skin surface, essential for fine touch, especially in glabrous (hairless) skin areas.
A
  • Merkel’s Discs: Slowly adapting receptors that mediate pressure and proprioception, found throughout the body, commonly in hair follicles.
  • Pacinian Corpuscles: Rapidly adapting receptors located in the peritoneum, joint capsules, mesentery, and subcutaneous tissue. They sense touch, proprioception, vibration, and pressure.
73
Q

Turner Syndrome (TS)

A

Cause: Genetic disorder due to a 45, XO karyotype (absence of one X chromosome).
Gender: Affects females.
Classic Finding: Pterygium colli (webbed neck) from abnormal neck muscle and skin development over dilated jugular lymphatics (cystic hygroma).

74
Q

Clinical Manifestations and Management TS

A

Other Features:
Short stature, gonadal dysgenesis (infertility), congenital heart defects (e.g., coarctation of the aorta).
Management: Early diagnosis and treatment (growth hormone, estrogen replacement) for better growth, heart health, and fertility.

75
Q

Sickle Cell Disease (SCD) – Cause

A

Genetic Basis:
- Autosomal recessive disorder.
- Mutation in the 6th codon of the β-globin gene (E6V).
- Glutamate replaced by valine, creating a hydrophobic β-globin portion.

76
Q

Sickle Cell Disease (SCD) – Pathophysiology

A
  • HbS aggregation under hypoxic, acidic, or dehydrated conditions.
  • Gel formation → fibrous polymers → erythrocyte distortion into sickle shapes.
77
Q

Sickle Cell Disease (SCD) – Clinical Consequences

A
  • Hemolysis: Intravascular and extravascular.
  • Vaso-occlusion: Pain crises and organ damage.
  • Infections: Increased risk due to functional asplenia.
  • Dactylitis: Painful swelling of hands/feet from small bone infarctions.
78
Q

α1-Antitrypsin Deficiency (A1ATD) – Overview

A
  • Inheritance: Autosomal codominant.
    Pathophysiology:
  • Misfolded α1-antitrypsin aggregates in hepatocytes → liver cirrhosis.
  • Reduced α1-antitrypsin in lungs → protease-antiprotease imbalance → pulmonary emphysema.
    Affected Gene: SERPINA1, encoding α1-antitrypsin.
79
Q

α1-Antitrypsin Deficiency (A1ATD) – Pulmonary Effects

A

Elastase Activity:
- Released by neutrophils/macrophages in response to irritants.
- Normally degraded by α1-antitrypsin.
Deficiency Consequences:
- Unchecked elastase → alveolar elastin degradation → panacinar emphysema.
- Increased lung compliance, air trapping, and alveolar destruction.

80
Q

α1-Antitrypsin Deficiency (A1ATD) – Presentation & Diagnosis

A

Clinical Features:
- Young adults with dyspnea, liver damage, no smoking history.
Diagnosis:
- Low α1-antitrypsin levels, family history, PAS+ globules on liver biopsy.

81
Q

Emphysema in A1ATD – Pulmonary Function Tests (PFTs)

A

Obstructive Pattern:
↑ Baseline air volumes (FRC, RV, TLC) → ↑ RV/TLC ratio.
↓ FEV1 and FVC, with a more drastic decrease in FEV1 → ↓ FEV1/FVC ratio.

Flow-Volume Loops:
- Leftward shift: Indicates increased baseline volumes.
- Nonlinear descent after peak expiratory flow → early airway closure.

82
Q

Infantile Hemangioma (Strawberry Hemangioma) – Overview

A

Definition: A benign capillary vascular tumor common in infants.
Appearance: Bright red, well-demarcated lesion; may appear flesh-colored with a dark hue.
Incidence: Affects up to 12% of infants.
Location: Typically solitary, on the head, face, or neck.

83
Q

Natural History and Management of Infantile Hemangiomas

A

Phases:
Rapid proliferation: Early weeks of life.
Spontaneous involution: Resolves by 5-8 years.
Treatment:
Usually active nonintervention (watchful waiting).
Rarely requires biopsy or removal unless malignancy is suspected.

84
Q

Differential Diagnosis of Infantile Hemangiomas

A

Infectious rashes (e.g., rubella, measles):
Rubella: Fever, lymphadenopathy, arthralgias.
Measles: Fever, cough, conjunctivitis, coryza.
Key distinction: Solitary, localized lesions without systemic symptoms suggest hemangioma over infectious rashes.

85
Q

Key Features of Infantile Hemangioma

A

Composition: Tightly packed capillaries due to endothelial proliferation.
Diagnosis: Clinical; liver ultrasound for multiple hemangiomas to check for hepatic involvement.
Prognosis: Excellent; most resolve spontaneously.

86
Q

Vaughan-Williams Classification Overview

A

Definition: Categorizes antiarrhythmic drugs by their primary mechanism of action.
Main Classes:
- Class I: Na⁺ channel blockers (subdivided into Ia, Ib, Ic).
- Class II: β-blockers.
- Class III: K⁺ channel blockers.
- Class IV: Ca²⁺ channel blockers.
- Class V: Miscellaneous (e.g., ivabradine).

87
Q

Key Mechanisms for Antiarrhythmic Classes

A
  • Class I (Na⁺ blockers): Affect phase 0 of the cardiac action potential.
  • Ia: Moderate blockade, prolongs action potential.
  • Ib: Shortens action potential.
  • Ic: No significant effect on action potential duration.
  • Class II (β-blockers): Decrease heart rate and contractility.
  • Class III (K⁺ blockers): Prolong repolarization and action potential duration.
  • Class IV (Ca²⁺ blockers): Slow conduction at the AV node.
  • Class V (Miscellaneous): Unique mechanisms (e.g., ivabradine blocks funny Na⁺ channels).
88
Q

Key Takeaways for Class Ia Antiarrhythmics

A

Mechanism: Moderate blockade of Na⁺ channels.
Examples: Quinidine, procainamide, disopyramide.
Effect: Prolongs action potential and effective refractory period.

89
Q

Overview of Congenital Hypothyroidism

A

Definition: Insufficient thyroid hormone production in neonates, crucial for CNS and skeletal development.
Key Cause: Most commonly due to thyroid dysgenesis (sporadic).
Other Causes:
- Iodine Deficiency (environmental).
- Dyshormonogenesis (e.g., defective thyroid peroxidase).

90
Q

Thyroid Peroxidase (TPO) and Dyshormonogenesis

A

Role of TPO:
- Oxidation of iodide.
- Organification of iodine into tyrosine residues.
- Coupling reactions to form T3 and T4.
Dyshormonogenesis:
- Most common defect involves abnormal TPO, impairing thyroid hormone synthesis.

91
Q

Clinical Features of Congenital Hypothyroidism

A

Mild Symptoms:
- Hypotonia.
- Hyporeflexia.
- Lethargy.
- Infrequent bowel movements.
Severe Features:
- Umbilical hernia.
- Macroglossia.
- Enlarged anterior/posterior fontanelles.

92
Q

Impact of Untreated Congenital Hypothyroidism

A

Progression: Leads to cretinism:
Manifestations:
- Stunted physical growth.
- Irreversible intellectual disability.
Significance: Most common treatable cause of intellectual disability.

93
Q

Screening and Diagnosis Congenital Hypothyroidism

A

Neonatal Screening:
- Blood spot testing for TSH and T4.
Purpose: Early detection prevents long-term complications (e.g., cretinism).

94
Q

Overview of Sickle Cell Disease (SCD) and Folate Deficiency

A
  • SCD: Chronic hemolysis leads to anemia and increased demand for folate.
  • Folate Deficiency:
    Occurs when increased folate demand is unmet (e.g., hemolysis, pregnancy).
    Leads to impaired DNA synthesis and megaloblastic anemia.
95
Q

Causes of Folate Deficiency

A

Increased Requirements:
- Chronic hemolysis (e.g., SCD).
- Pregnancy and lactation.
Reduced Intake/Absorption:
- Malnutrition: “Tea and toast” diet, chronic alcohol use.
- Malabsorption: Celiac disease, inflammatory bowel disease.
Medication Adverse Effects:
- Methotrexate, trimethoprim, phenytoin.

96
Q

Clinical Features of Folate Deficiency

A

Anemia Symptoms:
- Fatigue, pallor, dyspnea.
- Conjunctival pallor.
Peripheral Smear Findings:
- Macrocytosis (MCV > 100 μm³).
- Hypersegmented polymorphonuclear leukocytes.

97
Q

Diagnostic Markers of Folate Deficiency

A

Lab Findings:
- Macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia.
- Elevated homocysteine levels.
- Normal methylmalonic acid levels (vs. vitamin B12 deficiency).

98
Q

Management of Folate Deficiency in SCD

A

Treatment:
- Folate supplementation.
- Address underlying cause (e.g., nutritional support).
Prevention in SCD:
- Regular folate supplementation due to chronic hemolysis.

99
Q

Overview and Pathogenesis of Meningococcal Meningitis

A
  • Pathogen: Neisseria meningitidis (Gram-negative diplococcus).
  • Key Symptoms: Fever, neck stiffness, headache, petechial rash, altered mental status.
    Pathogenesis:
  • Colonization of the nasopharyngeal epithelium.
  • Mucosal barrier invasion into the bloodstream.
  • Spread to the choroid plexus and crossing of the blood-brain barrier, causing meningitis.
100
Q

Risk Factors and Prevention: Meningococcal meningitis

A
  • High-Risk Groups: College students in dormitories, military recruits.
  • Contributing Factors: Crowded living conditions and shared amenities.
    Prevention:
  • Vaccines: MenACWY (quadrivalent) and MenB (serogroup B).
    Hygiene: Avoid sharing utensils or close-contact activities during outbreaks.
101
Q

Diagnosis, Treatment, and Prophylaxis: Meningococcal meningitis

A
  • Diagnosis: Lumbar puncture and blood cultures.
    Treatment: Empiric antibiotics (ceftriaxone or cefotaxime) and supportive care.
    Prophylaxis: Rifampin, ciprofloxacin, or ceftriaxone for close contacts.
102
Q

Herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2) is a common sexually transmitted infection affecting approximately 15% of the population. It is an enveloped, double-stranded DNA virus that can also be contracted perinatally.

Histopathological Features: On light microscopy, Tzanck smears of herpetic vesicles may reveal multinucleated giant cells with intranuclear eosinophilic Cowdry Type A inclusions. These findings are not exclusive to HSV-2 and can also be observed in varicella-zoster virus infections.

Clinical Manifestations: Primary HSV-2 infection typically presents as a painful vesicular genital rash accompanied by tender inguinal lymphadenopathy and fever. While these symptoms are self-limited in immunocompetent patients, HSV-2 remains dormant within the sacral dorsal root ganglia for life and can reactivate, leading to recurrent genital lesions.

A

Reactivation Triggers: Common factors that may trigger reactivation include stress, exposure to sunlight, fever, and menstruation. However, not all patients experience relapses.

Treatment Options: Management of HSV-2 genital lesions includes antiviral medications such as acyclovir, famciclovir, and valacyclovir.

103
Q

What are the early symptoms of Huntington’s disease?

A

Irritability, apathy, and personality changes, along with involuntary movements such as athetosis (writhing, snake-like movements).

104
Q

What is the genetic cause of Huntington’s disease?

A

Mutations in the huntingtin gene with CAG trinucleotide repeat expansions on chromosome 4. It is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern.

105
Q

What are the characteristic motor disturbances in Huntington’s disease?

A

Chorea (involuntary jerky movements) and athetosis (writhing movements).

106
Q

How is Huntington’s disease diagnosed?

A

Diagnosis is based on clinical symptoms and can be confirmed with genetic testing for CAG repeat expansions.

107
Q

What is the typical progression of Huntington’s disease?

A

The disease progresses from personality changes and motor disturbances to dementia and death.

108
Q

What are the two major forms of thyroid hormone, and which one is produced in greater quantity?

A

The two major forms of thyroid hormone are T4 (thyroxine) and T3 (triiodothyronine). T4 is the major thyroid hormone produced by the follicular cells of the thyroid gland, making up over 90% of the plasma thyroid hormone.

109
Q

What are the key differences between T4 and T3 in terms of potency, conversion, and half-life?

A

T4: Less potent, converted to T3 in peripheral tissues, has a longer half-life (5-7 days).
T3: More potent than T4, has a shorter half-life (1 day).
Key Takeaway: T4 is the most abundant, but T3 is the more active form with a shorter half-life.

110
Q

What is the relationship between Down syndrome and Alzheimer’s disease (AD)?

A

Individuals with Down syndrome (trisomy 21) have an increased risk of early-onset Alzheimer’s disease (AD) due to the extra copy of chromosome 21, which encodes the amyloid precursor protein (APP). This leads to accelerated production of amyloid-beta plaques, which disrupt normal brain function and architecture.

111
Q

What are the common symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease (AD) in individuals with Down syndrome?

A

Individuals with Down syndrome who develop AD typically show behavioral changes, increased aggression, and a decreased ability to perform activities of daily living. These symptoms reflect cognitive impairment that interferes with daily functioning, which is characteristic of AD.

112
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for Major Depressive Disorder (MDD)?

A

MDD is diagnosed when at least five depressive symptoms are present for at least two weeks, including depression and/or anhedonia. Symptoms include sleep disturbance, decreased interest in enjoyable activities, guilt or feelings of worthlessness, decreased energy, decreased concentration, appetite/weight changes, psychomotor changes, and suicidal ideation. These can be remembered using the mnemonic SIG E CAPS. Symptoms should not be attributable to substance abuse or other medical conditions.

113
Q

What is the difference between Bipolar I and Bipolar II disorder?

A

Bipolar II disorder involves at least one episode of major depression and one episode of hypomania. Hypomania is characterized by elevated or irritable mood, increased energy, and at least 3 symptoms (if elevated mood) or 4 symptoms (if irritable mood) of mania. Bipolar I disorder includes manic episodes with more severe symptoms, including psychosis or hospitalization. Treatment for Bipolar II often involves mood stabilizers like lithium.

114
Q

What are the anatomical boundaries of the posterior triangle of the neck, and which nerves are located within it?

A

Boundaries of the posterior triangle:
- Anterior: sternocleidomastoid muscle
- Posterior: trapezius muscle
- Inferior: clavicle
- The apex is formed by the union of the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles at the superior nuchal line of the occipital bone.
- Roof: investing layer of deep cervical fascia.
Nerves within the posterior triangle:
- Spinal accessory nerve (CN XI)
- Branches of the cervical plexus
- Roots and trunks of the brachial plexus
- Cervical roots of the phrenic nerve
Vessels:
- Subclavian artery
- Transverse cervical artery
- Suprascapular artery
- External jugular vein
- Internal jugular vein (just deep to the sternocleidomastoid muscle)

115
Q

What are the signs of spinal accessory nerve (CN XI) injury, and which muscles are affected?

A

Spinal accessory nerve (CN XI) injury:
- Causes weakness in the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles.
Results in:
- Drooping of the shoulder.
- Difficulty abducting the arm above the horizontal plane due to weakness in rotating the glenoid upward.

116
Q

What is Hepatitis B, and what are the key risk factors for infection?

A
  • Hepatitis B is a partially double-stranded DNA virus in the Hepadnaviridae family.
  • Infection occurs via contaminated bodily fluids.
    High-risk groups include:
  • Intravenous drug users
  • Healthcare workers
  • Infants born to HBV-infected mothers
  • Incubation period: 1-6 months
    Most immunocompetent individuals clear the infection spontaneously; <5% develop chronic infection.
  • Symptoms (if present): Fever, abdominal pain, dark urine, and jaundice.
    Risk factors: This patient’s heroin use increases the likelihood of HBV acquisition.
117
Q

How is Hepatitis B diagnosed, and what are key management strategies?

A

Diagnosis: Serum serology
- Acute infection: Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg)
- Chronic infection: HBsAg for ≥6 months
- HBeAg: Indicates high HBV DNA levels and infectivity; anti-HBe indicates lower infectivity.
- Anti-HBc IgM: Indicates acute infection; Anti-HBc IgG develops later and persists for life.
Vaccinated individuals lack anti-HBc antibodies.
Management of chronic HBV:
Assess HIV status and screen for hepatitis C and hepatitis D.
Chronic infection increases risk of cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma.
Lifestyle changes: Reduce alcohol intake, avoid hepatotoxic medications.

118
Q

What is Coronary Steal Syndrome, and what causes it?

A

Coronary Steal Syndrome occurs in patients with coronary artery disease (CAD) when coronary vasodilation is induced.
Mechanism:
- In partially occluded coronary arteries, the region distal to the occlusion is maximally dilated at baseline.
- During vasodilation (e.g., exercise), blood flow is redirected away from the ischemic myocardium supplied by the occluded artery towards well-perfused areas.
- This results in ischemia of the myocardium that was previously supplied by the stenosed vessel.

119
Q

How does coronary vasodilation occur during exercise, and what are the key mediators?

A

Exercise-induced vasodilation increases coronary blood flow to match increased myocardial oxygen demand.
Mediators:
- Adenosine: Binds to adenosine 2A receptors (Gs protein-coupled), increasing cAMP, activating PKA, which opens KATP channels, leading to smooth muscle hyperpolarization and relaxation.
- Nitric Oxide (NO): Activates guanylyl cyclase, increasing cGMP levels. cGMP activates PKG, which activates myosin phosphatase, dephosphorylating myosin light chains and causing smooth muscle relaxation.

120
Q

What are the key features of CMV esophagitis, and how is it diagnosed?

A

Symptoms:
- Odynophagia (painful swallowing) and progressive dysphagia (difficulty swallowing).
- Systemic symptoms may include fever, malaise, nausea, and vomiting.
Diagnosis:
- Endoscopy reveals linear ulcerations with surrounding mucosal inflammation.
- Characteristic “owl eye” intranuclear inclusion bodies (large inclusions within cells) on histology confirm CMV infection.

121
Q

Risk Factors & Clinical Course of CMV Infection

A

Immunocompetent adults:
- CMV infection is typically asymptomatic or causes a self-limited mononucleosis-like illness.

Immunocompromised individuals (e.g., solid-organ transplant recipients, those with uncontrolled HIV):
- CMV can lead to severe manifestations, including CMV esophagitis, which can be life-threatening.
- Solid-organ transplant recipients on immunosuppressive medications are particularly at risk.

122
Q
A