Book Questions Flashcards

1
Q

An uncoupled of oxidative phosphorylation such as dinitrophenol
A. Inhibits respiration and ATP synthesis
B. Allows electron transport to proceed without ATP synthesis
C. Inhibits respiration without impairment of ATP synthesis
D. Specifically inhibits cytochrome-b
E. Acts as a competitive inhibitor of NAD+ requiring reactions in the mitochondria

A

The electron transport chain produces an H+ gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane that drives ATP synthesis. An uncoupler short-circuits that gradient, so that the energy contained is converted to heat rather than being used for ATP synthesis. However, the electron transport chain itself is not inhibited by uncouplers.

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2
Q

James Gillray, the grandfather of all political cartoonists, created an illustration of an inflamed and swollen joint of the big toe into which a fire-breathing demon digs its fangs and talons. This piece of art, called The Gout, depicted the severe pain associated with a condition of the same name. Under the influence of allopurinol, the concentration of which compound would decrease in a patient suffering with this condition?

A. Xanthine 
B. Hypoxanthine
C. Xanthosine
D. Guanine
E. Uric Acid
A

E − Allopurinol suicide inactivates xanthine-oxidase and thus prevents the conversion of xanthine into uric acid. The concentrations of xanthine, hypoxanthine, xanthosine, and guanine would actually increase.
A, B, C, D Allopurinol suicide inactivates xanthine-oxidase and thus prevents the conversion of xanthine into uric acid. The concentrations of xanthine, hypoxanthine, xanthosine, and guanine would actually increase.

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3
Q
In mitochondria treated with the uncoupled dinitrophenol (DNP), how many molecules of ATP are derived from the oxidation of one molecule of NADH 
A. 0
B. 1 
C. 2
D. 3
E. 6
A

A − In an uncoupled system, the proton gradient generated from the oxidation of NADH and FADH2 is short-circuited, allowing protons to flow back from the intermembrane space into the matrix without passing through the ATP synthase. The energy conserved in the proton gradient is converted to heat, rather than being used to generate ATP.
B, C, D, E See explanation for A.

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4
Q

The following are the properties of three GI proteases

Enzyme |OptimumpH | Molecular Mass (kDa) | Type
1 2.0 35 Soluble
2 6.8 109 Membrane bound
3 8.0. 24. Soluble
Which of the three enzymes, pepsin, trypsin and alanine (Ala)-aminopeptidase correspond to 1, 2 and 3?

A. 1 (pepsin), 2 (trypsin), 3 (Ala-aminopeptidase)
B. 1 (pepsin), 2 (Ala-aminopeptidase), 3 (trypsin)
C. 1 (trypsin), 2 (pepsin), 3 (Ala-aminopeptidase)
D. 1 (trypsin), 2 (Ala-aminopeptidase), 3 (pepsin)
E. 1 (Ala-aminopeptidase), 2 (trypsin), 3 (pepsin)

A

B − 1 has a pH-optimum in the strongly acidic range, which corresponds to the stomach, so this is pepsin. 2 and 3 have pH-optima near neutral, corresponding to the environment found in the intestine. Of those, 3 is a soluble enzyme, he

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5
Q

What is the effect of an “œuncoupler” on metabolism?

A The formation of ATP continues, but oxidation of TCA cycle intermediates ceases.
B ATP formation ceases because TCA cycle activity is inhibited.
C Mitochondrial metabolism is blocked.
D The movement of ATP and ADP across mitochondrial membranes is impaired.
E ATP formation ceases, but O2 consumption increases

A

E − Uncouplers “œshort-circuit” the proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane and thereby deprive the ATP synthase (complex V) of its energy source. Examples include dinitrophenol, pentachlorophenol, certain drugs such as aspirin or zidovudine (AZT), and metabolites such as bilirubin. Thermogenin (UCP1) is a protein that forms a proton channel in the mitochondria of brown adipose tissue. The high [ADP] and low [ATP] in the presence of uncouplers lead to increased glycolysis, TCA cycle and complex I to IV activity, and hence oxygen consumption.

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6
Q

You are on a group hiking tour in South Tirol (Europe). You had a brilliant if slightly strenuous day out and a nice group dinner in the hotel, consisting of ricotta cheese and spinach-filled potato dumplings with tossed salad and fried eggs, accompanied by a local red wine. Two hours later you are called to one of your companions, who is feeling sick. You find an elderly lady, pale, clammy, in obvious distress. She is complaining about abdominal pain, vomiting, belching, diarrhea, and flatulence. After arranging transport to a local polyclinic, you find that temperature, vital signs, EKG, serum analysis, chest and abdominal X-ray, and ultrasound are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

 A Acute myocardial infarction
 B Appendicitis
 C Overexertion
 D Foodborne illness
 E Lactose incompatibility
A

E − All other causes are excluded by the patient’s presentation and by the exam results. The signs and symptoms fit those of someone who is lactose intolerant. Lactose-intolerant patients usually know about the problems they get when ingesting lactose and will avoid doing so. Problems arise when their food is prepared by others, and milk products “œhide” in this case the spinach turned out to contain ricotta cheese. Advising the preparer of special dietary needs unfortunately does not always prevent these problems.

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7
Q

In aerobic metabolism, most of the high-energy phosphate is generated by

A glycolysis acting on glycogen and generating lactate.
B glycolysis acting on glucose and generating pyruvate.
C the pyruvate dehydrogenase reaction.
D the TCA cycle.
E protons passing through the Fo–F1 complex.

A

E − By far, the most ATP is made by oxidative phosphorylation in which electron transport generates a pH gradient that in turn drives the Fo–’F1 ATPase. Glycolysis and the TCA cycle contribute only two ATP and two guanosine triphosphates (GTPs), respectively, per glucose.
A Glycolysis acts on glucose, not glycogen. Lactate is produced in anaerobic, not aerobic, glycolysis. The former also produces only two molecules of ATP per molecule of glucose. Most of the chemical energy contained in the glucose molecule is still in the two lactate molecules produced, which are therefore used for gluconeogenesis as soon as the oxygen supply improves.

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8
Q

Chymotrypsin is a serine protease, with Ser-195, His-57, and Asp-102 forming the catalytic triad. In serine proteases, the ring nitrogen of histidine’™s side chain in the catalytic triad acts as a proton acceptor during the enzymatic reaction sequence. If the pH were lowered below the p Ka of the His-57 side chain, what would happen to the enzymatic activity?

A The enzyme would be activated because His-57 needs to be protonated to be active.
B The enzyme would be activated because His-57 needs to be deprotonated to be active.
C The enzyme would be inactivated because His-57 needs to be protonated to be active.
D The enzyme would be inactivated because His-57 needs to be deprotonated to be active.
E There would be no effect because His-57 can fulfill its role in both the protonated and deprotonated state.

A

D. − Because the ring nitrogen of histidine (His) in the catalytic triad of serine proteases acts as a proton acceptor during the enzymatic reaction sequence, it needs to be unprotonated to begin with. If the pH is lowered below its pKa, the His side chain would be constantly protonated and hence unable to function.

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9
Q

The presence of an electrochemical gradient of protons across the inner mitochondrial membrane is required for the production of which metabolite?

 A ATP
 B H2O2
 C FADH2
 D O2
 E NADH + H+
A

A − Phosphorylation of ADP to ATP requires energy derived from the potential energy of the proton gradient when protons pass back through ATP synthase.

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10
Q

The reaction catalyzed by which enzyme of the TCA cycle results in phosphorylation at the substrate level?

 A Succinate dehydrogenase
 B alpha-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
 C ATP synthase
 D Citrate synthase
 E Succinyl CoA synthetase
A

E − Succinyl CoA synthetase actually works in reverse and catalyzes the breakdown of succinyl CoA into succinate and CoA. The chemical energy of succinyl CoA’™s thioester bond is used to phosphorylate GDP to GTP (in equilibrium with ATP) in animals, whereas ATP is produced directly in bacteria and plants.

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11
Q

Coenzymes are small organic molecules that are often required in catalytic enzymes. They assist in catalysis by providing functional groups on which reactions can occur. Each coenzyme helps catalyze a specific type of reaction for a given class of substrates. The coenzyme involved in the biochemical transfer of methyl, formyl, or hydroxymethyl groups from one molecule to another is a derivative of

 A biotin
 B pyridoxine
 C lipoic acid
 D folic acid
 E ascorbic acid
A

D − Folic acid plays a major role in one-carbon metabolism. The derivative, N5 -methyltetrahydrofolate, is used for the synthesis of methionine from homocysteine, in a reaction requiring vitamin B12. Another derivative, N10-formyltetrahydrofolate, is used in the biosynthesis of purines, contributing carbons 2 and 8 to the purine ring system. N5, N10-methylenetetrahydrofolate is used by serine hydroxymethyl transferase to transfer hydroxymethyl groups between serine and glycine.

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12
Q

Inosine 5’-monophosphate (IMP) is the initial product of purine nucleotide anabolism. Which nucleotides are subsequently synthesized from IMP, each in two enzymatic steps?

 A AMP and GMP
 B AMP and OMP
 C dATP and dGTP
 D UTP and CTP
 E XMP and CMP
A

A − AMP (adenosine monophosphate) and GMP (guanosine monophosphate) are the purine nucleoside monophosphates synthesized from IMP in two enzymatic steps.

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13
Q

Cytochrome-c oxidase (complex IV)

A is inhibited by rotenone.
B is the terminal enzyme of the mitochondrial electron transport chain.
C binds oxygen, resulting in the formation of hydrogen peroxide
D contains two atoms of zinc/heme-a.
E can be reduced by cytochrome-b

A

B − In the electron transport chain, protons and electrons (in effect, but not mechanistically) from different sources are first collected on CoQ, then separated in complex III (cytochrome-c reductase). The protons are released into the intermembrane space. The electrons are transferred via cytochrome-c onto complex IV, were molecular oxygen, four electrons and four protons (from the mitochondrial matrix) form two molecules of water.

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14
Q

A 35-year-old man was rushed to the emergency room because he was unconscious. He was an experienced runner and had participated in a marathon race (42 km/26.1 miles). It was a cloudy day, and the organizers had provided service stations at regular intervals on the track where isotonic drinks were served. Celebrating his fifth place in the race with his friends, the patient was drinking his third glass of champagne when he suddenly collapsed. Which immediate intervention could save the life of this patient?

 A Ringer/lactate, intravenous (IV)
 B Insulin IV
 C Glucose IV
 D Blood clot dissolvers
 E Oxygen mask
A

C − After ~ 30 km (18.6 miles) into a marathon race, even well-trained athletes have used up their glycogen stores. They continue to run on fatty acids and ketone bodies. The reduced rate of ATP production is experienced as “œhitting the wall.” Blood glucose levels in this situation are maintained by gluconeogenesis. This is required given that brain, erythrocytes, and kidney absolutely depend on glucose for fuel. When the patient drank alcohol after this strenuous exercise, he blocked gluconeogenesis and hence his only remaining source of blood glucose, resulting in a (life-threatening) hypoglycemic coma.

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15
Q

A 2-year-old girl is transferred to the metabolic unit of a state pediatric hospital because of failure to thrive and severe fasting hypoglycemia with neurological sequelae. A physical exam reveals hepatomegaly. Laboratory: hyperlipidemia and impaired liver and kidney function. A transcutaneous liver biopsy reveals the accumulation of excessive amounts of glycogen. The most likely diagnosis is

 A Conn syndrome
 B Adrenoleukodystrophy (ALD)
 C von Gierke disease
 D Alzheimer disease
 E Dubin-Johnson syndrome
A

C − This patient has von Gierke disease (glycogen storage disease Ia), marked by the accumulation of glycogen in the liver and hepatomegaly. It is caused by a defect of glucose-6-phosphatase in the liver endoplasmic reticulum. As a result, the liver cannot release glucose into the bloodstream to keep blood glucose concentrations constant during fasting, for example, at night. This affects the organs that rely on glucose for their catabolic needs (brain, erythrocyte, kidney). At the same time, high concentrations of glucose-6-phosphate in hepatocytes stimulate glycogen synthesis, leading to glycogen accumulation and hepatomegaly.

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16
Q

Which of the following energy-producing activities occurs in cytosol?

A Tricarboxylic acid cycle
B beta-Oxidation
C Glycolysis
D Oxidative phosphorylation

A

C − Glycolysis, also called Embden-Meyerhof-Parnas pathway, occurs in the cytosol. In this pathway a glucose molecule (with six C atoms) is broken down to two molecules of pyruvate (three C atoms each). The chemical energy liberated in this process is used to form two molecules of ATP from ADP and Pi.

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17
Q

A 1-year-old girl is brought to a family physician because of concerns about her development. She had an uncomplicated birth in a developing country at term. The mother reports that her daughter is not achieving normal milestones for a baby of her age. She also reports an unusual “mousy” odor of her urine and some hypopigmentation of skin and hair. On exam, the girl shows muscle hypotonia and microcephaly. To the physician’s surprise, a test for phenylalanine hydroxylase activity comes back normal. Her metabolic deficiency might also affect the synthesis of which of the following hormones?

 A Serotonin
 B Thyroxine
 C Calcitriol
 D Pregnenolone
 E Progesterone
A

A − The patient is suffering from a rare form of phenylketonuria (PKU) caused by a deficiency of dihydrobiopterin reductase. This affects phenylalanine, tyrosine, and tryptophan hydroxylase, and hence the conversion of phenylalanine to tyrosine, tyrosine to dopamine, and tryptophan to serotonin.

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18
Q

Lipids are the primary constituents of cellular membranes. They can be oxidatively damaged when free radicals are allowed to persist within the membrane, especially those containing polyunsaturated fatty acids. Such damage can lead to the loss of membrane integrity and the formation of mutagenic or carcinogenic moieties. Many vitamins can act as antioxidants; however, not all are protective against membrane damage. Which of the following functions primarily as an antioxidant to prevent polyunsaturated fatty acids from undergoing peroxidation?

A Vitamin A
B Vitamin D
C Vitamin E
D Vitamin K

A

C − The compounds that comprise the vitamin E family, gamma- and alpha-tocopherol, contain long hydrophobic tails that promote insertion into cellular membranes. Here they function as antioxidants, scavenging free radicals, including the reactive oxygen species (ROS) often formed as by-products of the electron transport chain, and protecting cellular components (e.g., polyunsaturated fatty acids) from unregulated, noncatalyzed oxidation.

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19
Q

A 6-month-old male infant is admitted to the emergency room with vomiting, lethargy, and irritability. Diagnostic tests reveal plasma ammonium levels of 200 $\mu$M. The mother reveals that one of her male siblings died in infancy after a similar episode, although she herself has never had such an episode. Based on the high ammonium levels and the family history, the physician suspects that the patient has a deficiency in ornithine transcarbamoylase (OTC), an X-linked disorder. To test this diagnosis, the physician orders additional tests on levels of particular metabolites in the blood plasma and urine. Which of the results below support the diagnosis of OTC deficiency?

 A High levels of orotic acid
 B High levels of citrulline
 C High levels of fumarate
 D Low levels of oxaloacetate
 E Low levels of glutamine and alanine
A

A − A deficiency in OTC results in a buildup of carbamoyl phosphate in the mitochondria of hepatocytes. The excess carbamoyl phosphate diffuses into the cytosol, where it can be converted to orotic acid in the pyrimidine biosynthetic pathway. Orotic acid levels increase because the subsequent step in purine synthesis depends on phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate (PRPP), which becomes depleted under these conditions. High levels of orotic acid in the urine, combined with hyperammonemia, are characteristic of OTC deficiency.

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20
Q

Monosaccharides may be linked together via glycosidic bonds to create disaccharides, oligosaccharides, and polysaccharides. In each of these, the individual monosaccharides that comprise the entire unit may or may not be the same. Among the sundry monosaccharides found in nature, glucose is perhaps one of the most ubiquitous. Which one of the following carbohydrates contains a monosaccharide unit other than glucose?

 A Glycogen
 B Cellulose
 C Maltose
 D Lactose
 E Starch
A

D − Most notably found in milk, lactose is a disaccharide formed via condensation of galactose and glucose through a beta-1,4 glycosidic linkage. The enzyme beta-D-galactosidase (lactase) is required to cleave lactose into its individual subunits so that absorption can occur. Lack of this enzyme in the digestive system (alactasia) is the primary cause of lactose intolerance.

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21
Q

Cholestyramine exerts its hypocholesterolemic effect by binding and preventing uptake of which of the following?

 A Cholesterol
 B Triacylglycerols
 C Lipoproteins
 D Bile acids
 E Cholesterol esters
A

D − Cholestyramine is a polystyrene resin with quaternary amino groups attached. By binding bile acids, cholestyramine prevents their enterohepatic circulation and promotes their removal with feces. This causes the liver to convert more cholesterol to new bile salts which lowers the plasma cholesterol level.

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22
Q

You are working on a research project to elucidate the reaction mechanism of an enzyme. You think that a particular serine (Ser) residue in the protein is required for catalytic activity. To test this hypothesis, you want to genetically replace this Ser by another amino acid, and then test whether the enzyme is still active. Which amino acid would you choose to replace the Ser?

 A Threonine (Thr)
 B Alanine (Ala)
 C Tryptophan (Trp)
 D Glutamic acid (Glu)
 E Histidine (His)
A

B − Ala looks very much like Ser, except that the OH-group that makes Ser reactive is replaced by hydrogen. Thus, it forms a perfect control in this situation

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23
Q

Beta-Oxidation of an odd-chain fatty acid produces several two-carbon and one three-carbon molecules. The latter enters the TCA cycle in the form of which compound?

 A Citrate
 B Isocitrate
 C alpha-Ketoglutarate
 D Succinyl CoA
 E Malate
A

D − Beta-Oxidation of an odd-chain fatty acid gives several molecules of acetyl CoA and one molecule of propionyl CoA. Propionyl CoA is also produced from the amino acids threonine, methionine, valine, and isoleucine. It is converted into succinyl CoA via propionyl CoA carboxylase (biotin-dependent), methylmalonyl CoA racemase, and methylmalonyl CoA mutase (vitamin B12–“dependent). Failure of the latter reaction leads to methylmalonic aciduria, either because of the inability to activate vitamin B12 (which manifests as acidosis and anemia) or because of a defect in the enzyme itself (which manifests as acidosis only). A defect in propionyl CoA carboxylase leads to propionic acidemia with ketoacidosis and protein intolerance.

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24
Q

An 8-year old girl presents with the following symptoms: onset of osteoporosis, ectopia lentis (lens detachment), and mild mental retardation. The patient was diagnosed with homocystinuria. A treatment regimen was prescribed that included dietary restriction of a particular essential amino acid and dietary supplements of vitamin B12 and folic acid. Which amino acid was restricted, and what biosynthetic reaction would be affected by the vitamin supplements?

A Methionine; enhance the conversion of homocysteine to methionine
B Cysteine; enhance the conversion of homocysteine to cysteine
C Glycine; enhance the conversion of serine to glycine
D Serine; inhibit the conversion of serine to glycine
E Cysteine; increase the absorption of cystine

A

A − Homocystinuria occurs due to a block in the biosynthetic pathway from homocysteine to cysteine. This results in a buildup of excess blood plasma levels of homocysteine, and in homocystinuria. As methionine is a precursor to homocysteine (through the production and utilization of S-adenosylmethionine), restricting the dietary levels of methionine reduces homocysteine levels. The vitamin supplements enhance the conversion of homocysteine to methionine because this reaction, which uses a folic acid derivative, is catalyzed by homocysteine methyltransferase. This enzyme requires cobalamin, a vitamin B12–’derived cofactor, for its activity. It is recommended that dietary restriction of methionine and vitamin supplements be used together in the treatment of homocystinuria. The levels of the essential amino acid methionine in the diet should be relatively low so that methionine will be used preferentially in protein synthesis, and the vitamin supplements will be useful in prompting the rapid conversion of homocysteine (once it is formed) to methionine, to prevent the excess buildup of homocysteine.

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25
Q

A student at the Metropolitan School of Nursing had a persistent cough, for which she visited her primary care doctor. She was given an inhaler to ease her symptoms, but she received no diagnosis or definitive treatment. Two weeks later, one of her lab instructors, a 48-year-old man without relevant previous history, also developed a runny nose and paroxysmal coughs ending in a noisy inspiratory stridor, with posttussive emesis. This got so bad that he sought help in the Metropolitan Mercy Hospital. Physical exam: temperature 37.4°C, respiratory rate 45/min, pulse 150 beats/min, blood pressure 102/49 mm Hg, and an oxygen saturation rate of 90%. Studies: interstitial opacities with peribronchial wall thickening on chest X-ray, respiratory secretions positive for Bordetella pertussisin polymerase chain reaction (PCR). The patient was treated with inhaled epinephrine and albuterol plus a 5-day course of azithromycin. The school informed all students, faculty, and staff of their exposure to Bordetella and suspended clinical training activities until all involved had obtained prophylactic treatment according to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention guidelines, supervised by the state’s health authority. The production of which of the following second messengers would be higher than normal in the patient’s lung epithelial cells?

 A cAMP
 B cGMP
 C Ca2+
 D Diacylglycerol
 E IP3
A

A − Pertussis toxin adenosine diphosphate (ADP) ribosylates Gi$ \alpha $, preventing GDP/GTP exchange and thus inhibition of adenylate cyclase. Bordetella infections claim the lives of some 400,000 children worldwide each year; without mandatory immunization, this would be much worse. Weakening protection from childhood immunization creates a reservoir of susceptible adults; these may spread the infection to infants and elderly, in whom it is particularly dangerous. Presentation of these infections in adults may be unusual.

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26
Q

Which readily available intermediate from glycolysis is used as a direct precursor for the synthesis of the glycerol moiety of triacylglycerols?

 A Pyruvate
 B 3-Phosphoglycerate
 C Glycerol 3-phosphate
 D Phosphoenolpyruvate
 E Dihydroxyacetone phosphate
A

E − Dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP) is reduced to glycerol-3-phosphate in mitochondria of hepatocytes and adipocytes by glycerol-3-phosphate dehydrogenase and then acylated to produce lysophosphatidic acid.

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27
Q

If the standard free energy change (Delta G0’) for a reaction A + B –> C + D(gas) is positive, then which of the following changes from standard conditions will drive the reaction toward the right?

A No change is required.
B Putting a gas-tight seal onto the reaction vessel
C Lowering the temperature
D Increasing the concentration of A

A

D. Mass Action principle

28
Q

An 18-year-old male patient comes to his family physician complaining of pain and muscle cramps during even moderate exercise. Physical exam reveals no hepato-, spleno-, or cardiomegaly, and an electrocardiogram reading is normal. There is no fasting hypoglycemia, glucose intolerance, hyperlipidemia, or ketosis. After exercise on an ergospirometer, a blood sample is taken that does not show lactic acidosis but does show increased creatine kinase and myoglobin. The most likely diagnosis is which of the following?

 A Von Gierke disease (glycogen storage disease Ia [GSD Ia])
 B Pompe disease (GSD II)
 C Cori-Forbe disease (GSD IIIa)
 D McArdle disease (GSD V)
 E Hers disease (GSD VI)
A

D − McArdle disease is caused by a defect in muscle phosphorylase; the muscle cannot utilize stored glycogen, which accumulates in the muscle cells. During exercise, muscle suffers from fuel deprivation, which can lead to rhabdomyolysis with release of creatine kinase and myoglobin. The latter can lead to kidney damage. In this disease, only skeletal muscle, but not liver and heart, are affected (note that a normal heart does not store much glycogen). The prognosis is good; the patient should avoid strenuous exercise or have glucose beforehand.

29
Q

Some patients with pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency have an enzyme with low affinity for a vitamin cofactor. Which vitamin should be prescribed to manage these patients?

 A Thiamine (vitamin B1)
 B Riboflavin (vitamin B2)
 C Pyridoxine (vitamin B6)
 D Folate (vitamin B9)
 E Cobalamin (vitamin B12)
A

A. Thiamine. The most common inherited defect in pyruvate dehydrogenase is in the E subunit, which requires thiamine pryophosphate as a cofactor

30
Q

Which of the following enzymes is not part of the TCA cycle?

 A Succinate dehydrogenase
 B Succinyl CoA synthetase
 C Isocitrate dehydrogenase
 D $ \alpha $-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
 E NADH dehydrogenase
A

E − NADH dehydrogenase is the first complex of the electron transport system.

31
Q

A newly developed laboratory method to isolate mitochondrial matrix as well as inner and outer mitochondrial membranes needs to be evaluated. Enzyme assays are commonly used in cell biology after separations to test cellular fractions for contamination with extraneous material. Which of the following enzymes could be used to test the matrix fraction for contamination with inner membrane and vice versa?

To Assess Purity of Matrix To Assess Purity of Inner Membrane
A. Pyruvate dehydrogenase Cytochrome-c oxidase
B. Pyruvate kinase G3P dehydrogenase (FAD-dependent)
C. Thermogenin Succinate dehydrogenase
D. NADH dehydrogenase a-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
E. G3PDH (NADHdependent) Cytochrome-c reductase

 A Row A
 B Row B
 C Row C
 D Row D
 E Row E
A

D − NADH dehydrogenase is also known as complex I of oxidative phosphorylation. This enzyme is located in the inner mitochondrial membrane; thus, it can translocate 4 H+ ions across the inner membrane for each NADH + H+ oxidized. This enzyme is therefore suitable to check a preparation of mitochondrial matrix for contamination with inner membranes. $ \alpha $-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase is a soluble enzyme of the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle and therefore occurs in the mitochondrial matrix. Absence of this enzyme in a preparation of inner membranes would exclude contamination with matrix proteins.

32
Q

Which of the following substances requires bile salt for transport into intestinal cells?

 A Vitamin A (retinal)
 B Vitamin B1 (thiamine)
 C Vitamin C (ascorbate)
 D Vitamin M (folate)
 E Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine)
A

Which of the following substances requires bile salt for transport into intestinal cells?

 A Vitamin A (retinal)
 B Vitamin B1 (thiamine)
 C Vitamin C (ascorbate)
 D Vitamin M (folate)
 E Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine)
33
Q

Which of the following substances requires bile salt for transport into intestinal cells?

 A Vitamin A (retinal)
 B Vitamin B1 (thiamine)
 C Vitamin C (ascorbate)
 D Vitamin M (folate)
 E Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine)
A

A − Vitamin A is a fat-soluble vitamin whose absorption requires functioning lipid absorption, including pancreatic lipase and bile salts from the liver. If either of these cannot reach the intestines (e.g., due to blockage of the common bile duct), no fat-soluble vitamins can be absorbed. All the other vitamins listed are water-soluble.

34
Q

Which enzyme catalyzes the entry of an activated acetyl unit into the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle?

 A Succinate dehydrogenase
 B Malate dehydrogenase
 C Isocitrate dehydrogenase
 D Citrate synthase
 E Aconitase
A

D − Citrate synthase is the “œcondensing enzyme” that joins acetyl coenzyme A (acetyl CoA) with oxaloacetate to form citrate.

35
Q

Which of the following statements about gout is correct?

A Gout is a defect in pyrimidine nucleotide metabolism.
B Gout is characterized by high levels of uric acid in the blood.
C Gout is characterized by high levels of xanthine in the blood.
D Gout is treatable with the bacteriostatic antimicrobial chloramphenicol.
E Gout is the result of a defect in one specific enzyme in 90% or more of all cases.

A

B − Gout is the result of either an overproduction of uric acid or, more commonly, its underexcretion.

36
Q

Which of the following enzyme pairs is involved in the conversion of amino acid nitrogen into two compounds that directly provide the urea nitrogen?

A Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and pyruvate dehydrogenase
B Malate dehydrogenase and asparaginase
C Fumarase and glutamate dehydrogenase
D Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I and AST
E Glutamine synthetase and glutaminase

A

D − Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I catalyzes the rate-limiting step of the urea cycle. The nitrogen atom in the resulting carbamoyl phosphate is incorporated into urea. AST leads to the production of aspartate through a transamination reaction. Aspartate feeds into the urea cycle, and its nitrogen atom is incorporated into urea.

37
Q

Fowler solution, named after the English physician who invented it in 1786, was a tonic that was prescribed in the United States until the 1950s against malaria, syphilis, chorea, asthma, and other diseases not tractable at the time. It is a 1% solution of potassium arsenite (liquor kali arseniatum). Many patients who took this solution for a long time suffered from chronic arsenite poisoning (which made them take more of the tonic). Much of the toxicity of arsenite is due to its forming chemical bonds with SH groups, especially when two of them are close together. Which of the following mitochondrial enzymes uses a cofactor susceptible to arsenite poisoning?

 A Pyruvate dehydrogenase
 B Citrate synthase
 C Aconitase
 D Isocitrate dehydrogenase
 E Succinyl CoA synthase
A

A − The E2 unit (acetyltransferase) of the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, like other thiamine-dependent oxidative decarboxylases, utilizes lipoamide to transfer the decarboxylated product onto coenzyme A. Lipoamide is converted to dihydrolipoamide in the process, which has two closely spaced SH groups sensitive to arsenite.

38
Q

Which of the following enzymes produces FADH2?

 A Succinate dehydrogenase
 B Isocitrate dehydrogenase
 C $ \alpha $-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
 D Lactate dehydrogenase
 E Malate dehydrogenase
A

A − Succinate dehydrogenase is the only enzyme in the list that uses FAD as a cosubstrate. All the others use NAD+.

39
Q

A 48-year-old man is admitted to the emergency room complaining of nausea, malaise, and palpitations. A physical exam reveals flushed, sweaty skin, tachycardia, rapid respiration, and a body temperature of 105.8°F. Upon questioning, he admits taking a “œpurely natural” weight reduction supplement obtained from an Internet source. The active ingredient of that supplement is most likely

 A 2,4-Dinitrophenol
 B Cyanide
 C Rotenone
 D Oligomycin
 E Antimycin A
A

A − The signs and symptoms are typical for an uncoupler, a substance that shuttles protons down the concentration gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane. The energy contained in that gradient is converted into heat. The body temperature of the patient needs to be kept below the fatal 107.6°F by ice packs. At the same time, fluids and electrolytes lost with sweat should be replaced. Oxygen may be given as needed. There is a considerable black market for dinitrophenol as a weight-loss aid, which turns body fat into heat. Although this sounds like an easy way out, it is not without considerable risk, which is why dinitrophenol is not a licensed drug.

40
Q

The following experiments were performed with peptide hormone X:
- ^125 I-labeled hormone X was injected into laboratory animals. The animals were sacrificed, and frozen sections of various organs were placed on photographic film. The film darkened on liver sections, whereas it stayed almost clear on all other tissues.

  • The molecular mass of hormone X was determined by gel filtration to be approximately 3,500 Da.
  • When the livers of animals treated with 125I-labeled hormone X were homogenized and centrifuged at 3,000 g for 10 min, the radioactivity was found in the pellet, not in the supernatant.
  • The blood glucose levels in animals treated with hormone X increased; at the same time, the liver mass decreased.
  • cAMP levels in cultured hepatocytes increased upon exposure to hormone X.
Hormone X is which of the following?
 A Cortisol
 B Glucagon
 C Epinephrine
 D Norepinephrine
 E Insulin
A

B − Glucagon binds to liver, but not other tissues, as demonstrated by autoradiography. It is a protein hormone, as demonstrated by its molecular mass and the ability to be iodinated. It binds to receptors on the cell membrane, which can be separated from the cytosol by a brief centrifugation at moderate speed. Binding of glucagon to liver cells leads to the conversion of stored glycogen to glucose, which is released into the bloodstream. Glucagon receptors work via Gs, which stimulates adenylate cyclase.

41
Q

Palytoxin (PTX, C129H227N3O52) is a water-soluble polyalcohol toxin produced by dinoflagellate algae of the genus Ostreopsis. Because of global warming, Ostreopsis has spread from tropical to temperate waters. It may now be found, for example, in algal blooms in the Mediterranean Sea, Sea of Japan, and the Gulf of Mexico during summer and may show up in seafood from these waters. PTX is particularly dangerous because it is not destroyed by cooking. Ingestion of contaminated food results in clupeotoxism marked by rhabdomyolysis, cramping, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, paresthesia, exophthalmia, renal failure, cardiopulmonary arrest, and death within minutes to days. PTX binds to the extracellular domain of Na+/K+ ATPase, turning it into a permanently open ion channel. After poisoning with PTX, the sodium, potassium, and calcium concentrations in the cytosol would change as follows:

A Na+ elevated, K+ reduced, Ca2+ elevated
B Na+ elevated, K+ reduced, Ca2+ reduced
C Na+ elevated, K+ elevated, Ca2+ elevated
D Na+ elevated, K+ elevated, Ca2+ reduced
E Na+ reduced, K+ reduced, Ca2+ elevated

A

A − The Na+/K+ATPase is responsible for maintaining low intracellular concentrations of Na+ and high intracellular concentrations of K+ via the ATP-dependent movement of 2K+ in and 3Na+ out of a cell. The Na+-Ca2+ exchanger maintains low levels of cytosolic Ca2+ by importing 3Na+ and exporting one Ca2+ ion. Opening the ion channel of Na+/K+ ATPase leads to a breakdown of the ion gradient across the cell membrane, causing cystolic levels of Na+ to increase and K+ to decrease. In addition, the breakdown of the Na+ gradient would reduce the activity of the Na+-Ca2+ exchanger, causing cytosolic Ca2+ levels to increase.

42
Q

Fumarate is formed from which of the following compounds in a one-step reaction?

 A Argininosuccinate
 B Cystathionine
 C Serine
 D Citrulline
 E Methylmalonyl CoA
A

A − Argininosuccinate is hydrolyzed to fumarate and arginine in a single step in the urea cycle. This reaction is catalyzed by argininosuccinate lyase.

43
Q

The coenzyme involved in transaminations and many other amino acid transformations is derived from which of the following?

 A Niacin
 B Pyridoxine
 C Flavins
 D Thiamine
 E Vitamin B12
A

B − The cofactor for transaminases is pyridoxal phosphate, which is derived from pyridoxine (vitamin B6). Pyridoxyl phosphate is covalently bound to the active site of aminotransferases. The cofactor acts as an intermediate acceptor of the amino group, forming pyridoxamine phosphate. In the reverse reaction, pyridoxamine phosphate reforms pyridoxyl phosphate upon transfer of the amino group to an alpha-keto acid substrate.

44
Q

A 2-year-old boy presents to his physician with nystagmus, photosensitivity, and a failure to thrive. Laboratory tests reveal that serum concentrations of amino acids are unremarkable, but levels of neutral amino acids in the urine are elevated. The patient is diagnosed with Hartnup disease. Daily supplementation of which of these molecules would alleviate the severity of symptoms of this disorder?

 A Tetrahydrobiopterin
 B Folic acid
 C Nicotinic acid
 D Vitamin B6
 E Serotonin
A

C − The reabsorption of the neutral amino acid tryptophan in the kidneys is defective in Hartnup disease. Nicotinamide-containing molecules such as NAD and NADP are synthesized from tryptophan. Thus, treatment involves supplementation with nicotinic acid.

45
Q

Phosphorylation of which of the following enzymes by a protein kinase leads to its inactivation?

 A Glycogen phosphorylase
 B Phosphorylase kinase
 C Glycogen synthase
 D Branching enzyme
 E Debranching enzyme
A

C − Glycogen synthase is inactivated through phosphorylation by protein kinase A (PKA) in response to glucagon (in liver) and epinephrine (in liver and muscle).

46
Q

Certain amino acids can increase the concentration of blood glucose because

A they can be completely oxidized via the TCA cycle.
B they are essential.
C their carbon chains can be converted to a TCA cycle intermediate.
D their carbon chains can be converted to acetyl CoA.
E they undergo transamination reactions.

A

C − The TCA cycle intermediate, oxaloacetate, can be diverted from the TCA cycle to initiate gluconeogenesis. The carbon atoms of other TCA cycle intermediates that are incorporated into oxaloacetate are also important in gluconeogenesis.

47
Q

Like many mussels and sea food, Velesunio ambiguus contains thiaminase, which destroys the vitamin B1 (thiamine) in the diet. Which is the major pathway that was inhibited in these explorers?

 A Glycolysis
 B Fatty acid synthesis
 C TCA cycle
 D Oxidative phosphorylation
 E Beta-Oxidation
A

C − Thiamine is required as a cofactor by pyruvate dehydrogenase and alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase in the TCA cycle, and also by the branched chain alpha-keto acid dehydrogenase in the breakdown of Leu, Ile, and Val. These enzymes perform oxidative decarboxylations of their substrates and transfer the product onto coenzyme A. Thiamine is required for the first step of these reactions. Thiamine is also required for transketolase, which occurs in the pentose phosphate shunt. Transketolase measurement in erythrocytes before and after addition of thiamine can be used to assess the thiamine status of a patient: if addition of thiamine increases the activity, the patient is deficient.

48
Q

A 16-year-old boy presents to his physician with renal colic brought on by the presence of kidney stones (renal calculi). Laboratory tests show a positive nitroprusside urine test. The patient is diagnosed with cystinuria. The sulfur atoms in the precipitating amino acid have their origin from which other amino acid?

 A Threonine
 B Serine
 C Tryptophan
 D Methionine
 E Citrulline
A

D − Cystinuria is marked by renal calculi formed from the amino acid cystine, whose structure is composed of two cysteine amino acids linked via a disulfide bond. The sulfur atoms in cysteine are derived from methionine.

49
Q

The rate-limiting enzyme of the metabolic pathway that synthesizes glucose de novo from noncarbohydrate precursors catalyzes which of the following reactions? (ADP, adenosine diphosphte; ATP, adenosine triphosphate; BP, bisphosphate; P, phosphate; Pi, inorganic phosphate)

A ATP + Pyruvate + HCO3- –> Oxaloacetate + ADP + Pi
B Fructose 6-P + ATP –> Fructose 1,6-BP + ADP
C Glucose 6-P + H2O –> Glucose + Pi
D Fructose 1,6-BP + H2O –> Fructose 6-P + Pi
E 3-Phosphoglycerate + ATP –> 1,3-Bisphosphoglycerate + ADP

A

D − The rate-limiting enzyme of gluconeogenesis (the pathway that synthesizes glucose de novo from noncarbohydrate precursors) is fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase. It is a phosphatase that hydrolyzes a phosphate group (Pi) from the carbon 1 position of fructose 1,6-bisphosphate, thus generating fructose 6-phosphate.

50
Q

The carbon skeletons of which of the following amino acids can be utilized in the synthesis of both glucose and ketone bodies?

 A Glutamate and glutamine
 B Methionine and cysteine
 C Aspartate and asparagine
 D Leucine and lysine
 E Tyrosine and threonine
A

E − Tyrosine and threonine are known to have both glucogenic and ketogenic properties because they are both degraded to products that can be used in the synthesis of glucose and ketone bodies. The glucogenic products of tyrosine and threonine are fumarate and succinyl coenzyme A (succinyl CoA), respectively. The ketogenic products are acetyl CoA and acetoacetate.

51
Q

Under physiological conditions, the rate of oxidative phosphorylation is limited mainly by the concentration of which of the following?

 A NADH
 B ATP
 C ADP
 D Citric acid
 E Pyruvate
A

C − If there is not enough ADP to utilize the proton gradient, oxidation of NADH and the reduced form of flavin adenine dinucleotide (FADH2) will cease. This also will inhibit the TCA cycle.

52
Q

In our body, alcohol dehydrogenase converts ingested methanol into formaldehyde, which destroys the optic nerve. Methanol poisoning therefore leads to blindness. To protect their vision, patients with methanol poisoning may be infused with ethanol, which is also oxidized by alcohol dehydrogenase to acetaldehyde. The methanol will then be slowly excreted by the kidneys. If you were to plot the effect of ethanol on the rate of oxidation of methanol by alcohol dehydrogenase in a Lineweaver-Burk plot, you would see a

A decrease of the slope and unchanged y-intercept.
B increase of the slope and unchanged y-intercept.
C increase of the slope and decrease of the y-intercept.
D decrease of the slope and increase of the y-intercept.
E decrease of both the slope and the y-intercept.

A

B − (A, C, D, E.) Because ethanol and methanol are both substrates of alcohol dehydrogenase, both bind to the same site. Thus, one inhibits the turnover of the other competitively. In a Lineweaver-Burk plot, this results in lines that have the same y-intercept (1/Vmax) but slopes that increase with increasing inhibitor concentration.

53
Q

A 7-year-old girl is presented to a pediatric unit for weakness in her upper limbs. She is the first child of a third-degree consanguineous marriage; perinatal and neonatal history was unremarkable. At 5 months of age, she suffered from an infection during which hepatomegaly and a few hypoglycemic seizures were documented. Liver and muscle enzymes were elevated in her serum. Anthropometric measurements (e.g., height and weight) are at the fifth percentile. A physical exam reveals the liver 7 cm below the costal margin, as well as mild weakness in the distal muscles with normal tendon reflexes. Liver and muscle biopsies reveal large amounts of glycogen with short outer branches. Which enzyme is most likely to be defective? (Sujatha et al.: Indian Pediatrics 47 [2010] 354-5.)

 A Glycogen synthase
 B Amylo-1,6-glucosidase (debranching enzyme)
 C Glucose 6-phosphatase
 D Phosphoglucomutase
 E UDP-glucose pyrophosphorylase
A

B − The debranching enzyme breaks down the 1,6-alpha branch points of glycogen. A defective debranching enzyme leads to incomplete removal of the branch points. This results in cardiomegaly, muscle weakness, fasting hypoglycemia, dyslipidemia, and eventually cardiomyopathy (Cori disease, glycogenolysis, GSD III). It is managed by ketogenic diet (i.e., high-fat, low-carbohydrate, adequate protein diet) with frequent meals.

54
Q

The correct sequence of steps for shortening a fatty acyl CoA by two carbons is

A dehydration, hydration, dehydrogenation, and thiolytic cleavage.
B thiolytic cleavage, hydration, dehydrogenation, and acylation.
C dehydrogenation, hydration, dehydrogenation, and thiolytic cleavage.
D dehydrogenation, hydration, dehydration, and thiolytic cleavage.
E hydration, dehydrogenation, dehydrogenation, and thiolytic cleavage.

A

C − (A, B, D, E) The first dehydrogenation introduces a double bond into the fatty acid molecule, onto which water can be added, forming a $ \beta $-hydroxyacyl CoA. The secondary alcohol is then oxidized to a ketone. Then the C$ \alpha $-C$ \beta $ bond is thiolytically cleaved, forming acetyl CoA. The energy of the C$ \alpha $-C$ \beta $ bond is preserved as a thioester bond to CoA, the second substrate of this reaction.

55
Q

A 2-week-old boy is brought to a family doctor because of lethargy, feeding difficulties, frequent vomiting, and yellow skin. He has been exclusively breast-fed. Physical exam reveals jaundice, cataracts, hepatomegaly, and edema. Laboratory: galactosuria, aminoaciduria, albuminuria, hypoglycemia, elevated serum bilirubin (direct + indirect), and liver enzymes. Ultrasound: enlarged fatty liver. The cataract is caused by which of the following compounds?

 A Galactitol
 B Erythritol
 C Xylitol
 D Mannitol
 E Sorbitol
A

A − The child is suffering from galactokinase deficiency, an inherited defect of galactokinase—an enzyme that phosphorylates galactose in order for it to be metabolized further for use in glycolysis. As a consequence, accumulating galactose is reduced by aldose reductase to the sugar alcohol galactitol, which causes osmotic swelling of the eye lens and membrane damage. In addition, the depletion of NADPH prevents detoxification of reactive oxygen species. Both effects lead to cataract formation, which is reversible if galactose is withheld from the diet early enough (remember that milk sugar [lactose] is a disaccharide of galactose and glucose). Unfortunately, this is not true for the brain damage caused by galactosemia. This makes early detection of the disease essential, and newborn screening is mandatory in many jurisdictions.

56
Q

In hyperventilation syndrome, patients have the feeling that they do not get enough air. As a result, they breathe faster. This leads to chest pain, paresthesia (prickling or burning sensation in skin), and panic attacks. Regarding blood pH, such patients will have

A metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation
B metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation
C respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation
D respiratory acidosis without metabolic compensation
E respiratory alkalosis without metabolic compensation

A

E − Fast and deep breathing leads to loss of CO2 , and hence increased blood pH. The loss of buffering capacity will be so large that the kidneys cannot compensate in time. This is a clinical emergency because it prevents the Bohr effect and thus oxygen release from hemoglobin in the tissues. The patient’s feeling of hypoxia (despite normal oxygen saturation) will increase, and breathing will accelerate further, leading to a vicious circle with a potentially fatal outcome. Treatment is by encouraging the patient to slow the breathing (7 seconds in, 11 seconds out). Initially a bag held in front of the patient’™s mouth can be helpful in restoring blood CO2 levels.

57
Q

Which vitamin is an essential cofactor of ACC?

 A Thiamine
 B Riboflavin
 C Niacin
 D Pyridoxine
 E Biotin
A

E − Carboxylases use biocytin as a cofactor, which is formed by the reaction of biotin with the $\varepsilon$-amino group of a lysine residue in the enzyme.

58
Q

A 47-year-old man is delivered to the hospital for malaise, jaundice, edema, and ascites. On physical exam he had 2 cm hard hepatomegaly and 5 to 6 cm splenomegaly. His bloodwork revealed acanthocytosis (spur cells) and severe liver disease. Liver ultrasound showed nodular hepatomegaly, and biopsy showed advanced cirrhosis with iron accumulation. His bone marrow was hypercellular. While waiting for a liver transplant, the patient was treated with diuretics but progressed to grade IV hepatic encephalopathy and died. If you analyzed the lipid composition of the patient’s red blood cells, you would find a relative increased concentration of

 A cholesterol
 B phosphatidylserine
 C phosphatidylcholine
 D phosphatidylethanolamine
 E sphingophospholipids
A

A − In severe liver disease “most frequently alcoholic liver cirrhosis” the erythrocyte membrane gets loaded with cholesterol. (This also happens if normal erythrocytes are incubated with the plasma of a patient with spur cell anemia.) Cholesterol reduces membrane fluidity and results in an irregular cell shape (remodeling by spleen). The high cholesterol content also leads to reduced repair of lipids after peroxidation, shortened lifetime of the erythrocyte, and anemia.

59
Q

The phosphorylated form of creatine is

 A a source of high-energy phosphate for ATP formation in muscle.
 B a component of the urea cycle.
 C excreted by the kidneys.
 D an important hormone.
 E a marker of renal function.
A

A − Creatine phosphate in muscle acts as a high-energy phosphate donor to ADP during the first 10 to 20 seconds of muscle activity to help maintain ATP levels for continued contractions. This allows a “œflight or fight” response without delay.

60
Q

The enzyme phosphoglucose isomerase catalyzes the reaction glucose 6-phosphate –> fructose 6-phosphate, DeltaG=−0.43 kcal/mol. For this reaction to proceed in the physiological direction (toward fructose 6-phosphate), one has to

 A remove Glu-6P in a second reaction.
 B remove Fru-6P in a second reaction.
 C do nothing, as reactions proceed toward positive DeltaG.
 D increase the Fru-6P concentration.
 E increase the enzyme concentration.
A

B − Removing the product of a reaction lowers its concentration and forces more substrate to be turned into product in order to maintain the equilibrium constant. This is an application of the Le Chatelier principle.

61
Q

What is the first intact purine nucleotide formed during de novo biosynthesis?

 A Adenosine 5'-monophosphate (AMP)
 B Guanosine 5'-monophosphate (GMP)
 C Inosine 5'-monophosphate (IMP)
 D Orotidine 5'-monophosphate (OMP)
 E Xanthosine 5'-monophosphate (XMP)
A

C − The purine base is assembled on the 5-phosphoribosyl-1-pyrophosphate (PRPP) framework, building first the five-membered and then the six-membered ring. Closure of this second ring leads to IMP, which serves as the starting material to make GMP and AMP.

62
Q

A 40-year-old male is brought to the emergency room (ER) in a confused state after falling from a bar stool. His movements are uncoordinated, and he has no memory of the evening. The patient’s friends state that his nutrition is mostly of the alcoholic kind. Upon investigation, the patient has edema and tachycardia and is emaciated and cyanotic. He vomits several times during his stay in the ER. Laboratory: Low oxygen saturation of blood, high serum pyruvate. The patient requires immediate supplementation with

 A retinal
 B thiamine
 C cobalamin
 D ascorbate
 E menaquinone
A

B − Patient is suffering from wet beriberi and Wernicke encephalopathy due to his nutrient-poor diet, which lacks sufficient amounts of vitamin B1, thiamine. Without the latter, Wernicke encephalopathy may progress to Korsakoff disease, which is irreversible. In the ER, it is essential that thiamine is given to any patient with even a remote possibility of beriberi (including alcoholics) before intravenous glucose is started. Beriberi is still a major health problem in developing countries. In the Philippines it is the fourth leading cause of infant death (75 deaths per 100,000 live births). This is caused by the use of polished (white rather than brown) rice.

63
Q

A young woman is fleeing from a civil war. Together with other people from her village, she is trying to reach the safety of a refugee camp in a neighboring country on foot. She has not eaten for 3 days. Which of her organs will maintain her blood glucose level?

 A Muscle
 B Adipose tissue
 C Intestine
 D Liver
 E Brain
A

D − Intestinal content will provide glucose for ~ 4 hours after the last meal, then liver glycogen stores last until ~ 16 to 20 hours after the last meal. From then on, the only source of glucose is gluconeogenesis from amino acids (muscle protein) and glycerol (from adipose tissue), which is performed mainly in the liver.

64
Q

A 3-year-old boy was brought to a pediatric hospital because of abdominal pain. Parents reported that the child had had a distended abdomen since a few months after birth and that he was less active than most of his peers. There had been two episodes of bronchitis in the last year. Physical exam: eupnoic, normal breath sounds, 98% oxygen saturation. Lung function was at the lower end of the normal range, but the patient had difficulties following the instructions. Hypotonia and hepatosplenomegaly were noted 3 and 2 cm below the costal margin, respectively. Weight was at the 75th percentile, height at the 25th. Laboratory: complete blood count (CBC), erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), partial thromboplastin time (PTT), ferritin, and C-reactive protein were normal. Liver enzymes, cholesterol, angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE), and LDL were elevated, high-density lipoprotein (HDL) was low. Tuberculin skin test, sweat chloride test, and serological tests for various pathogens were all negative. Chest X-ray showed diffuse interstitial lung infiltrates with a nodular pattern, CT showed interstitial opacities with a reticular pattern in all lobes but no adenopathy. Foam cells (sphingolipid-laden macrophages) were found in bronchoalveolar lavage fluid and bone marrow biopsy.
The activity of which of the following enzymes should be checked to get a definitive diagnosis? (Bonetto et al.: Eur. Respir. J. 26 [2005] 974-977.)

A alpha-Galactosidase
B Sphingomyelinase
C Hexosaminidas B
D Hexosamidase A

A

B − The signs and laboratory values are consistent with Niemann-Pick disease. This is a lysosomal storage disease caused by the inability to break down sphingomyelin to ceramide by removal of phosphocholine. Characteristic of both Niemann-Pick and Gaucher disease is the presence of sphingolipid-laden macrophages (foam cells), but in morbus Gaucher there is bone involvement. Hepatosplenomegaly and mental retardation (which can be diagnosed only from age 6 onward) are other signs in both diseases.

65
Q

The apparent Km of an enzyme for its substrate is increased by which of the following?

A Competitive inhibitor
B Uncompetitive inhibitor
C K-type allosteric activator (K-type effectors alter Km)
D V-type allosteric inhibitor (V-type effectors alter Vmax)

A

A − Competitive inhibitors increase the apparent Km (lower the apparent affinity) of an enzyme for its substrate. This is because a substrate cannot bind to an enzyme when a competing inhibitor is bound, and vice versa.

66
Q

Which of the following processes would be most active in the fasting state?

A Activation of cyclic adenosine monophospohate (cAMP)–“dependent HSL in adipose tissue
B Lipolysis of triacylglycerols of chylomicrons by lipoprotein lipase in capillaries
C Activation of acetyl CoA carboxylase by citrate in liver
D Phosphorylation of glycerol by glycerol kinase in adipose tissue

A

A − Glucagon in the fasting state stimulates the production of cAMP in adipocytes, which stimulates protein kinase A (PKA). PKA phosphorylates and activates hormone-sensitive lipase.

67
Q

A 29-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis entered the hospital in renal failure. Further tests revealed hyperuricemia and an asymptomatic renal insufficiency with creatinine clearance that was 60% of normal values. The patient’s renal damage was presumably caused by the formation of uric acid crystals in the nephrons. Given this information, which of the following diagnoses is notconsistent with this patient’s condition?

A A deficiency of hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyltransferase (HGPRT)
B An exceptionally active isoform of xanthine oxidase
C An overactive isoform of carbamoyl phosphate synthase I
D An overactive isoform of phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate (PRPP) synthetase
E Overconsumption of purine-rich foods and dehydration

A

C − This is an incorrect statement. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I (CPS-I) is a mitochondrial enzyme that catalyzes the formation of carbomyl phosphate from NH4+ and HCO3- in the urea cycle. Its hyperactivity would not lead to hyperuricemia. In contrast, hyperuricemia would result from an increase in xanthine oxidase, which catalyzes the conversion of hypoxanthine to xanthine and then xanthine to uric acid in the purine degradation pathway, causes an increase in PRPP synthase activity, dehydration, and overconsumption of purines (secondary gout), or a decrease in HGPRT activity (Kelley-Seegmiller syndrome). All these conditions lead to increased uric acid production, consistent with the symptoms seen in this patient.